Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

what is MS

A

autoimmune disease causing CNS demyleination
CD4 mediated oligodendrocyte destruction + humoral response to myelin binding protein

mainly affects female 20-40yr
associated with HLA-DRB1 gene (+ absence of HLA-A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is radio + histological hallmark feature of MS

A

demyelination plaques in CNS - radiological
eventual axonal loss - pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the classifications of MS

A

primary progressive

relapsing-remitting -> secondary progressive
mostly relapsing remitting

progressive-relapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is diagnostic criteria for MS

A

McDonalds criteria to diagnose

2+ relapses disseminated in time (by a month) and space (2+ hyper intense T2-weighted lesions on MRI)

if 1 ep of demyelination + clinical signs = clinically isolated syndrome
not diagnosed as MS as not disseminated in time+space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are 2 phases of MS

A

early active phase neuroinflammation (disease activity):
macrophage myelin destruction, T cell infiltration, axonal damage, reactive astrocytes
new T2 lesions on MRI +/- clinical relapse (may be asymptomatic)

late chronic phase neurodegeneration:
myelin debris, axonal loss, activated microglia
more clinical markers (MRI, atrophy) but independent of relapse activity (occurs but symptoms don’t worsen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is pathophysiology of MS + effects on white/grey matter

A

only affects oligodendrocytes in CNS

causes multifocal neuroinflammation plaques within:
white matter - more apparent
grey matter (subcortical/cortical) - fewer T/B cells, causes cognitive impairment (late disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what immune cells cause MS

A

auto-CNS-reactive T cells (mostly CD8>CD4)
infiltrates CNS via endothelial adhesion molecules
APC reactive T cell so they release MMP that breakdown BBB
causes oligodendrocyte demyelination, axonopathy, gliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what occurs in first attack

A

MS usually presents with optic neuritis (first attack)

inflammatory processes occur long before
causes optic neuritis - loss of central vision, painful eye movements

MS is disseminated in time and space - so affects different nerves, causing different symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does early + late MS disease differ

A

early - re-myelination can resolve symptoms
late - re-myelination is incomplete, so symptoms don’t resolve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does MS present

A

optic neuritis (first attack) - loss of central vision (central scotoma), painful eye movements, impaired colour vision
CN6 lesion - double vision, conjugate lateral gaze disorder
lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus - internuclear opthalmoplegia

Horner syndrome, limb paralysis, incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are MS RF

A

20-40yr female, scandanavian
symptoms improve in pregnancy + postpartum

low VitD, UVB exposure, past EBV infection
obese, diabetes, smoker

genes: present HLA-DRB1, absent HLA-A
sarcoidosis, SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is MS investigated

A

CSF shows oligoclonal bands, indicating ongoing inflammation

gold standard - MRI (shows hyper intense T2-weighted lesions disseminated in time + space)
lesions = inflammation, demyelination, axon damage, oedema
location: periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, medullar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does MS look micro + macroscopically

A

micro - initial perivascular/myelin swelling with BBB breakdown
early active phase (neuroinflammation) - T cell infiltration, macrophage myelin destruction, reactive astrocytes
late chronic phase (neurodegenration) - myelin debris, axonal loss, activated microglia

macro - global atrophy, hydrocephalus ex vacuo, thinned corpus callosum, periventricular/juxtacortical demyelination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is acute MS attack managed

A

glucocorticoids = IV methylprednisolone 1g OD for 3/7

if not responding to steroids, give plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how is relapsing-remitting MS chronically managed

A

DMART + symptom relief

DMART - reduce disease activity to induce long term remission (3months to reach full effectiveness)

symptom relief - physiotherapy, baclofen (for muscle spasm), anticholinergic (for incontinence), sildenafil (for erectile dysfunction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what DMART are given for MS

A

injectable: B-interferon, glatiramer
oral: dimethyl fumarate, teriflunamide, fingolimod
biologic: natalizumab, alemtuzumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are neurological + cardiological causes of collapse

A

neuro - sieuzures, non-epileptic attack disorders
cardio - syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do seizure + syncope differ

A

seizure = post-ictal confusion, syncope = no confusion

seizure:
sudden onset, with limb jerk/tongue bite/incontinence
usually last <5min
pt is confused after (post-ictal confusion) and may have Todd paresis (residual focal neurological deficit)

syncope:
there is no confusion after fall
vasovagal (neurocardiogenic) - sweating, light-headed, narrowing of vision, lower themself to floor
arrhythmogenic syncope (stokes adams attack) - abrupt onset, no warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is status epileptics

A

seizure lasting 30min+, or multiple seizures over 30min with incomplete resolution

assume status epileptics at 5min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are 4 stages of status epileptics management

A

premonitory 0-10min
early status 0-30min
established status 0-60min
refractory 30-90min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is status epileptics immediately managed

A

premonitory 0-10min

rectal diazepam 10-20mg
repeat (or buccal midazolam 10mg) once 15min later if status continues

if seizures continue (in hospital), IV lorazepam and if needed repeat once 15min after

22
Q

what is monitored during status epileptics

A

O2 sats + glucose (as they are common and rapidly reversible causes of seizures)

if history of alcohol abuse, give parbinex before glucose - to prevent wernicke encephalopathy

23
Q

how are epileptic syndromes categorised

A

focal + generalised

focal - usually temporal lobe:
simple
complex - consciousness impaired, loose consciousness after an aura/seizure onset
secondary generalised - initially focal, then become bilateral seizure (usually tonic clonic - convulsive seizure)

generalised:
absence - common in children, lasting <10sec
tonic-clonic - pt looses consciousness with post-ictal confusion, limbs stiffen (tonic) then jerks (clonic)
myoclonic - sudden jerking of limb/trunk/face
atonic seizure - pt falls due to sudden loss of muscle tone, pt retains consciousness

24
Q

what are features of specific focal seizures

A

temporal lobe - most common:
hallucinations - auditory/olfactatory/gustatory, automatism (lip smacking)

frontal lobe:
motor features = dysphasia, Todd paresis (residual focal neurological deficit),
Jacksonian (only on 1 side, progressing from 1 muscle group to nearby ones quickly)

parietal lobe: sensory symptoms (tingling/numbness)

occipital lobe: visual symptoms (spots/lines in field)

25
how are focal seizures treated
1 - lamotrigine or levetiracetam then consider carbamazepine, orxcabenzapine lacosamide
26
how are general seizures treated
absence = sodium valproate (avoid carbamazepine as worsens seizure) tonic-clonic = sodium valproate or lamotrigine myoclonic = sodium valproate, unless women of child-bearing age then use levetiracetam/topiramate (avoid carbamazepine as worsens seizure) atonic = sodium valproate or lamotrigine
27
what triggers seizures + what are complications
triggers: poor sleep, alcohol/drug (+ withdrawal), stroke, SOL, intracranial haemorrhage complications: status epilepticus (5+min of continuous seizures - 30min of seizure or incomplete resolution of multiple seizures) = rectal/IV lorazepam -> repeat/buccal midazolam -> IV phenytoin depression, suicide, sudden death
28
what is an ideal AED (anti-epileptic drug) for women of child bearing age
lamotrigine as sodium valproate is highly teratogenic so risks neural tube defects
29
what are the guidelines for epilepsy+driving if: one off seizure multiple seizures seizure after changing medication
one-off seizure = reapply in 6 months multiple = reapply in 1yr after changing medication = reapply if seizure more than 6 months ago, OR back on previous med for 6+ months
30
what are RF for subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)
SAH due to ruptured berry aneurysm HTN, APCKD - autosomal dominant inheritance alcohol excess, smoking
31
how does SAH present
sudden onset occipital headache 'thunderclap' worst headache of their life physical exertion before onset on exam - reduced GCS, meningism (neck stiffness), focal neurological signs
32
how is SAH investigated
CT head - berry aneurysm in circle of willis (base of skull) if CT head doesn't confirm diagnosis, LP done (ideally 12hr after symptom onset) shows xanthochromia
33
how is SAH managed
medical - nimodipine (CCB to prevent vasospasm to prevent subsequent ischaemic damage), don't treat HTN surgical - EVAR for coiling/stenting SAH bleed, surgical clipping of vessel
34
what is main neuromodulator + neuropeptide in pain
modulator - 5HT peptide - CGRP calcitonin gene related peptide
35
what brainstem nuclei are involved in pain processing
trigeminocervical complex superior salivary nucleus - ANS locus coreulus - NA dorsal raphe nucleus - 5HT hypothalamus - orexin
36
what are 3 main primary headaches
migraine tension type trigeminal autonomic cephalgia
37
how is migraine diagnosed
recurrent headaches 5+ lasting 4-72hr at least 2 of: unilateral pulsating moderate severity worse with activity additional: photo + phono-phobia nausea/vomit aura (may or may not occur) - zigzag lines, visual fortification, dysphasia, sensory disturbance (+ve and -ve symptoms)
38
what are the different types of migraine
migraine migraine w aura silent migraine (migraine w aura but no headache) hemiplegic migraine - stroke mimic
39
what is pathophysiology of migraine
interaction between hypothalamus, thalamus, brainstem nuclei (involves 5HT dorsal raphe, NA from LC) causes large amounts of extracellular K + glutamate secretion triggers CSD release (cortical spreading depression - suppresses brain activity)
40
what is given for migraine prophylaxis
topiramate, amitriptyline, propranolol stops CSD release by interrupting interaction between hypo/thalamus, brainstem nuclei
41
what are the 5HT + DA pathways and how do they contribute
5HT = pain, DA = bothersome symptoms low 5HT causes migraine high 5HT1AA (5HT metabolite) seen in CSF/urine suggesting high 5HT turnover DA hypersensitivity causes additional symptoms of nausea/vomit, yawning
42
what is role of CRGP in different nerve fibres + vessels
C fibre - release CRGP A delta - contain CRGP receptors CRGP is released from C fibre and acts on A-delta modulating pain transmission blood vessel - CRGP receptors CRGP is released from C fibre, causing vasodilation causes protein release, leading to neurogenic inflammation this activates A-delta which transmits signal to brainstem
43
how to manage an acute migraine attack
PO sumatriptan - decrease CRGP release (contraindicated in asthma) + NSAID - decrease prostaglandin + metclopramide - decrease DA (anti-emetic) conservative - avoid trigger hydration, good sleep hygiene reduce alcohol/coffee
44
what is MOA of triptan
5HT agonist, decrease CRGP release vasconstricts arteries smooth muscle reduces CNS activity, inhibits peripheral pain receptors
45
why does photophobia occur during migraine
thalamocortical pathway is modulated by inputs from retina
46
what are RF for migraine
20-55yr female on COCP alcohol, caffeine, chocolate, cheese dehydration trigger - stress, bright lights around menstruation or menopause as low oestrogen (as E2 increases 5HT)
47
what hormone is linked to E2
5HT as E2 increases, more 5HT released
48
how do migraine differ to headaches
migraine - lasts 4-74hr unilateral pulsating moderate severity worse with activity additional: photo+phono phobia, nausea/vomit treat = prophylaxis - topiramate, propranolol, amitryptilline acute - sumatriptan + paracetamol, NSAID tension headache - female: gradual onset bilateral - tight band around forehead, mild ache treat = analgesia according to WHO step ladder cluster headache - 20-40yr male smoker: sudden onset, pain <4hr unilateral, around eye (red, swollen, ptosis/meiosis, sweating) severe group of attacks then pain-free treat = prophylaxis - verapamil acute - O2, sumatriptan trigeminal neuralgia (compressed CN5): unilateral short, stabbing pain in V2 + V3 distribution triggered by cold wind, touching, brushing teeth treat = medical - carbamazepine (phenytoin, lamotrigine, gabapentin) surgical - microvascular decompression
49
what are red-flag symptoms in headache
meningitis = fever, neck stiffness, photophobia stroke = new neurological symptoms SAH = sudden onset occipital, thunderclap glaucoma/GCA = temporary monocular blindness (treat with high dose steroids) raised ICP (hydrocephalus, SOL - tumour/haemorrhage) = better after vomiting worse when bending down, in morning medication over-use = check DH
50
what are RF for idiopathic intracranial HTN
female, obese, PCOS excess 11B-HSD1 causes: cytokines (chronic inflammation), adipokines, excess androgen treat with weight loss
51
what investigations done for headache
CT scan to diagnose SOL for raised ICP MRI to exclude secondary causes fundoscopy for papilloedema - IIH, raised ICP