Infectious diseases Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

what are 2 phases of the metabolic response to injury/sepsis

A

ebb + flow phase
separated by resuscitation

both can lead to multiple organ failure

ebb = hypometabolic, low core body temp, more catecholamines, poor tissue perfusion
flow = hypermetabolic, high core body temp, less catecholamine, no tissue perfusion

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2
Q

how do the 2 phases of metabolic response to injury differ

A

ebb = hypometabolic, low core body temp, more catecholamines, poor tissue perfusion
flow = hypermetabolic, high core body temp, less catecholamine, no tissue perfusion

both can lead to multiple organ failure

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3
Q

how does simple starvation + injure differ metabolically

A

starvation = metabolic adaptation to slower rate (so lower resting energy expenditure)
so lean tissue conserved - as body fuels/proteins conserved

injury (catabolic weight loss) = no adaptation, causing high metabolic rate spending lots of resting energy
so lean tissue breakdown (body fuels/proteins wasted) - even with nutrient intake

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4
Q

what is main fuel in starvation + stress

A

starvation = fat (ketosis - physiological response to alternative energy supply)
stress = fat + AA (causing muscle breakdown, occurs due to higher counter regulatory hormones to allow proteolysis)

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5
Q

why does ketosis occur

A

physiological response of body to need for alternative energy supply

brain needs glucose so adapts to ketones as they can cross BBB

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6
Q

what is serum analysis of starvation

A

high serum urea + ketones

high urea = protein/muscle breakdown, AKI
high ketone = alternative energy supply using TG-FFA breakdown

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7
Q

how does low glucose affect insulin + glucagon

A

low glucose = low insulin + high glucagon
causes degradation of glycogen, fat stores, protein

so muscle adapts to ketone to prevent protein breakdown
adipose tissue is sensitive to glucagon that stimulates lipase so more TG->FFA

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8
Q

what is insulin action

A

increase glucose uptake into skeletal muscle, adipose (by increasing sensitivity to more insulin)
suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis
directly inhibit lipolysis by ketones

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9
Q

how does DKA + alcohol ketoacidosis differ

A

DKA = high glucose + high ketones + metabolic acidosis
as glucose can’t be used, so ketones used instead as alternative energy supply

alcoholic ketoacidosis = not significant hyperglycaemia + high ketones + metabolic acidosis
when malnourished, ethanol metabolised to acetic acid (ketone) causing high ketones levels without high glucose

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10
Q

what hormones are involved in ketoacidosis

A

high glucagon + low insulin

ketosis occurs in liver
after prolonged starvation/fasting, when OAA depleted from gluconeogenesis
so acetyl-CoA can’t enter Kreb cycle
causes excess acetyl-CoA which is converted in liver mitochondria to ketones (acetone, acetoacetate, B-hydroxybutyrate)

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11
Q

what is major ketone in fasting ketosis

A

B-hydroxybutyrate

ketone = water-soluble, fat derived
physiological response to low glucose supply

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12
Q

what is SIRS criteria

A

2 or more:

temp <36 or >38
HR >90bpm
RR >20, PaCO2 <4.3/<32
WCC <4,000 or >12,000

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13
Q

how does severe sepsis + septic shock differ

A

severe sepsis = SIRS + associated organ failure, hypoperfusion, hypotension (SBP <90)

septic shock = severe sepsis + arterial hypotension unaffected by fluid resus

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14
Q

what is SEPSIS 6

A

take: lactate, urine output, blood culture
give: O2, IV fluids, IV antibiotics

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15
Q

why is glucose high in critical illness

A

stress mediators oppose anabolic actions of insulin = so more tissue lipolysis, skeletal muscle proteolysis + suppressed hepatic gluconeogenesis

high catecholamines (cortisol) has catabolic effect increasing gluconeogenesis (so more glycogen breakdown) = inhibits GLUT4 translocation in muscle/adipose so peripheral insulin resistance

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16
Q

what is immune system role in protein/lipid metabolism in illness

A

pro-inflammatory cytokines TNF reduces ability to use lipids as energy source
so skeletal muscle is major substrate for glucose (75%)

decrease in muscle -> insulin resistance

high catecholamines -> browning of fat (so hyper metabolic response + cachexia)

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17
Q

how does starvation effect endocrine system

A

sick euthyroid = low/N TSH, low/N T4, low T3
chronic undernutrition lowers metabolic rate so less T4 -> T3

HPO (ovarian) axis suppressed
hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (low GnRH, low LH/FSH) = amenorrhoea, infertility

increased HPA axis
more stress so high cortisol (glucocorticoid)
breakdown protein - loss of collagen (osteopenia), loss of muscle (weakness)

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18
Q

what is sepsis

A

life-threatening organ dysfunction as dysregulated host response to infection

irrespective of organism/focus

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19
Q

how do SIRS + sepsis differ

A

sepsis = SIRS + infection

severe sepsis = sepsis + organ failure/hypoperfusion/hypotension (SBP <90)

septic shock = severe sepsis + arterial hypotension unaffected by fluid resuscitation + lactic acidosis

SIRS: 2 of
temp <36 or >38
WCC <4,000 or >12,000
HR >90
RR >20, PaCO2 <32

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20
Q

what is toxic shock syndrome

A

gram +ve bacteria release super antigens (antigens that cause immune response in 20% resting T cells + not restricted by antigen specificity)

staph aureus (burn) - TSS1
strep pyogenes (necrotising fasciitis)

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21
Q

how do gram +ve and -ve stain

A

-ve = pink stain as thin peptidoglycan + high lipopolysaccharide
e.coli, haemophilus influenza
lipopolysaccharides release ENDOtoxin (PAMP) recognised by TLR4 (PRR) that activate APC

+ve = purple stain as thick peptidoglycan layer + lipotechtic acid
less potent infection
staph aureus, strep pyogenes
forms super antigens (staph aureus, strep pyogenes) - protein EXOtoxin that stimulate immune response in 20% resting T cells, not restricted by antigen specificty

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22
Q

what are 3 shocks in sepsis

A

distributive = warm peripheries
hypovolaemic = cold peripheries + responds to fluid
cardiogenic = cold peripheries + not fluid responsive

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23
Q

how is sepsis severity determined

A

SOFA score:

RR >22
GCS <15
SBP <100

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24
Q

what causes malaria

A

protozoan parasite = plasmodium

p.falcifarum spread by bites of female anopheles mosquitoes (sub-Sahara)

p.falcifarum most common globally
p.vivax most common outside Africa

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25
how do complicated + uncomplicated malaria differ
complicated = parasitaemia >2% OR parasitaemia <2% + clinical signs uncomplicated = parasitaemia <2% + no schizont + no clinical signs
26
what EIR (entomological inoculation rate) is stable + unstable
stable = EIR >10/yr unstable = EIR <5/yr
27
how often do fever spikes occur in active malaria
every 48hr = fever spike corresponds with schizont rupture causing haemolytic anaemia
28
how does malaria obstruct circulation + what is the impact
obstructs circulation by sequestering + rosetting sequester = binding of 2 infected RBC rosett = binding of uninfected + infected RBC PfEMP proteins bind iRBC to vascular endothelium causes hypoxia + cytokines release which damages tissue so malaria can evade immune response
29
what is protective against malaria
HbS sickle cell trait - common in africa Duffy group + ve protective to p.vivax infection (common outside Africa)
30
how does malaria present
recent travel to endemic country pallor + jaundice = haemolytic anaemia hepatomegaly
31
how is malaria diagnosed
giema stain on blood film = RBC lyse appearing blue/purple peripheral blood film = identify parasitaemia (how many schizonts to determine parasite stage)
32
what are the main infective causes of headache
meningitis encephalitis - inflamed brain parenchyma
33
what is aseptic meningitis + meningococcal septicaemia
aseptic meningitis - meningitis not caused by pyogenic bacteria (doesn't make pus) meningococcal septicaemia - meningococcal bacteria infecting bloodstream
34
what is main cause of community-acquired bacterial meningitis in neonate child adult 60yr+ or immunocompromised
neonate - strep agalcteia group B (vertical transmission), e.coli present with bulging fontanelle child/adult (adolescent) - neisseria meningitidis group B vaccine against haemophilus influenza type B adult - strep pneumonia immunocompromised - listeria monocytogenes (or TB)
35
what is most common viral cause of meningitis
NPEV- non-polio human enterovirus enterovirus species B, cocsackbe virus A9, echovirus A71
36
how are viral meningitis pathogens spread
feacal-oral route year-round in tropical/subtropic areas seasonal in temperate climate
37
how does bacterial + viral meningitis present
bacterial - sudden onset, systemic upset (sepsis) viral - gradual onset, less severe
38
what red-flag features indicate meningitis
headache, fever, neck stiff, photophobia vomiting altered conscious, seizures if viral meningitis: nuchal rigidity = resisting passive neck flexion kerning sign = can't extend knee when hip is flexed brudinzski sign = when flexing neck, hip/knee spontaneously flex
39
how do neisseria + strep pneumonia differ
neisseria.m = meningococcus (causes petechial rash) gram -ve diplococci commensal organism in URT strep pneumonia = pneumococcus gram +ve diplococci meningitis occurs after pneumonia or ear infection
40
what are the different rashes in menigitis
petechial/purpuric rash - from meningococcal infection (neisseria) non-blanching rash - meningococcal septicaemia (when pathogens enter bloodstream)
41
why does a non-blanching rash occur in meningococcal septicaemia
DIC + subcutaneous haemorrhage
42
how to investigate meningitis
bacterial = CSF sample from LP viral = PCR
43
what causes aseptic meningitis
usually viral pathogen drug - amoxicillin, NSAID, trimethoprim+sulfamethoxazole malignancy, SLE, Kawasaki disease
44
what is seen on bacterial + viral meningitis CSF sample
viral - all normal other than high WCC bacterial - cloudy CSF high opening pressure, high protein high neutrophil (polymorphic leukocytes) LOW glucose
45
how do HSV1 + HSV2 differ
HSV1 = most common cause of sporadic encephalitis globally HSV2 = causes benign recurrent aseptic/lymphocitic meningitis
46
how is meningitis managed
if bacterial = inform PHE <3months = IV amoxicilline + IV ceftriaxone 3+ months = IV ceftriaxone if penicillin allergy, chloramphenicol instead steroids used as adjunct to prevent hearing loss, cerebral palsy
47
what signs are seen with viral meningitis
nuchal rigidity = resisting passive neck flexion kerning sign = can't extend knee when hip is flexed brudinzski sign = when flexing neck, hip/knee spontaneously flex
48
what is measles virus
non-segmented, negative sense RNA only encodes 1 type of antigen (unlike other RNA viruses) transmitted via resp route (droplets/aeresols suspended in air last for 2hr) incubation period 12.5 days morobillus genus, paramyxoviridae family
49
what gene of measles encodes the 2 non-structural proteins
protein V + C (non-structural proteins of measles) within phosphoprotein gene
50
how does measles differ from other RNA viruses
antigenically monotypic despite its genotypic diversity and that RNA viruses have high mutation rates
51
how long is the infectious period for measles
begins several days before and lasts several days after rash onset coincides with peak viraemia, cough/corozya
52
what rash occurs in measles
macropapular rash - initially face + behind ears, then spreads down trunk occurs 3-4 days before fever onset
53
what vitamin deficiency makes children susceptible to measles
Vitamin A
54
how is measles diagnosed
PCR assay for measles virus RNA measles-specific IgM in blood
55
what is HIV incidence
highest in East/South Africa most new HIV infections in sub-Saharan Africa
56
how is HIV characterised + how does it present
characterised - high viral load, high risk of transmission high inflammatory response causes systemic responses present - fever, sore throat, macropapular rash (similar to EBV) but symptoms improve few wks later (asymptomatic phase)
57
what is AIDS
when CD4 count <200cells (marked rebound in HIV viral load) causes onset of opportunistic infections, malignancy
58
what is HIV virology
genus - lentivirus family - retrovirus made of 2 identical ssRNA molecules so needs reverse transcriptase RT to form DNA + intergrase IN to combine this viral DNA with the host's enclosed in viral capsid
59
how do HIV 1 + 2 differ
both are zoonotic in origin HIV1M most common globally (other HIV1 types confined to west/central Africa) HIV2 rare outside west-Africa HIV1 (chimp, gorilla) - 4 groups M,N,O,P HIV2 (sooty mangabey) - 9 groups A-H, J, K
60
where is the highest HIV1 genetic diversity
central africa
61
what is structure of HIV1
viral capsid containing 2 identical ssRNA molecules + RT/IN enzymes glycoprotein GP-120 + GP-41 viral envelope proteins these attach to CD4-Tcells with coreceptors: CCR5 (if R5 virus) + CXCR4 (if X4 virus)
62
how is HIV transmitted
blood Bourne virus parenteral exposure (sharing needle), sexual exposure, vertical transmission
63
why can ART antiretroviral treatment not eliminate HIV infection
ART can suppress viral replication but not residual replication ART can't eliminate HIV integrated viral DNA from infected host cells so residual replication can still occur to maintain HIV reservoir
64
why can host immune response not contain HIV infection
CTL (CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocyte) escape mutants HIV viral capsid is glycosylated to evade immune system + cellular restriction factors like APOBEC3
65
what occurs in AIDS stage
CD4 <200cells, causes immunosuppression, opportunistic infections, AIDS-malignancy more pro-inflammatory cytokines (type 1 IFN, IL6, IL1) low CD4/CD8 ratio exhaustion/sensescence of T cells + macrophages pro-inflammatory state causes premature ageing, multi-organ disease
66
what is PJP
AIDS related infection, when CD4 <200cells presents: oral candidiasis 2wk hx of fever, SOB, non-productive cough 9 month of weight loss if HIV +ve, confirmed PJP (fungal infection) Cotrimoxazole, prednisolone, fluconazole
67
how does HIV alter lymphoid structure
changes intestinal lymphoid structure so disturbed gut barrier, causes more microbial translocation more plasma lipopolysaccharide circulation, so enhanced persistent immune activation