Infection Flashcards

(131 cards)

1
Q

distinctive feature of PCP pneumonia

A

exercised induced oxygen desaturation

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2
Q

treatment for severe PCP pneumonia

A

IV pentamidine

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3
Q

what investigation is done to demonstrate the presence of Pneumocystitis jirovecii

A

bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and silver staining

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4
Q

which infections are associated with a vaginal pH >4.5

A

trichomonas vaginalis
bacterial vaginosis

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5
Q

which infection has yellow/green vaginal discharge

A

trichomanos vaginalis

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6
Q

treatment for trichomonas vaginalis

A

oral metronidazole for 5-7 days

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7
Q

microscopy finding in trichomonas vaginalis

A

microscopy of a wet mount shows motile trophozoites

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8
Q

which infection is characterised by a strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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9
Q

What is Weil’s syndrome in leptospirosis infection?

A

The immune phase that occurs 5-7 days later when antibodies against the organism start to develop.

During the immune phase, patients may present with multisystem involvement such as renal failure, hepatic dysfunction, pulmonary haemorrhage and myocarditis with arrhythmias

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10
Q

When do antibodies test positive in Leptospirosis infection

A

after day 7

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11
Q

vector of leptospirosis

A

infected rat urine

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12
Q

main investigation for leptospirosis

A

serology for AB

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13
Q

management of leptospirosis

A

high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

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14
Q

what type of microbe is leptospira interrograns

A

spirochaete

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15
Q

when should prophylactic treatment for PCP pneumonia begin?

A

when CD4 count is below 200

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16
Q

How is MRSA from a carrier suppressed [2]

A

nose: mupirocin 2% in white soft paraffin, tds for 5 days

skin: chlorhexidine gluconate, od for 5 days

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17
Q

3 Abx used in MRSA treatment

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

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18
Q

What is the most effective single step to reduce the incidence of MRSA?

A

hand hygiene

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19
Q

what does the combined HIV test test for?

A

Ab against HIV and the p24 antigen

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20
Q

when must PEP be started after UPSI with an HIV carrier

A

within 72 hours

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21
Q

when should asymptomatic patients with HIV be tested?

A

4 weeks from exposure

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22
Q

what is the gold standard for diagnosing HIV

A

combined test

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23
Q

prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis [2]

how many doses?

A

oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin now

single dose to all contacts in the 7 days to onset of symptoms, regardless of vaccination status

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24
Q

Abx for bacterial meningitis for patients aged 3 months to 50 years

A

IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

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25
Abx for bacterial meningitis for patients aged >50
cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) + amoxicillin (or ampicillin) to cover for Listeria
26
indicated for delayed LP in meningitis investigation [4]
1) signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash 2) severe respiratory/cardiac compromise 3) significant bleeding risk 4) signs of raised intracranial pressure: - focal neurological signs - papilloedema - continuous or uncontrolled seizures - GCS ≤ 12
27
Abx for meningococcal meningitis
Intravenous benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)
28
Pneumonia with lymphopenia, hyponatraemia & deranged LFTs
Legionella
29
Pneumonia associated with erythema multiforme (target)
mycoplasma
30
Pneumonia associated with red currant jelly sputum
Klebsiella
31
Pneumonia associated with rusty coloured sputum
Strep pneumo
32
diagnostic test for Legionella
urinary antigen
33
treatment for legionella
erythromycin/clarithromycin
34
which infection is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma
Hep B
35
How are cirrhosis patients monitored for HCC
six-monthly intervals consisting of abdominal ultrasound and measuring AFP levels.
36
Main treatment for Hep B
pegylated interferon-alpha
37
vector for yellow fever
mosquitoes
38
features of yellow fever
mild flu-like illness lasting less than one week sudden onset of high fever rigors nausea & vomiting Bradycardia A brief remission is followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria Councilman bodies (inclusion bodies) may be seen in the hepatocytes
39
alongside abx, what medication improves outcomes in bacterial meningitis patients? why is it used?
IV dexamethasone by reducing neurological sequelae
40
contradictions to using dexamethasone in treatment of bacterial meningitis [4]
septic shock meningococcal septicaemia. immunocompromised meningitis following surgery
41
treatment of UTI for symptomatic pregnant women duration
first-line: nitrofurantoin (should be avoided near term) second-line: amoxicillin or cefalexin 7 days
42
GI infection that presents as prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea
giardiasis
43
GI infection that presents as severe vomiting and short incubation period
staph aureus
44
GI infection that presents as gradual onset bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and tenderness which may last for several weeks
amoebiasis
45
Abx used for UTI that is contraindicated in pregnancy
trimethoprim
46
treating a symptomatic UTI in catheterised patient
7 day Abx with catheter change if its been there for more than 7 days
47
when should the repeat combined HIV test be done
in 12 weeks times but start ART right away
48
definition of pyrexia of unknown origin
Defined as a prolonged fever of > 3 weeks which resists diagnosis after a week in hospital
49
neoplastic causes of PUO [4]
lymphoma hypernephroma preleukaemia atrial myxoma
50
which patients need a urine culture sent before ABx are started for UTI [4]
- men - pregnant women - non -pregnant women over 65 - visible or non-visible haematuria
51
how is bacteriuria treated in catheterised patients
no treatment if asymptomatic
52
treatment of post splenectomy sepsis
Penicillin V 500mg BD or amoxicillin 250mg BD
53
treatment of neutropenic sepsis
tazocin (piperacillin + tazobactam)
54
Suspected bacterial meningitis: an LP should be done before IV antibiotics, unless [4]
cannot be done within 1 hour signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash significant bleeding risk signs of raised intracranial pressure
55
treatment of legionella
clarithromycin
56
treatment of latent TB [2 ways]
3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin or 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)
57
investigations for mycoplasma pneumonia | name of test
diagnosis is generally by **Mycoplasma serology** positive **cold agglutination test** → peripheral blood smear may show red blood cell agglutination
58
treatment for mycoplasma pneumonia
doxycycline or macrolide
59
causative agent of Kaposi sarcoma
HHV-8
60
management of wound: Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose < 10 years ago
no vaccine nor tetanus immunoglobulin is required, regardless of the wound severity
61
management of wound: Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose > 10 years ago
if tetanus prone wound: reinforcing dose of vaccine high-risk wounds (e.g. compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue): reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin
62
management of wound: If vaccination history is incomplete or unknown
reinforcing dose of vaccine, regardless of the wound severity for tetanus prone and high-risk wounds: reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin
63
main complication of mumps
orchitis
64
treatment of Lyme's disease with doxycycline allergy
amoxicillin
65
treatment of chlamydia
doxycycline if pregnant: azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin
66
what does an aspergillioma usually grow secondary to
previous TB infection
67
characteristic Chest X-ray sign of aspergillioma
The **air crescent sign** on chest x-ray is a characteristic finding of aspergilloma where a crescent of air that surrounds a radiopaque mass present in a lung cavity is visible.
68
how many drugs does ART consist of and which drugs make it up?
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) involves a combination of **at least three drugs** typically **two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)** and either a **protease inhibitor (PI)** or a **non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)**. This combination both decreases viral replication but also reduces the risk of viral resistance emerging
69
management of syphillis
benzathine penicillin is the first-line management alt: doxycycline
70
what should be monitored after syphilis treatment
nontreponemal (rapid plasma reagin [RPR] or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory [VDRL]) titres should be monitored after treatment to assess the response
71
treatment of HSV gingivostomatitis
gingivostomatitis: oral aciclovir, chlorhexidine mouthwash
72
treatment of multiple, non-keratinised genital warts
topical podophyllum
73
treatment of solitary, keratinised warts
cryotherapy
74
which pneumonia does previous influenza predispose you to
Staphylococcus aureus
75
treatment of syphilis
benzylpencilllin
76
early phase features of leptospirosis [4]
may be mild or subclinical fever flu-like symptoms subconjunctival suffusion (redness)/haemorrhage
77
Features if typhoid [5]
fever abdominal pain constipation 'rose' spots bradycardia
78
which viral hepatitis is associated with thrombocytopenia
Hep E
79
which viral hepatitis is associated with undercooked pork
Hep E
80
which viral hepatitis is associated with shellfish
Hep A
81
cause of Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
Chlamydia trachomatis
82
three stages of Lymphogranuloma venereum
stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy stage 3: proctocolitis
83
treatment of Lymphogranuloma venereum
doxycycline
84
investigation of choice for herpes
NAAT
85
3 signs of Jarish-Herxheimer reaction
fever tachycardia rash post abx, treat with paracetamol
86
treatment of malaria: in areas which are known to be chloroquine-sensitive then WHO recommend [2]
artemisinin combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine
87
treatment of malaria: in areas which are known to be chloroquine-resistant use
Artemisinin combination therapy
88
patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given ___________ following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse
patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given **primaquine** following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse
89
investigation for Lyme's disease
can start Abx upon clinical diagnosis ELISA (serology)
90
treatment of bacterial vaginosis
oral metronidazole 7 days
91
how many tetanus vaccinations are given to provide life long immunity
5
92
treatment of syphilis in pregnancy
IM benzathine penicillin
93
what is seen on microscopy in BV
clue cells
94
treatment of oral cold sore
topical aciclovir
95
treatment of genital herpes
oral aciclovir
96
complications of mycoplasma: - neuro [2] - cardio [2] - gastro [2] - renal [1]
- neuro: GBS and immune mediated disease - cardio: myocarditis/pericarditis - gastro: hepatitis, pancreatitis - renal: acute glomerulonephritis
97
what should be used in management of meningitis if the patient has anaphylactic allergies to penicillins and cephalosporins
IV chloramphenicol
98
gram stain and shape of neisseria gonorrhoea
gram -ve diplococci
99
cause of non-gonococcal urethritis
Mycoplasma genitalium
100
how do symptoms of primary herpes infection compare to eventual recurrent episodes
primary infection is most severe
101
what can be used to treat gonorrhoea if the patient refuses IM ceftriaxone injections [2]
oral cefixime + oral azithromycin
102
first line treatment of Lyme' s disease
doxycycline
103
how does Yellow fever present [3]
classic description involves sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea & vomiting. Bradycardia may develop. A brief remission is followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria
104
histological feature in hepatocytes in Yellow Fever
Councilman bodies (inclusion bodies) may be seen in the hepatocytes
105
Disseminated gonococcal infection triad
tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis
106
post exposure prophylaxis for HBsAg positive source
known responder to the HBV vaccine then a booster dose should be given non-responder (anti-HBs < 10mIU/ml 1-2 months post-immunisation) they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine
107
triad of infectious mononucleosis
sore throat, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy other: malaise, anorexia, headache palatal petechiae splenomegaly - occurs in around 50% of patients and may rarely predispose to splenic rupture hepatitis, transient rise in ALT lymphocytosis: presence of 50% lymphocytes with at least 10% atypical lymphocytes haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM) a maculopapular, pruritic rash develops in around 99% of patients who take ampicillin/amoxicillin whilst they have infectious mononucleosis
108
management of infectious mononucleosis
rest during the early stages, drink plenty of fluid, avoid alcohol simple analgesia for any aches or pains consensus guidance in the UK is to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture
109
adverse effects of metronidazole
disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin
110
CMV retinitis
common in HIV patients with a low CD4 count (< 50) presents with visual impairment e.g. 'blurred vision'. Fundoscopy shows retinal haemorrhages and necrosis, often called 'pizza' retina IV ganciclovir is the treatment of choice
111
causes of HIV diarrhoea
Cryptosporidium + other protozoa (most common) Cytomegalovirus Mycobacterium avium intracellulare Giardia
112
Post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV: duration of treatment
4 weeks of ART followed by a HIV tests at 12 weeks
113
which TB investigation allows to assess drug sensitivities in TB
sputum culture
114
what is Group A strep
Strep pyogenes
115
what is Group B strep
Strep agalactiae
116
treatment for amoebiasis
metronidazole
117
features of Dengue fever
Retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, thrombocytopenia in returning traveller, bone pain,
118
features of Legionella
flu-like symptoms including fever (present in > 95% of patients) dry cough **relative bradycardia** confusion lymphopaenia **hyponatraemia** **deranged liver function tests** pleural effusion: seen in around 30% of patients
119
Cause of false negative Mantoux tests include
TB AIDS Long-term steroid use Lymphoma Sarcoidosis Extremes of age Fever Hypoalbuminaemia Anaemia
120
causative agent of chancroid
Haemophilus ducreyi.
121
how does chancroid present
painful genital ulcers associated with unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. The ulcers typically have a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border. not to be confused with chancre in syphilis which are painless
122
live vaccines
MR V-BOY MMR Varciella BCG Oral polio Yellow Fever
123
what must be done before giving the BCG
tuberculin skin test
124
Ebola presentation what is the incubation period
First symptoms are the sudden onset of fever fatigue, muscle pain, headache and sore throat. This is followed by vomiting, diarrhoea, rash, symptoms of impaired kidney and liver function, and in some cases, both internal and external bleeding. The incubation period is 2 to 21 days, and patients are not infectious until they develop symptoms.
125
do human bites require HIV PEP
no
126
EBV associated malignancies
Burkitt's lymphoma Hodgkin's lymphoma nasopharyngeal carcinoma
127
treatment of disseminated Lyme disease
ceftriaxone
128
Amsel's criteria for diagnosis if BV
3 of 4 thin, white homogenous discharge clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells vaginal pH > 4.5 positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)
129
which condition has rose spots
salmonella typhi
130
which condition has an increased risk of GI perforation
salmonella typhi
131
most common cause of osteomyelitis in those with SCD
salmonella