Infection Control & Emergency Care Flashcards
(177 cards)
1
Q
observed by someone other than the patient
A
objective symptoms
2
Q
evidence of a disease as reported by the patient
A
subjective symptom
3
Q
study of disease
A
pathology
4
Q
study of symptoms (cause of disease)
A
etiology
5
Q
prediction of course of the disease
A
prognosis
6
Q
describes immediate symptoms such as high fever and pain or distress
A
acute
7
Q
describes a condition present over a long time, often without endpoint (fatigue, anemia)
A
chronic
8
Q
temporary of permanent cessation of a sever condition (some cancers, sinusitis)
A
remission
9
Q
occurring continuously in the same population or locality
A
endemic
10
Q
refers to causes outside the body, such as illnesses arising from trauma, radiation, hypothermia
A
exogenous
11
Q
refers to causes arising from within the body, such as infections tumors, and congenital or metabolic abnormalities
A
endogenous
12
Q
refers to conditions inherited from parents, such as cystic fibrosis
A
congenital
13
Q
refers to conditions resulting from natural aging of the body, such as arthritis
A
degenerative
14
Q
refers to disease or infection occurring when body resistance is lowered, such as with fungal, bacterial, and viral infections
A
opportunistic
15
Q
refers to diseases passed on from patient to patient in a health-care setting, such as staphylococcal bacterial infections, (hospital-acquired infections
A
nosocomial
16
Q
disease producing microorganisms
A
pathogens
17
Q
bacteria that can live in the presence of oxygen but do not require it
A
facultative aerobes
18
Q
bacteria that cannot survive without oxygen, e.g. diphtheria
A
obligate aerobes
19
Q
bacteria that grow best without oxygen but can survive in its presence
A
facultative anaerobes
20
Q
bacteria that cannot live in the presence of oxygen
A
obligate anaerobes
21
Q
thick-walled reproductive cell
A
spore
22
Q
tiny parasitic organisms that require living matter to reproduce and grow
A
virus
23
Q
microbes smaller than bacteria but longer than viruses, transmitted by vectors such as mice, ticks, live
A
rickettsia
24
Q
type of fungi such as molds
A
filamentous fungi
25
type of fungi that is single-cellular such as yeast
unicellular fungi
26
must live upon another organism called the host, small "animal" parasites or organisms (e.g. malaria, dysentery)
protozoa
27
organisms living on decaying or dead organic matter
saphrophytes
28
small parasitic worms such as threadworms and roundworms
nematodes
29
microbes that live together on a host without harming it
commensal
30
disease producing microbes that are present in human blood
blood-borne pathogens
31
airborne infection in which pathogens discharged from the mouth or nose by coughing or sneezing are carried through the air and settle on objects
droplet infection
32
infection resulting from improper handling of materials, contamination of articles (fomes), poor sterilization
indirect infection
33
infection that is passed directly through intimated relationship, contact with blood, mucous membranes, saliva
contact infection
34
piercing of the skin or mucous membrane, "needle stick"
parenteral
35
exchange of disease by direct or indirect contact with an infected human or animal
carried infection
36
an infection that is transmitted by an organism such as a fly or mosquito
vector-borne infection
37
must be present for a disease to occur and prosper, scientific tool, elimination of one of the factors will stop the disease
chain of infection
38
inherited and permanent
natural immunity
39
obtained when a person is infected by a disease, produces antibodies, and then recovers from that disease
natural acquired immunity
40
obtained from inoculation or vaccination against a disease
artificial acquired immunity
41
results from receiving antibodies from another source, such as breast milk, or from injections of gamma globulin, antitoxins, or immune serums
passive acquired immunity
42
passes from mother to fetus, congenitally or through antibodies
passive natural immunity
43
having a weakened immune system, from drugs, irradiation, AIDS or malnutrition
immunocompromised
44
injection of microorganisms, serums, or toxins into the body
innoculation
45
injection with weakened or dead microbes
vaccination
46
substance that induces the body to form antibodies
antigen
47
protein substance produced by the body in response to an antigen
antibody
48
solution of killed or weakened infectious agents injected in to produce immunity
vaccine
49
vaccine produced from a culture of bacteria taken from the patient who will receive the vaccine
autogenous vaccine
50
diluted or reduced virulence of pathogenic microbes
attenuated
51
free from germs
asepsis
52
application of chemicals to kill, reduce, or eliminate germs
disinfection
53
the process of destroying all microorganisms to achieve asepsis
sterilization
54
application of methods to promote a favorable germ-free state
sanitization
55
assuming all patients are infectious and applying every method of combating disease and infection
universal precautions
56
instruments used to penetrate soft tissue or bone
critical sterilization
57
methods such as steam under pressure, dry heat, chemical vapor
critical sterilization
58
instruments that do not penetrate soft tissue or bone but contact non-intact skin or mucous membrane
semicritical sterilization
59
method such as high level disinfection
semicritical sterilization
60
instruments that come into contact with intact skin, such as x-ray heads, blood pressure cuffs
noncritical sterilization
61
methods such as EPA-registered "hospital disinfectant" - phenols, iodophors, chlorine, ammonium
noncritical sterilization
62
apparatus for sterilization by steam pressure. Temperature 121C, pressure 15psi and 30min, liquids need special treatment
autoclave
63
smaller ____ but higher temperature (132C) and lessen exposure time (3-5min)
flash autoclave
64
oven apparatus used for a hot air bake at high temperature (170C) for 2hrs, not applicable for paper objects and plastics
dry heat sterilization
65
devices holding superheated metal (234C) or small glass beads, used in endodontics, not recommended by CDC
molten metal heat/glass bead heat
66
use of chemicals and heat of 132C for 20min, noncorrosive method used on metals, proper ventilation and instruction is required
chemical vapor sterilization
67
sterilizing unit used at room temperature and requires prolonged exposure and devaporization time (10hrs), not a popular method in dental office due to cost and toxicity, useful on plastics
ethylene oxide
68
gas plasma sterilization using ionized hydrogen peroxide that releases vaporized gas molecules, killing microorganisms and endosperms in less than 1hr, compatible with most materials except plastics, liquids, and powders
vaporized hydrogen peroxide (vhp)
69
liquids containing chemicals disinfectants or sterilizers that kill microbes and spores, require 6-10 hours
chemical agents
70
placed in or on wrapped items during sterilization cycle to indicate effectiveness of sterilizing process
indicator stripes/commercial spore spells
71
contain instrument setups that travel from operatory use to the ultrasonic cleaning, rinsing, and wrapping for sterilizing and storage until the next use, marked for dating
cassette trays
72
application of chemicals to kill, reduce or eliminate germs through soaking, spraying, foams, sponges, or wipes
disinfection
73
chemical or agent that kills many microbes
disinfectant
74
usually a diluted disinfectant that prevents the growth or inhibits the development of microbes
antiseptic
75
inhibiting or retarding bacterial growth
bacteriostatic
76
substance that destroys some germs
germicide
77
disinfectant solution with biodegradable ingredient that is used to soak instruments until they are cleaned and sterilized
holding solution
78
mechanical apparatus with reservoir to contain a solution that cavitates or bubbles of debris
ultrasonic cleaner
79
gloves, eyeglasses, clinical attire, masks, face shields; help protect wearer and area from microbes
personal protective equipment
80
drapes, covers, plastic instrument sleeves, x-ray covers; prevent contamination
barrier techniques
81
for sanitation of operators and patients
standard operating procedures
82
treating each case as if the patient has a serious disease, handling and sterilizing with each new use to prevent contamination, maintaining a sterile field
standard precautions
83
disposing of all contaminated items in a marked biohazard bag, laundry and other materials should be considered contaminated by splatters or aerosol
proper disposal techniques
84
container for disposal of needles, glass and other items
sharps disposal unit
85
labeled container for items contaminated with body fluids or life threatening contaminates
biohazard container
86
receptacle for used, unsanitary items
hazardous waste container
87
covers chemical content, labeling, storage, and safety advice; colored
MSDS papers
88
flash point and relative fire hazards
red (fire)
89
instability, unreliable if heated, chemical reactions
yellow (reactivity)
90
corrosive, acid, radiation
white (personal protection)
91
hazardous material, inhalation of irritants, toxic fumes
blue (health)
92
disposable cloths ___ with disinfecting solution to wipe contaminated surfaces and then second run to leave behind wet surface to be wiped dry
saturate-wipe-saturate disinfection cleaning
93
issues and enforces restrictions and guidelines for infection control, sets standards and regulates conditions for employers to provide safety to their employees at work
OSHA
94
sets regulations and issues suggestions for infection control, enforced by OSHA
CDC
95
regulates and approves materials, equipment, medical devices, chemicals used in dental practices
EPA
96
regulates and approves marketing products and solutions used in infection control
FDA
97
a national organization of health professionals that studies and makes suggestions for regulations and guidelines for infection control
OSAP
98
written and oral communication regarding patient's present and past health status
patient health history
99
body indications of the patients present health status, blood pressure, pulse, respiration, temperature
vital signs
100
indication of the pulsating force of blood circulations
blood pressure
101
blood vessel at rest
diastolic
102
highest pressure of circulating blood
systolic
103
device employed to intensify body sounds, set of earpieces inserted into rubber tubing and extends to metal bell-shaped disc diaphragm
stethoscope
104
thin layer over disc end of stethoscope that helps enlarge or amplify pulse/body sounds
diaphragm
105
an instrument employed to measure arterial blood pressure, squeeze bulb on rubber tubing, arm cuff, aneroid dial
sphygmomanometer
106
interior depression or bend of elbow, placement of stethoscope diaphragm to determine blood-pressure sound
antecubital fossa
107
situated at the inside, upper arm area, selected site of blood-pressure cuff placement
brachial artery
108
irregular heartbeat or pulsations
arrhythmia
109
lower pulse rate at the wrist than at the heart site
deficit
110
normal pulse rate becoming weak and feeble with prostration or illness
febrile
111
pulse count, # of pulsations
frequency
112
occasional skipping of heartbeats
intermittent
113
variation of force or frequency in pulse rate
irregular
114
uniform pulse force, frequency, and duration
regular
115
fine, hard-to-locate, barely perceivable pulse
thready
116
suppresses respiratory sounds
absent
117
cessation of breathing, usually temporary
apnea
118
respirations gradually increasing in volume until climax, and then subsiding and ceasing for a short period of time before starting again; may be noted in dying
Cheyne-Stokes
119
out of breath, difficult or labbored breathing
dyspnea
120
rapid breathing that may be noted in children, those with disease, those in hysteria, or those in a drug-induced condition
frequent
121
noisy, bubbling sounds from lung mucous, heard on inhalation
rale
122
short inhalation with small rise in chest
shallow
123
rattling, bubbling, or snoring sounds that obscure normal breaths
stertorous
124
pertaining to ear
aural
125
armpit region
axillary
126
measurement of body heat registered by an ear thermometer
tympanic
127
important phone numbers necessary in an emergency, which are located in a prominent position near every available phone
emergency call list
128
container with oxygen gas tank, colored green; obtained in various sizes and may be centrally supplied to each work station
oxygen source
129
device used to control the flow of oxygen
oxygen regulator
130
gauge used to adjust the flow amount of oxygen
oxygen regulator
131
gauge used to adjust the flow amount of oxygen.
oxygen flowmeter
132
device placed over a patient’s nose and mouth to administer gas;
may be clear or tinted plastic or rubber material
oxygen mask
133
device attached to an oxygen mask to apply pressure to the oxygen flow and thereby inflate the lungs
demand-valve resuscitator
134
handheld squeeze device with a mask that is placed over the patient’s nose and mouth and used to force atmospheric air into the patient’s lungs; may also be attached to the oxygen supply to force oxygen to lungs
AMBU-bag
135
a tray assembled with materials and items necessary for
emergencies; often supplied in kit form with medicines, administration items, and chemicals to be used for various emergency events. Emergency trays must be updated frequently and close at hand. All dental personnel should know how to use each item
emergency tray
136
bluish discoloration of the skin caused by lack of oxygen
xyanosis
137
quick, jabbing pressure and force at belt line to force air up the windpipe
abdominal thrust
138
a result of oxygen imbalance
asphyxiation
139
applying quick pressure on the chest to force air upward in the windpipe to dislodge the obstruction; may be used on pregnant women as a substitute for abdominal thrusts
chest thrusts
140
an insert or cut into the thyroid and cricoid cartilage to introduce an emergency air supply.
cricothyrotomy
141
a condition resulting from air having been forced into the abdomen instead of the lungs
gastric distension
142
procedure in which abdominal thrusts are applied to a choking patient, which forces air from the diaphragm upward to expel a blockage in the airway
Heimlich maneuver
143
a lack of inspired oxygen
hypoxia
144
an artificial opening into the windpipe that is placed between the mouth and the lung; the opening is at the frontal base of neck into the windpipe for air intake
stoma
145
a cut and an insertion of a tube into the trachea for an emergency air supply
tracheostomy
146
a life-saving measure that combines artificial respiration with external cardiac massage
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
147
mechanical/electrical device used to revive and stimulate the heart of a patient in cardiac arrest
AED (automated external defibrillator)
148
tube inserted into the mouth and down the throat to provide wind to the windpipe
airway device
149
force applied to the chest, providing pressure on the heart to imitate a heartbeat or pulsation
compression
150
using a finger in the mouth of an unconscious person to locate and wipe out any airway obstruction
finger sweep
151
flat bone between ribs "breastbone"
sternum
152
lowest portion of the breastbone with no ribs attached
xiphoid
153
loss of consciousness due to fall in blood pressure
syncope
154
shock arising from a reaction to a body allergen
anaphylactic shock
155
shock arising from improper heart action
cardiogenic shock
156
shock arising from excessive blood loss
hemorrhage shock
157
shock arising from endocrine diseases and disorders such as diabetes
metabolic shock
158
shock arising from nervous impulses
neurogenic shock
159
shock arising from a sudden change in body positions
postural shock
160
shock arising from mental origins
psychogenic shock
161
shock arising from insufficient breathing
respiratory shock
162
shock arising from a microbial infection
septic shock
163
person's sensitivity to a specific allergen that can cause a variety of symptoms
allergic reaction
164
an allergic reaction of the body resulting in lowered blood pressure, swelling of the threat, shock, and even death
anaphylaxis reaction
165
a condition of irritation to the skin, scalp, or mucous membranes
itching
166
a red rash or blotching of the skin
erythema
167
a tissue swelling, enlargement of a body area
edema
168
small watery blisters
vesicle
169
commonly called hives or wheals
urticaria
170
a chronic disorder characterized by shortness of breathe, wheezing, and coughing caused by spams of bronchial tubes or swollen mucous membranes
asthma
171
resulting from allergens entering the body
extrinsic asthma
172
resulting from bronchial infection allergens
intrinsic asthma
173
severe asthma attack that may be fatal
status asthmaticus
174
a disorder of the metabolism of carbohydrates
diabetes melitus
175
insulin-dependent diabetes, early onset, more severe in course
type 1 diabetes
176
noninsulin-dependent diabetes, usually develops later in life and may be regulated by diet control and/or taking oral medication
type 2 diabetes
177
gestational diabetes mellitus may occur in pregnant women who have never had or been tested for diabetes before pregnancy
type 3 diabetes
