Infectious Diseases Flashcards

Question

In which situations might antibody detection methods be more appropriate?

Answer 1

* Chronic or persistent infections * Situations with measurable immune response * Acute infections with rapid antibody rise detectable through paired serologic testing

Answer 2

It provides rapid presumptive diagnoses of pathogens through examination of specimens.

Answer 3

5% of Gram stain results were discrepant with culture.

Answer 4

18–24 hours (some up to 48 hours).

Answer 5

Oxygen-free environment

Answer 6

48 hours to 5–7 days

Answer 7

Organisms that grow with or without oxygen

Answer 8

Require enriched media, specific O₂/CO₂ levels, and higher temperatures (42°C)

Answer 9

Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption/Ionization Time-of-Flight Mass Spectrometry, a method for rapid identification of bacteria and yeast

Answer 10

In minutes

Answer 11

Reduces time to diagnosis and improves clinical outcomes

Answer 12

* Broth microdilution (standard method) * Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion * Antibiotic gradient strips (e.g., Etest)

Answer 13

Useful for detecting specific pathogens

Answer 14

For every 1 mL increase in blood volume, there is a 1% increase in culture positivity

Answer 15

* Faster detection * Continuous monitoring

Answer 16

Allows direct sequencing of DNA from clinical specimens

Answer 17

* Organism identification * Strain typing * Prediction of antimicrobial resistance genes * Detection of virulence factors

Answer 18

Complex test validation

Answer 19

* Selecting the right test * For the right patient * To generate clinically actionable results ## Footnote A multidisciplinary approach enhances the effectiveness of diagnostic stewardship.

Answer 20

The ability to identify novel, rare, or co-infecting pathogens and predict resistance profiles directly from complex specimens ## Footnote NGS represents a significant advancement in the capabilities of diagnostic testing.

Answer 21

* Contain live, attenuated organisms * Induce robust, long-lasting immunity * Generate humoral and cell-mediated immune responses * Can provide lifelong immunity ## Footnote MLVs typically require fewer doses than inactivated vaccines.

Answer 22

* Contain antigenic but non-replicating organisms * Less immunogenic than MLVs * Usually require multiple doses and adjuvants * Induce shorter duration of immunity ## Footnote The rabies vaccine is an exception, being highly immunogenic despite being inactivated.

Answer 23

At 6–8 weeks of age ## Footnote Vaccinations should be administered every 2–4 weeks until at least 16 weeks.

Answer 24

To catch any non-responders to the primary vaccination series ## Footnote WSAVA recommends this booster ideally closer to 26 weeks.

Answer 25

* Bordetella bronchiseptica * Canine parainfluenza virus (CPIV) * Leptospira species ## Footnote Leptospira is increasingly considered core in endemic areas.

Answer 26

To reduce disease severity, not necessarily to prevent infection ## Footnote Common targets include CPIV and Bordetella bronchiseptica.

Answer 27

* Feline panleukopenia virus (FPV) * Feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1) * Feline calicivirus (FCV) * Rabies (in endemic areas) ## Footnote These vaccines are often provided in combination formulations.

Answer 28

At 6–8 weeks of age ## Footnote Kitten vaccinations are given every 2–4 weeks until at least 16 weeks.

Answer 29

* Canine Enteric Coronavirus * Giardia duodenalis * Dermatophytosis (Ringworm) ## Footnote These vaccines have limited efficacy or are ineffective at preventing infections.

Answer 30

Protection is incomplete, and no vaccine has proven protection against Lyme nephritis ## Footnote Vaccines available include monovalent, bivalent, and trivalent formulations.

Answer 31

* Inactivated whole-virus (adjuvanted) * Subunit vaccines * Recombinant canarypox vector (non-adjuvanted) ## Footnote FeLV stands for Feline Leukemia Virus.

Answer 32

Start ≥8 weeks, 2 doses 3–4 weeks apart. ## Footnote FeLV testing is recommended before vaccinating.

Answer 33

True. ## Footnote This can lead to false positives in diagnostic tests.

Answer 34

* Transient fever * Lethargy * Anorexia * Lymphadenopathy * Type I hypersensitivity reactions * Immune-mediated diseases * Feline injection site sarcoma (FISS) ## Footnote Most reactions are mild and transient.

Answer 35

0.3–0.5% incidence (~30–50 per 10,000 vaccinations). ## Footnote Most reactions are mild and transient.

Answer 36

insufficient ## Footnote The vaccine is not recommended for general use.

Answer 37

Testing is done annually to monitor immunosenescence.

Answer 38

Approximately 1 in 31 hospitalized patients ## Footnote This statistic highlights the commonality of HAIs in hospital settings.

Answer 39

Up to one-third ## Footnote This underscores the severe impact of HAIs on patient outcomes.

Answer 40

Veterinary patients are generally less immunocompromised, have shorter hospital stays, and are treated in smaller facilities ## Footnote Despite these differences, HAIs remain a concern in veterinary practice.

Answer 41

* Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus spp. (MRSP, MRSA) * Salmonella ## Footnote These pathogens represent significant risks in veterinary hospitals.

Answer 42

* Surgical site infections * Infections associated with invasive devices * Respiratory diseases * Diarrhea * Opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients ## Footnote These syndromes illustrate the variety of infection risks in veterinary settings.

Answer 43

82% ## Footnote This statistic indicates the prevalence of outbreaks in veterinary settings.

Answer 44

20–70% ## Footnote This statistic suggests a similar potential for preventability in veterinary medicine.

Answer 45

Borreliosis ## Footnote It is the most common tick-borne disease in humans in North America.

Answer 46

Borrelia burgdorferi ## Footnote Many dogs and cats are exposed but only a small subset develops clinical illness.

Answer 47

52 species ## Footnote They are divided into the Lyme disease group and the Tick-borne relapsing fever group.

Answer 48

* Lyme disease group (21 species)* * Tick-borne relapsing fever (29 species)

Answer 49

Ixodes spp. ticks ## Footnote These ticks have co-evolved with Borrelia for millennia.

Answer 50

* Eggs hatch in summer* * Larvae feed on birds and rodents* * Larvae molt into nymphs* * Nymphs feed in spring* * Nymphs molt into adults* * Adults feed in autumn

Answer 51

≥53 hours after tick attachment ## Footnote This is the time it takes for OspA to be downregulated.

Answer 52

* Maine* * Vermont* * Pennsylvania* * New Hampshire* * Rhode Island* * Delaware* * Massachusetts* * New Jersey* * Connecticut* * New York* * Wisconsin* * Minnesota* * Maryland* * Virginia* * West Virginia

Answer 53

76% ## Footnote This is a significant prevalence rate before widespread tick prevention.

Answer 54

* Borrelia mayonii* * B. bissettiae* * Anaplasma phagocytophilum* * Ehrlichia muris* * Babesia microti* * Bartonella spp. * Powassan virus

Answer 55

Spiral-shaped, motile, Gram-negative spirochetes

Answer 56

* Antigenic variation* * Persistence as peptidoglycan remnants* * Dormant cystic forms

Answer 57

* PCR* * Culture using Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly (BSK) medium

Answer 58

Self-limiting febrile illness after 2–5 months ## Footnote Symptoms include fever, hyperesthesia, and lameness.

Answer 59

<3% ## Footnote Despite high seroprevalence, clinical disease is rare.

Answer 60

Antibodies to: * B. burgdorferi C6 peptide * Ehrlichia canis * Anaplasma phagocytophilum * Heartworm antigen

Answer 61

Derived from the conserved VlsE antigen expressed only during natural infection

Answer 62

Clinical illness or need for treatment ## Footnote Titer magnitude is not a reliable indicator of disease severity in these cases.

Answer 63

Levels typically decrease, but qualitative SNAP test often remains positive for years ## Footnote This indicates that past infections may still show positive test results long after treatment.

Answer 64

Present in all Lyme vaccines and occasionally in natural infection

Answer 65

Rises 2–3 weeks post-infection, declines in 3–5 months without re-exposure

Answer 66

Rises 6–8 weeks post-infection and has longer persistence

Answer 67

88% of naturally infected dogs vs 47% of vaccinated dogs

Answer 68

VETSCAN: 41%, SNAP 4Dx Plus: 96%

Answer 69

Natural exposure to the pathogen

Answer 70

No treatment; monitor urine for PLN several times annually

Answer 71

* Anaplasma spp. * Babesia spp. * Bartonella spp. * Ehrlichia spp. * Rickettsia rickettsii * Leptospira * Other Borrelia spp. (e.g., B. miyamotoi)

Answer 72

1–2 days

Answer 73

Recombinant OspA subunit (non-adjuvanted)

Answer 74

Duration of immunity is a concern; up to 50% of vaccinated dogs may be unprotected at 15 months

Answer 75

Aerobic, acid-fast, non-spore-forming, non-motile bacilli ## Footnote Typically intracellular and can be primary or opportunistic pathogens

Answer 76

Nonspecific clinical signs, low index of clinical suspicion, diagnostic challenges ## Footnote These factors lead to an underestimated prevalence

Answer 77

M. fortuitum, M. abscessus, M. smegmatis, M. chelonae ## Footnote Typically environmental organisms and opportunistic pathogens

Answer 78

Mycobacterium bovis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium microti ## Footnote M. bovis is zoonotic and primarily associated with cattle

Answer 79

Cats ## Footnote Transmission routes include ingestion of infected prey and close contact with infected animals

Answer 80

Localized abscesses, draining tracts ## Footnote Often associated with penetrating injuries

Answer 81

Aerobic, partially acid-fast, branching filamentous gram-positive bacteria ## Footnote Typically opportunistic pathogens in immunocompromised animals

Answer 82

Cutaneous-subcutaneous infections, pulmonary nocardiosis, disseminated/systemic infections ## Footnote Rarely occurs in immunocompetent animals

Answer 83

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) ## Footnote Primarily affects young or immunosuppressed individuals

Answer 84

CARD9 gene mutation ## Footnote Essential for innate immune signaling against mycobacteria

Answer 85

Mycolactone ## Footnote Responsible for Buruli ulcers

Answer 86

Mycobacterium lepraemurium ## Footnote Common in young, male cats with rodent exposure

Answer 87

Culture ## Footnote Can take 4–12 weeks for slow-growing species

Answer 88

Grave prognosis ## Footnote Often euthanized shortly after diagnosis

Answer 89

Prolonged dual or triple antibiotic therapy ## Footnote Includes rifampin, fluoroquinolone, and macrolide

Answer 90

False ## Footnote The risk is higher in Europe and Great Britain

Answer 91

Grave prognosis ## Footnote Often leads to euthanasia shortly after diagnosis

Answer 92

Often undergoes spontaneous remission ## Footnote Treatment is only indicated for refractory or disfiguring lesions

Answer 93

* Surgical resection * Dual antimicrobial therapy ## Footnote Excellent prognosis in most cases

Answer 94

Paniculitis ## Footnote Prognosis varies by species and geography

Answer 95

Actinomyces spp.: facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic, gram-positive, branching filamentous bacteria ## Footnote Non-spore forming, non-acid-fast, non-motile

Answer 96

* Foreign body migration * Periodontal disease * Bite wounds * Plant material injuries * Aspiration pneumonia

Answer 97

Typically affects immunocompetent animals, but can occur with concomitant immunosuppressive disease or neoplasia ## Footnote Young male large-breed outdoor dogs are overrepresented

Answer 98

* Periodontal disease * Subcutaneous or soft tissue abscesses * Pleuritis and pneumonia ## Footnote Other manifestations include CNS infections and ocular infections

Answer 99

16S rRNA gene sequencing ## Footnote Offers species-level identification and improved accuracy

Answer 100

Combination of surgical and antimicrobial therapy ## Footnote Superior to antibiotics alone

Answer 101

* Rifampin: 10–15 mg/kg PO q24h * Enrofloxacin: 10 mg/kg IV/IM/PO q24h * Clarithromycin: 5–10 mg/kg PO q12h * Azithromycin: 5–15 mg/kg PO q24h * Pyrazinamide: 15–40 mg/kg PO q24h * Isoniazid: 10–15 mg/kg PO q24h

Answer 102

Hepatotoxicity, GI upset ## Footnote Max dose is 60 mg/day

Answer 103

Pre- and perioperative antibiotics, radical surgical excision, targeted antimicrobial therapy

Answer 104

Trimethoprim-Sulfonamide (TMS): 50 mg/kg PO q12h ## Footnote Adverse effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatitis, KCS

Answer 105

* Superficial abscesses * Indurated nodular masses * Pyothorax * Granulomatous pneumonia

Answer 106

Actinomyces are mucosal commensals, while Nocardia are saprophytic soil organisms ## Footnote Nocardia are found ubiquitously in the environment

Answer 107

Grave prognosis ## Footnote Many animals are euthanized due to deterioration or treatment failure

Answer 108

Intracellular, host-adapted gram-negative aerobic coccobacilli

Answer 109

* Brucella abortus: Cattle * Brucella melitensis: Small ruminants * Brucella suis: Swine * Brucella canis: Dogs

Answer 110

Rough strains lack the mucoid O-polysaccharide side chain on their LPS, while smooth strains have it

Answer 111

* Brucella abortus * Brucella melitensis * Brucella suis

Answer 112

* Middle East * Africa * Asia * Latin America

Answer 113

* Mucosal (oral, nasal, venereal) * Transplacental * Perinatal (milk, discharge contact)

Answer 114

* Abortion * Infertility * Orchitis * Epididymitis

Answer 115

* Direct Detection (PCR, Culture) * Serologic Testing (RSAT, 2-ME RSAT, TAT, LFIA, AGID, ELISA)

Answer 116

* Triple therapy: Doxycycline + Gentamicin + Rifampin for 3 months * Monotherapy: Enrofloxacin

Answer 117

* Isolate * Euthanize if outbreak risk

Answer 118

* Pre-entry screening * Routine testing * Quarantine newly introduced dogs * Public education

Answer 119

High (>20%)

Answer 120

May last 6–64 months

Answer 121

High recrudescence rate and zoonotic risk

Answer 122

Positive serology more frequent in neutered animals

Answer 123

Re-test 8–12 weeks later if initial test is negative

Answer 124

* Lymphadenomegaly * Discospondylitis * Osteomyelitis * Polyarthritis

Answer 125

Tetanus: Clostridium tetani Botulism: Clostridium botulinum ## Footnote Both are gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacilli.

Answer 126

Spastic paralysis ## Footnote Tetanus toxin inhibits neurotransmitter release, leading to muscle contraction.

Answer 127

Flaccid paralysis ## Footnote Botulinum toxin prevents neurotransmitter release, leading to muscle relaxation.

Answer 128

Inhibits release of glycine and GABA by cleaving synaptobrevin ## Footnote This leads to disinhibition of α-motor neurons.

Answer 129

Stiff gait, sawhorse stance, elevated tail, hypertonia, lockjaw, dysphagia, facial spasms ## Footnote Additional signs include third eyelid protrusion and respiratory paralysis.

Answer 130

5–12 days (range up to 3 weeks) ## Footnote This varies based on the severity of the infection.

Answer 131

Tetanospasmin targets inhibitory interneurons, disrupting glycine and GABA release ## Footnote This leads to loss of control over α-motor neurons.

Answer 132

Supportive care ## Footnote This includes ventilation, fluids, and nutrition.

Answer 133

Foodborne, wound botulism, toxicoinfectious, iatrogenic ## Footnote Foodborne is the most common route due to pre-formed toxin ingestion.

Answer 134

Ascending symmetric flaccid paralysis ## Footnote This pattern typically starts in the pelvic limbs and progresses to respiratory failure.

Answer 135

Cleaves SNARE proteins, preventing ACh release at neuromuscular junctions ## Footnote This leads to flaccid paralysis.

Answer 136

Up to 50% mortality ## Footnote Prognosis worsens with increasing classification of severity.

Answer 137

Neutralizes unbound tetanospasmin ## Footnote Ineffective once bound to neurons.

Answer 138

Metronidazole ## Footnote It is superior to penicillin for achieving therapeutic anaerobic concentrations.

Answer 139

12 hours to 6 days ## Footnote Timing can vary based on the route of exposure.

Answer 140

Mechanical ventilation, sedation, muscle relaxants ## Footnote Intensive nursing care is critical for survival.

Answer 141

Causes tachycardia, hypertension, and autonomic instability ## Footnote This is due to loss of central inhibitory control.

Answer 142

α-motor ## Footnote This results in sustained muscle contraction.

Answer 143

Residual motor deficits ## Footnote Abnormal REM sleep behaviors may also occur.

Answer 144

Inhibits neuromuscular transmission and reduces autonomic dysregulation ## Footnote It serves as an adjuvant therapy.

Answer 145

Spores germinate and produce the inactive progenitor toxin complex ## Footnote This process is crucial for the activation of the toxin.

Answer 146

Within the alkaline environment of the small intestine ## Footnote The conditions of the small intestine facilitate the activation of the toxin.

Answer 147

Endocytosis into intestinal epithelium, then entering lymphatic and vascular systems ## Footnote This is how the toxin spreads throughout the body.

Answer 148

Presynaptic peripheral cholinergic nerve terminals with high affinity ## Footnote This binding is essential for the toxin's mechanism of action.

Answer 149

Inhibition of acetylcholine (ACh) release at the neuromuscular junction ## Footnote This leads to muscle paralysis.

Answer 150

Regeneration of axon terminals and reformation of neuromuscular junctions ## Footnote This process contributes to the prolonged disease course.

Answer 151

Within 12 hours ## Footnote Early onset of symptoms is a key feature of botulism.

Answer 152

Facial nerve paralysis, decreased jaw tone, decreased gag reflex, reduced vocalization, megaesophagus ## Footnote These signs indicate cranial nerve dysfunction.

Answer 153

Altered heart rate, mydriasis with depressed PLR, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, urinary retention, constipation ## Footnote Autonomic dysfunction can complicate the clinical picture.

Answer 154

Diaphragmatic breathing with increased abdominal effort ## Footnote The diaphragm's resistance suggests advanced disease.

Answer 155

Respiratory failure, aspiration pneumonia, prolonged recumbency complications ## Footnote These complications highlight the severity of the disease.

Answer 156

Detection of botulinum toxin in serum, feces, or gastric contents ## Footnote This method is most sensitive early in the disease.

Answer 157

Gold standard for toxin detection ## Footnote If available, this assay is the most reliable test.

Answer 158

Reduced compound muscle action potential (CMAP) amplitude ## Footnote Normal conduction velocity and no temporal dispersion are also noted.

Answer 159

Manual expression, catheterization, or medications may be needed ## Footnote Urinary retention is a common issue in affected animals.

Answer 160

If administered early, before toxin binds nerve terminals ## Footnote It does not reverse established neuromuscular blockade.

Answer 161

Use with caution due to risk of anaphylaxis ## Footnote A test dose and emergency medications should be prepared.

Answer 162

Favorable, with full recovery expected in most cases within 2–3 weeks ## Footnote Some may experience residual weakness for up to a year.

Answer 163

Delayed diagnosis, severe cranial nerve or respiratory involvement, development of aspiration pneumonia ## Footnote These factors can complicate recovery.

Answer 164

Gram-negative, hemotropic, facultative intracellular bacteria transmitted by blood-sucking arthropods

Answer 165

Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea)

Answer 166

Endothelial cells

Answer 167

Up to 454 days

Answer 168

* Heart murmur: 89% * Lameness: 43% * Respiratory signs: 28%

Answer 169

Solid media culture

Answer 170

Osteomyelitis

Answer 171

* Intravascular infection * Immune-mediated response * Lymphatic infection * Pyogranulomatous lesions * Abnormal vascular proliferation

Answer 172

Echocardiography

Answer 173

Combination therapy targeting both intracellular and extracellular compartments

Answer 174

Only treat symptomatic dogs or those with confirmed serious disease

Answer 175

Doxycycline 5 mg/kg PO q12h or 10 mg/kg PO q24h + Enrofloxacin 5–10 mg/kg PO q12h for 6 weeks ## Footnote This protocol is aimed at treating general Bartonellosis.

Answer 176

Azithromycin 10 mg/kg PO q24h x7 days, then q48h + Rifampin 5 mg/kg PO q12h for 4–6 weeks ## Footnote This is for cases involving CNS involvement.

Answer 177

Treat with short-term glucocorticoids ## Footnote Prednisone in dogs: 0.5–1 mg/kg PO once daily; Prednisolone in cats: 1–2 mg/kg PO once daily.

Answer 178

4–6 weeks ## Footnote Ideally, continue therapy for 2 weeks beyond resolution of clinical signs.

Answer 179

Due to the risk of antimicrobial resistance and lack of proven benefit ## Footnote There is no current justification for screening or treating healthy cats for Bartonella.

Answer 180

Doxycycline + Pradofloxacin ## Footnote Doxycycline dosage: 5 mg/kg PO q12h or 10 mg/kg PO q24h; Pradofloxacin: 10 mg/kg PO q24h.

Answer 181

Marbofloxacin + Azithromycin ## Footnote Marbofloxacin: 5.5 mg/kg PO q24h; Azithromycin: 10 mg/kg PO q24h x 7 days, then q48h.

Answer 182

Vector control ## Footnote Year-round ectoparasite prevention is essential for both dogs and cats.

Answer 183

Use of personal protective equipment (PPE) when handling flea-infested animals or specimens ## Footnote Avoiding needle stick injuries, bites, and scratches.

Answer 184

False ## Footnote However, Bartonella DNA has been found in dog saliva.

Answer 185

Thin, elongated, highly motile, helical organisms with distinctive hooked ends.

Answer 186

Exhibit Gram-negative staining but possess features of both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Answer 187

Differences in the carbohydrate component of lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

Answer 188

Small rodents, dogs, cats, and humans.

Answer 189

* Anorexia * Vomiting * Lethargy * Abdominal pain * Diarrhea * Jaundice * Dehydration * Fever or hypothermia.

Answer 190

A major cause of mortality characterized by intra-alveolar hemorrhage with minimal inflammatory infiltration.

Answer 191

Acute interstitial nephritis with tubular cell necrosis, apoptosis, and regeneration.

Answer 192

Hyperbilirubinemia is not correlated with hepatocellular necrosis.

Answer 193

Serology – Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT).

Answer 194

* False negatives may occur * Single titers are difficult to interpret.

Answer 195

Detects leptospiral DNA in blood or urine, useful in the acute phase or concern for vaccination causing elevated titers

Answer 196

* False negatives may occur in early infection * False positives may occur due to previous vaccination.

Answer 197

* Renal cortical hyperechogenicity * Renomegaly * Pyelectasia.

Answer 198

Chronic granulomatous hepatitis has been suggested, although less defined.

Answer 199

* Silver staining * Immunohistochemistry * Immunofluorescence.

Answer 200

Remains incompletely understood but may progress to renal fibrosis.

Answer 201

* False negatives may occur in early infection due to lack of seroconversion * False positives may occur due to previous vaccination

Answer 202

During the first week of infection

Answer 203

* LipL32 gene (specific for pathogenic leptospires) * 23S rDNA

Answer 204

* Multiple Locus Sequence Typing (MLST) * Multiple Locus Variable Number Tandem Repeat Analysis (MLVA)

Answer 205

Start with an IV penicillin-class drug: Penicillin G, ampicillin, or amoxicillin

Answer 206

Supportive management including thoracic radiographs and avoiding stress, overhydration, and systemic hypertension

Answer 207

Approximately 50%

Answer 208

Prophylactic treatment with doxycycline (5–10 mg/kg PO q12–24h for 14 days)

Answer 209

Interstitial nephritis

Answer 210

* Bivalent vaccines (Canicola, Icterohaemorrhagiae) * Quadrivalent vaccines (Canicola, Icterohaemorrhagiae, Grippotyphosa, Pomona)

Answer 211

Significantly reduced odds of developing leptospirosis

Answer 212

Anaplasmataceae

Answer 213

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis (CME)

Answer 214

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)

Answer 215

* Fever * Lethargy * Anorexia * Weight loss * Lymphadenopathy * Splenomegaly

Answer 216

Thrombocytopenia

Answer 217

* Bleeding diathesis * Nonregenerative anemia * Pancytopenia * Neurologic signs * Protein-losing nephropathy

Answer 218

Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) and ELISA assays

Answer 219

* Ixodes scapularis * Ixodes pacificus * Ixodes ricinus * Ixodes persulcatus

Answer 220

Canine cyclic thrombocytopenia

Answer 221

* Fever * Lethargy * Inappetence * Stiffness * Lameness

Answer 222

Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star tick)

Answer 223

Morulae in neutrophils

Answer 224

Blood transfusion

Answer 225

* Labrador Retrievers * Golden Retrievers

Answer 226

Rhipicephalus sanguineus ## Footnote Vector transmission not confirmed

Answer 227

Usually subclinical or mild May cause: * Thrombocytopenia * Rarely fever, splenomegaly, bleeding

Answer 228

* Cytology: Morulae in platelets or megakaryocytes * Serology: Cross-reacts with A. phagocytophilum * PCR: Required for definitive diagnosis

Answer 229

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

Answer 230

Nanophyetus salmincola

Answer 231

Fluke eggs shed in dog feces → become miracidia → infect aquatic snail → develop into cercariae → penetrate salmonid fish → encyst as metacercariae in fish tissue

Answer 232

Male Labrador Retrievers Other susceptible species include: * Foxes * Coyotes * Bears

Answer 233

* High fever (up to 42°C / 107.6°F) * Anorexia

Answer 234

* Thrombocytopenia * Neutrophilia ± left shift * Lymphopenia * Monocytosis * Hyponatremia * Hypokalemia * ↑ ALT, ALP * Hypoalbuminemia

Answer 235

* Fecal flotation & sedimentation * Lymph node cytology * PCR testing

Answer 236

Ingestion of infected aquatic insects containing trematode metacercariae

Answer 237

* Dermacentor variabilis (American dog tick) * Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky Mountain wood tick) * Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Answer 238

Vascular endothelial cells

Answer 239

* Fever * Lethargy * Petechiae * Neurologic signs * Thrombocytopenia

Answer 240

2–14 days (mean: 7 days)

Answer 241

Tick control is the primary preventive strategy No vaccine available

Answer 242

Dogs are sentinels for human risk of RMSF

Answer 243

Ehrlichia canis-like organisms

Answer 244

* Fever * Lethargy * Anorexia * Pallor * Splenomegaly

Answer 245

* Non-regenerative anemia * Hyperglobulinemia

Answer 246

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

Answer 247

* Lethargy * Anorexia * Fever * Pallor * Thrombocytopenia

Answer 248

Fever, pallor, anemia, arthritis ## Footnote These signs can overlap with other infectious or inflammatory diseases in cats.

Answer 249

Fever, lethargy, lameness, thrombocytopenia ## Footnote Signs may vary and can be nonspecific.

Answer 250

Mononuclear cells

Answer 251

Granulocytes

Answer 252

Non-regenerative anemia, hyperglobulinemia

Answer 253

Thrombocytopenia, possibly anemia

Answer 254

PCR, cytology, (limited serology)

Answer 255

Cytology, PCR, (limited serology)

Answer 256

Small (0.3–1.0 µm), wall-less bacteria that attach to the surface of erythrocytes. ## Footnote Historically classified as Haemobartonella, they have been reclassified under the genus Mycoplasma.

Answer 257

Hemoplasmas differ from typical Mycoplasma spp. as they infect erythrocytes rather than colonizing mucosal surfaces.

Answer 258

0.4% – 27%

Answer 259

* Male, outdoor, non-pedigreed cats * Older age * Positive FeLV or FIV status * Feral or free-roaming lifestyle

Answer 260

* Acute hemolytic anemia * Regenerative response (reticulocytosis) * Clinical signs appear ~2–34 days post-infection

Answer 261

Long-term subclinical carriers exist, especially for 'Ca. M. haemominutum'.

Answer 262

Positive PCR for a pathogenic hemoplasma with clinical signs and supportive clinicopathologic findings.

Answer 263

Allows monitoring of blood organism load and assessment of treatment efficacy.

Answer 264

* Regenerative macrocytic hypochromic anemia * Reticulocytosis * Positive Coombs test

Answer 265

Recheck CBC to assess response (e.g., improved PCV, regenerative indices)

Answer 266

Mild to non-pathogenic alone; anemia generally occurs only with concurrent diseases.

Answer 267

False (organism load must be high to find in smear and can be mistaken for Heinz bodies)

Answer 268

* Primary or secondary IMHA * Hemotropic parasites * Retroviral infections * Hypophosphatemia * Toxin-induced hemolysis

Answer 269

Antibiotic therapy and supportive care

Answer 270

Strong evidence of concurrent primary IMHA unresponsive to antibiotics

Answer 271

Year-round flea and tick preventives

Answer 272

* Outdoor exposure * Shelter environments * Dog fighting

Answer 273

PCR screening for hemoplasma infection

Answer 274

Behavioral and welfare needs of cats used to outdoor access

Answer 275

No, it is suggested but not definitively proven

Answer 276

Not routinely indicated; may cause reactivation

Answer 277

Ectoparasite control

Answer 278

Mild to moderate diarrhea (watery, mucoid, or bloody), tenesmus, lethargy, dehydration, anorexia, vomiting, fever, abdominal pain ## Footnote Extra-GI signs may include cholangiohepatitis, cholecystitis, reproductive issues, and neurologic abnormalities.

Answer 279

Gram-negative rods (0.2–0.8 µm wide by 0.5–5 µm long), occurring singly, in pairs, or in chains

Answer 280

Via the fecal-oral route, either directly or indirectly

Answer 281

* C. upsaliensis * C. jejuni * C. helveticus

Answer 282

Common co-infections include parvovirus, coronavirus, circovirus, endoparasites, and Clostridium spp.

Answer 283

* Bacterial motility * Adhesiveness * Invasiveness * Toxin production * Multidrug resistance * Stress-response genes

Answer 284

Through flagella and adhesins

Answer 285

Isolating the organism from feces or other specimens via microaerophilic culture

Answer 286

MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry

Answer 287

* Erythromycin: 10–15 mg/kg PO q8h * Tylosin: 6–16 mg/kg PO q12h * Azithromycin: 5–10 mg/kg PO q24h * Enrofloxacin: 5 mg/kg PO q24h

Answer 288

Generally excellent with appropriate supportive care

Answer 289

It is one of the most common causes of foodborne illness in humans

Answer 290

Contact with immature or diarrheic pets, especially for children, pregnant women, the elderly, and immunocompromised individuals

Answer 291

Feeding pets a raw meat or bones diet

Answer 292

Hygiene education, especially for high-risk households

Answer 293

High prevalence of asymptomatic carriage ## Footnote This complicates the identification of symptomatic infections.

Answer 294

Modified charcoal cefoperazone deoxycholate agar (mCCDA) ## Footnote This medium supports the growth of microaerophilic bacteria like Campylobacter.

Answer 295

Causes mucosal cell cycle arrest and damage ## Footnote This contributes to the pathogenicity of the bacteria.

Answer 296

Major concern, especially from undercooked poultry ## Footnote Identical strains can be found in pets and humans.

Answer 297

* Asymptomatic in most * Acute gastroenteritis * Diarrhea (watery, mucoid, hemorrhagic) * Anorexia * Fever * Vomiting * Abdominal pain

Answer 298

Culture from feces or other tissues, requiring selective enrichment ## Footnote Media such as MacConkey or XLD agar are used.

Answer 299

Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus; transmitted via fecal-oral route ## Footnote It can survive in contaminated environments for long periods.

Answer 300

* TcdA (enterotoxin A) * TcdB (cytotoxin B) * Binary toxin CDT

Answer 301

Considered low, but community-acquired human CDI could involve pets ## Footnote Hygiene and handling precautions are recommended.

Answer 302

* MDR common * Systemic spread possible * Primary pathogen in mammals

Answer 303

* Dogs: 0–3.6% * Cats: 0–4%

Answer 304

Significant risk factor for transmission ## Footnote RMBDs can harbor Salmonella and other pathogens.

Answer 305

* Small or large bowel diarrhea * Vomiting * Lethargy * Anorexia

Answer 306

Anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus ## Footnote Spores are highly resistant to environmental conditions and disinfectants.

Answer 307

Fecal–oral route, often from contaminated environments ## Footnote Found in the intestinal tracts of humans and animals.

Answer 308

Healthy dogs: up to 58%; Healthy cats: up to 21% ## Footnote Higher prevalence in juveniles and hospitalized animals.

Answer 309

Disruption of normal flora and overgrowth of toxigenic strains ## Footnote Toxins include TcdA (enterotoxin A) and TcdB (cytotoxin B).

Answer 310

Small or large bowel diarrhea, vomiting, anorexia, lethargy ## Footnote Hospital outbreaks in dogs and cats have occurred.

Answer 311

PCR (preferred) for detecting TcdA and TcdB genes ## Footnote Anaerobic fecal culture and antigen testing are also used.

Answer 312

Discontinue unnecessary antibiotics, supportive care, probiotics, dietary changes, Fecal Microbiota Transplant (FMT) ## Footnote FMT shown to be superior to metronidazole in dogs.

Answer 313

Anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus ## Footnote Seven toxotypes (A–G) based on toxin production.

Answer 314

Up to 84% in healthy dogs; up to 91% in diarrheic dogs ## Footnote Type A, enterotoxigenic strains most commonly implicated in food poisoning in humans.

Answer 315

Sporulation of toxigenic strains leading to enterotoxin (CPE) release ## Footnote Inciting factors include diet change, antimicrobials, co-infections.

Answer 316

Direct fecal PCR for toxin genes and CPE ELISA ## Footnote Diagnosis requires detection of toxigenic strain and clinical correlation.

Answer 317

Supportive care, probiotics, antibiotics only for severe cases ## Footnote Metronidazole, Tylosin, and Ampicillin are options.

Answer 318

Facultative anaerobic, gram-negative, pleomorphic rods ## Footnote Classified by surface antigens: O, H, and K.

Answer 319

EPEC, ETEC, EHEC (including VTEC and NTEC), EIEC, EAEC, AIEC ## Footnote Most strains are commensals but can become pathogenic.

Answer 320

Chronic large bowel diarrhea, hematochezia, weight loss ## Footnote Histopathology shows ulceration and PAS-positive macrophages in mucosa.

Answer 321

Gram-negative, motile, facultative anaerobe ## Footnote Member of the family Enterobacteriaceae.

Answer 322

Most infections are subclinical; may present with enteritis or extra-GI infections ## Footnote Rare cases may exhibit myocarditis or hepatitis.

Answer 323

Most cases are self-limiting; antibiotics based on susceptibility testing if required ## Footnote Ingestion of contaminated pork or other meats is suspected as the primary route.

Answer 324

Obligate intracellular gram-negative spore-forming bacillus ## Footnote Transmission occurs via ingestion of spores from wild rodents or rabbit feces.

Answer 325

Acute, often fatal; affects liver, GI tract, myocardium ## Footnote Diagnosis is through histopathology and PCR.

Answer 326

Animals with suspected bacterial enteritis should be housed in isolation wards ## Footnote Managed with barrier precautions and walked in designated separate areas.

Answer 327

Fecal-oral transmission. ## Footnote Except for Cystoisospora satanus, whose transmission pathway is unknown in dogs and cats.

Answer 328

Direct life cycles ## Footnote Infection occurs via ingestion of sporulated oocysts from the environment.

Answer 329

Immediately infectious upon excretion as sporulated oocysts ## Footnote Capable of autoinfection and highly environmentally resistant.

Answer 330

Cysts ## Footnote Cysts are environmentally resistant and transmitted via ingestion from contaminated sources.

Answer 331

No cyst form; transmission occurs by ingestion of trophozoites.

Answer 332

Invertebrate hosts like flies, cockroaches, and dung beetles that can transmit Giardia and Cystoisospora.

Answer 333

* Giardia duodenalis * Cryptosporidium spp. * Cystoisospora spp. * Neospora caninum

Answer 334

9% ## Footnote Detected via microscopy.

Answer 335

Replication in intestinal epithelial cells, especially villus enterocytes or lamina propria.

Answer 336

* Diarrhea * Weight loss * Dehydration * Severe cases: anorexia, vomiting, depression, death.

Answer 337

2–14 days.

Answer 338

* Direct fecal smear * Fecal flotation via centrifugation * ELISA * PCR * Culture

Answer 339

Preferred medium for Giardia to minimize cyst distortion.

Answer 340

* Metronidazole (monotherapy) * Metronidazole + Fenbendazole * Fenbendazole (monotherapy) * Sulfadimethoxine

Answer 341

Often self-limiting in immunocompetent animals.

Answer 342

Co-infection with certain colonic bacteria.

Answer 343

Large bowel diarrhea with semi-formed feces, mucus, and fresh blood.

Answer 344

7 days at 23–24°C.

Answer 345

Weeks to months.

Answer 346

* Nitazoxanide * Azithromycin * Paramomycin * Auranofin

Answer 347

Sulfadimethoxine

Answer 348

Ronidazole

Answer 349

* Inadequate dose or duration * Reinfection from a subclinical carrier * Drug resistance

Answer 350

PCR testing

Answer 351

ELISA for Giardia antigen

Answer 352

90% reduction seen with 2 doses of secnidazole (30 mg/kg) 2 weeks apart

Answer 353

* Giardia duodenalis * Cryptosporidium spp. * Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 354

A1, A2, B3, B4

Answer 355

* Ingestion of sporulated oocysts from contaminated soil, water, or vegetables * Consumption of undercooked meat containing tissue cysts

Answer 356

Low but not negligible

Answer 357

Babesia ## Footnote Babesia is part of the phylum Apicomplexa.

Answer 358

Sexual reproduction in the definitive host and asexual reproduction in the intermediate mammalian host.

Answer 359

Tick bite inoculation.

Answer 360

* Fever * Lethargy * Pallor * Tachycardia * Tachypnea * Hypotensive shock * Splenomegaly * Icterus * Petechiae * Neurologic signs * Rhabdomyolysis * Acute kidney injury

Answer 361

Regenerative anemia.

Answer 362

Azithromycin 10 mg/kg PO q24h + Atovaquone 13.3 mg/kg PO q8h for 10 days.

Answer 363

* Schizogonous (tissue phase) * Erythrocytic (piroplasm) phase.

Answer 364

* Lethargy * Anorexia * Fever * Icterus * Dehydration.

Answer 365

Atovaquone and Azithromycin.

Answer 366

Visceral leishmaniasis.

Answer 367

* Promastigotes * Amastigotes.

Answer 368

Sandflies.

Answer 369

A strong T-cell (Th1) response can control or clear the infection.

Answer 370

* Pancytopenia * Hyperbilirubinemia * Elevated liver enzymes * Hyperglycemia.

Answer 371

Amblyomma americanum.

Answer 372

Midwest, Southeast, and Mid-Atlantic regions.

Answer 373

Typically subclinical carriers.

Answer 374

Sandflies, blood transfusion, vertical transmission ## Footnote Old World vector is Phlebotomus spp. and New World vector is Lutzomyia spp.

Answer 375

Alopecia, papules, nodules, scaling ## Footnote These cutaneous lesions can precede systemic signs.

Answer 376

Weight loss, muscle wasting, fever, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, anterior uveitis, polyarthritis, glomerulonephritis, renal failure ## Footnote Hematologic abnormalities include non-regenerative anemia and lymphopenia.

Answer 377

PCR ## Footnote PCR is preferred due to high sensitivity.

Answer 378

Clinical remission—not curative ## Footnote Relapse and reinfection are common in endemic areas.

Answer 379

Allopurinol and Meglumine antimoniate ## Footnote Meglumine antimoniate is not available in the U.S.

Answer 380

Hepatozoon canis and Hepatozoon americanum ## Footnote H. canis is endemic in Europe, Asia, Africa, and South America, while H. americanum is found in the southeastern U.S.

Answer 381

Ingestion of infected ticks or prey ## Footnote Infection does not occur via tick bite.

Answer 382

Fever, lethargy, muscle pain or lameness, mucopurulent ocular discharge, stiff gait, myalgia, muscle atrophy ## Footnote These signs can vary in severity.

Answer 383

Non-regenerative anemia, marked leukocytosis, hypoglycemia, hypoalbuminemia, elevated ALP ## Footnote Radiographs may show periosteal proliferation.

Answer 384

PCR ## Footnote PCR differentiates between H. americanum and H. canis.

Answer 385

Potentiated sulfonamide + clindamycin + pyrimethamine ## Footnote This treatment is not curative and relapses are common.

Answer 386

Domestic cats ## Footnote Sexual reproduction occurs in the feline GI tract.

Answer 387

Oocysts, Tachyzoites, Bradyzoites ## Footnote Oocysts are infectious after sporulation, tachyzoites are rapidly dividing, and bradyzoites are slow-dividing in tissue cysts.

Answer 388

Fever, lethargy, icterus, dyspnea, seizures, uveitis, chorioretinitis ## Footnote Signs can vary in severity and may also affect other organs.

Answer 389

Clindamycin, Trimethoprim-sulfonamide combinations, Azithromycin ## Footnote Treatment duration is a minimum of 4 weeks.

Answer 390

Ingestion of undercooked meat or contaminated food/water ## Footnote Direct contact with cats is not a significant risk.

Answer 391

Dogs ## Footnote Oocyst shedding occurs in the feces of dogs.

Answer 392

Ascending paralysis, hyperextension of pelvic limbs, muscle atrophy ## Footnote Severe signs can lead to death in neonates.

Answer 393

Elevated CK and AST, non-regenerative anemia, increased protein in CSF ## Footnote Imaging may show multifocal CNS lesions.

Answer 394

Electron microscopy, immunohistochemistry, or PCR ## Footnote N. caninum tissue cysts have thicker walls than T. gondii.

Answer 395

Clindamycin, Trimethoprim-sulfonamides + pyrimethamine ## Footnote Cyclosporine may also be used.

Answer 396

Low cross-reactivity ## Footnote This means that the test is specific and does not produce false positives for T. gondii.

Answer 397

N. caninum tissue cysts have thicker walls (>1 µm) than T. gondii (<1 µm) ## Footnote This structural difference aids in the identification of the parasites.

Answer 398

Clindamycin ## Footnote Clindamycin is commonly used in treating infections caused by N. caninum.

Answer 399

Trimethoprim-sulfonamides + pyrimethamine ## Footnote This combination is effective in managing N. caninum infections.

Answer 400

Artemisinin derivatives ## Footnote These drugs are being researched for their potential effectiveness against the parasite.

Answer 401

Guarded ## Footnote This indicates a poor outlook for recovery in such cases.

Answer 402

May not clear infection ## Footnote Clindamycin may help manage symptoms but not fully eradicate the parasite.

Answer 403

Yes, including AIDS patients ## Footnote This indicates potential exposure but does not confirm infection.

Answer 404

No confirmed human infections ## Footnote Despite antibody detection, there have been no documented cases of human disease.

Answer 405

Avoid dog feces contamination of livestock feed, prevent ingestion of bovine placenta or venison by dogs, spay bitches producing affected litters ## Footnote These measures help control the spread of N. caninum.

Answer 406

Intracellular, host-adapted gram-negative aerobic coccobacilli ## Footnote Highly transmissible within their natural host species but capable of cross-species infection, including zoonosis in humans.

Answer 407

Brucella canis

Answer 408

Rough strains lack the mucoid O-polysaccharide side chain on their LPS ## Footnote Smooth strains contribute to immunogenicity and form the basis for serologic screening tests.

Answer 409

B. abortus, B. melitensis, B. suis

Answer 410

Nonspecific, flu-like symptoms

Answer 411

Children, elderly, pregnant women, immunocompromised

Answer 412

Middle East, Africa, Asia, Latin America

Answer 413

Animal control

Answer 414

Mucosal (oral, nasal, venereal)

Answer 415

Abortion and infertility

Answer 416

Brucella DNA (viable or non-viable organisms)

Answer 417

Variable clinical presentation and subclinical carriers

Answer 418

Euthanasia

Answer 419

Triple therapy: Doxycycline + Gentamicin + Rifampin for 3 months

Answer 420

Isolate and euthanize if outbreak risk

Answer 421

Re-test 8–12 weeks later if initial test is negative

Answer 422

Tetanus: Clostridium tetani Botulism: Clostridium botulinum ## Footnote Both are gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacilli.

Answer 423

Spastic paralysis ## Footnote Tetanus toxin inhibits the release of neurotransmitters leading to sustained muscle contraction.

Answer 424

Flaccid paralysis ## Footnote Botulinum toxin inhibits acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction.

Answer 425

Inhibits release of glycine and GABA by cleaving synaptobrevin ## Footnote This leads to disinhibition of α-motor neurons and sustained muscle contraction.

Answer 426

Stiff gait, sawhorse stance, elevated tail, hypertonia of all limbs, lockjaw, dysphagia ## Footnote May progress to respiratory paralysis and central respiratory arrest.

Answer 427

5–12 days, up to 3 weeks ## Footnote This can vary based on the severity of the exposure.

Answer 428

I: Facial signs only II: Generalized rigidity or dysphagia III: Class I or II signs + recumbency or seizures IV: Class I–III + autonomic dysfunction ## Footnote Prognosis worsens with increasing class.

Answer 429

Mouse bioassay ## Footnote This test detects botulinum neurotoxins in serum, feces, or food.

Answer 430

Supportive care, antitoxin, and antimicrobial therapy ## Footnote Intensive nursing is critical for survival.

Answer 431

Metronidazole ## Footnote It is shown to achieve superior therapeutic anaerobic concentrations.

Answer 432

Dogs > Cats (rare); horses also susceptible ## Footnote Dogs, especially young large breeds, are the most commonly affected.

Answer 433

irreversible ## Footnote Recovery requires new axonal growth.

Answer 434

Decreased jaw tone, hypoventilation, megaesophagus, aspiration pneumonia ## Footnote Mentation remains normal despite the effects.

Answer 435

Tetanus spreads via retrograde axonal transport to CNS; Botulism remains peripheral ## Footnote Botulism does not involve CNS ascension.

Answer 436

Residual motor deficits, abnormal REM sleep behaviors ## Footnote Up to 50% of recovering dogs may exhibit dream enactment behaviors.

Answer 437

Mortality rate up to 50% ## Footnote Poor prognostic indicators include autonomic dysfunction and recumbency.

Answer 438

Types A, B, E, and F ## Footnote Types C and D are most common in animals.

Answer 439

Inhibits neuromuscular transmission and reduces autonomic dysregulation ## Footnote It is used as an adjuvant therapy.

Answer 440

False ## Footnote Autonomic dysfunction is not a major feature compared to Tetanus.

Answer 441

Ingestion of pre-formed toxin in carrion or spoiled food ## Footnote Other routes like toxicoinfectious botulism are rare in dogs.

Answer 442

Toxicoinfectious botulism ## Footnote This type of botulism is less commonly seen compared to others.

Answer 443

Alkaline environment ## Footnote The toxin is initially inactive until it reaches this specific environment.

Answer 444

Presynaptic peripheral cholinergic nerve terminals ## Footnote This binding is essential for the toxin's effects on the nervous system.

Answer 445

Inhibition of acetylcholine (ACh) release at the neuromuscular junction ## Footnote This leads to flaccid paralysis.

Answer 446

Within 12 hours ## Footnote This rapid onset is characteristic of the condition.

Answer 447

Afebrile, acute-onset flaccid paralysis ## Footnote This paralysis typically starts in the pelvic limbs.

Answer 448

* Facial nerve paralysis * Decreased jaw tone * Decreased gag reflex * Reduced vocalization * Megaesophagus ## Footnote These symptoms indicate neurological effects of the toxin.

Answer 449

* Altered heart rate (bradycardia or tachycardia) * Mydriasis with depressed PLR * Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) * Urinary retention * Constipation ## Footnote These signs reflect the toxin's impact on autonomic regulation.

Answer 450

* Respiratory failure * Aspiration pneumonia * Prolonged recumbency complications ## Footnote These complications highlight the severe impact of botulism on the body.

Answer 451

Clinical signs and dietary history ## Footnote Exposure to carrion is a key factor in diagnosis.

Answer 452

Supportive care ## Footnote This includes management of recumbency and bladder care.

Answer 453

Effective only if administered early ## Footnote It cannot reverse established neuromuscular blockade.

Answer 454

* Delayed diagnosis * Severe cranial nerve or respiratory involvement * Development of aspiration pneumonia ## Footnote These factors can lead to a more challenging recovery.

Answer 455

2–3 weeks ## Footnote However, some may experience residual weakness for up to a year.

Answer 456

Gram-negative, hemotropic, facultative intracellular bacteria transmitted by blood-sucking arthropods.

Answer 457

Infective endocarditis.

Answer 458

Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea).

Answer 459

Suspected vectors based on epidemiologic and in vitro evidence, though not definitively confirmed.

Answer 460

* Rural living * Multi-dog households * Outdoor access * Proximity to cats or rodents

Answer 461

~18–20% of asymptomatic dogs.

Answer 462

Endothelial cells.

Answer 463

Types I–IV.

Answer 464

* Heart murmur: 89% * Lameness: 43% * Respiratory signs: 28% * Weakness/collapse: 17%

Answer 465

* Fever * Lymphadenopathy * Lethargy * Uveitis * Myocarditis * Neurologic signs

Answer 466

* Proteinuria: 40% * Anemia: 38% * Leukocytosis: 36% * Thrombocytopenia: 34%

Answer 467

Solid media culture.

Answer 468

Doxycycline and Enrofloxacin.

Answer 469

Leads to poor cross-protective immunity.

Answer 470

Cats often have higher bacteremia levels than dogs.

Answer 471

Do not protect against heterologous strains.

Answer 472

bites or scratches.

Answer 473

High specificity and sensitivity; allows species and strain identification. Likely positive if causing endocarditis

Answer 474

* Endocarditis * FUO * Thromboembolic disease * Polyarthritis

Answer 475

Treat symptomatic dogs or those with confirmed serious disease like endocarditis, myocarditis, or CNS disease. ## Footnote Asymptomatic, PCR-positive dogs should be monitored, not treated empirically.

Answer 476

Azithromycin 10 mg/kg PO q24h for 7 days, then q48h + Rifampin 5 mg/kg PO q12h for 4–6 weeks ## Footnote This is for dogs with CNS involvement.

Answer 477

Doxycycline + Amikacin 20–30 mg/kg IV/IM/SQ q24h during hospitalization ## Footnote Start second antibiotic 5–7 days after initiating therapy.

Answer 478

Do not discontinue antibiotics; treat with short-term glucocorticoids such as Prednisone 0.5–1 mg/kg PO once daily ## Footnote For cats, use Prednisolone 1–2 mg/kg PO once daily.

Answer 479

4–6 weeks, ideally continuing therapy for 2 weeks beyond resolution of clinical signs ## Footnote Some cases may require several months.

Answer 480

Clinical response, CBC/chem panel abnormalities, repeat serology, and BAPGM ePCR at 2 and 6 weeks post-treatment ## Footnote This is to evaluate for microbial clearance.

Answer 481

Due to the risk of antimicrobial resistance and lack of proven benefit ## Footnote There is no justification for screening or treating healthy cats.

Answer 482

* Pradofloxacin * Doxycycline * Azithromycin ## Footnote Dual antimicrobial therapy with different mechanisms of action is recommended.

Answer 483

Doxycycline + Pradofloxacin for a minimum duration of 4–6 weeks ## Footnote Doxycycline: 5 mg/kg PO q12h or 10 mg/kg PO q24h; Pradofloxacin: 10 mg/kg PO q24h.

Answer 484

6 weeks ## Footnote This involves Marbofloxacin + Azithromycin.

Answer 485

Vector control, including year-round ectoparasite prevention ## Footnote This reduces the risk of infection from Bartonella and other vector-borne diseases.

Answer 486

* Use personal protective equipment (PPE) * Avoid needle stick injuries, bites, and scratches * Use feline-friendly handling practices ## Footnote This is to reduce occupational risk.

Answer 487

No documented direct dog-to-human transmission via bite or scratch ## Footnote However, Bartonella DNA has been found in dog saliva.

Answer 488

Gram-negative staining ## Footnote They possess phenotypic features of both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Answer 489

* P1: Pathogenic * P2: Intermediate * S1 & S2: Saprophytic

Answer 490

Small rodents ## Footnote A broad range of species, including dogs, cats, and humans, can also serve as reservoirs.

Answer 491

Acute interstitial nephritis with tubular cell necrosis ## Footnote This is associated with apoptosis and regeneration.

Answer 492

* Cholestatic hepatitis * Hepatocellular necrosis * Periportal edema with inflammatory infiltrates * Kupffer cell proliferation

Answer 493

A syndrome characterized by intra-alveolar hemorrhage with minimal inflammatory infiltration ## Footnote LPHS is a major cause of mortality in dogs and humans.

Answer 494

Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT) ## Footnote MAT detects serum antibodies that agglutinate live leptospiral serovars.

Answer 495

* Coagulopathies * Systemic inflammation * Immune-mediated tissue destruction * Direct toxin-mediated injury

Answer 496

* False negatives may occur in early infection * False positives may occur due to previous vaccination

Answer 497

Renal cortical hyperechogenicity ## Footnote Other findings may include renomegaly and pyelectasia.

Answer 498

Serovar Canicola ## Footnote Progression from tubulointerstitial nephritis to tubular atrophy and renal fibrosis has been observed.

Answer 499

Induce cell damage and inflammation in renal tubular epithelium in vitro

Answer 500

Detection of anti-leptospiral IgM and/or IgG antibodies using ELISAs or lateral flow tests can support early clinical decision-making.

Answer 501

* False negatives may occur in early infection due to lack of seroconversion. * False positives may occur due to previous vaccination.

Answer 502

Use these tests in conjunction with MAT (ideally paired titers) and retest initially negative dogs within a few days if clinical suspicion remains high.

Answer 503

Blood PCR is positive during the first week of infection.

Answer 504

Urine PCR becomes positive later (after blood), as organisms localize to the kidneys.

Answer 505

* LipL32 gene (specific for pathogenic leptospires) * 23S rDNA

Answer 506

* Multiple Locus Sequence Typing (MLST) * Multiple Locus Variable Number Tandem Repeat Analysis (MLVA)

Answer 507

Start with an IV penicillin-class drug: Penicillin G, ampicillin, or amoxicillin, then transition to doxycycline once tolerated.

Answer 508

Management is supportive, including performing thoracic radiographs and avoiding stress, overhydration, and systemic hypertension.

Answer 509

* Methylprednisolone * Dexamethasone * Desmopressin * Plasmapheresis

Answer 510

Renal recovery may take months, and ~50% of dogs had persistent renal impairment over 1 year post-discharge.

Answer 511

Cats can be infected and shed leptospires in urine, but clinical illness is rare.

Answer 512

Interstitial nephritis.

Answer 513

* Bivalent vaccines (Canicola, Icterohaemorrhagiae) * Quadrivalent vaccines (Canicola, Icterohaemorrhagiae, Grippotyphosa, Pomona)

Answer 514

Vaccination with a quadrivalent vaccine was associated with significantly reduced odds of developing leptospirosis.

Answer 515

Rickettsiales

Answer 516

Ehrlichia canis

Answer 517

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)

Answer 518

Southern U.S., Central & South America, Africa, Asia, Europe

Answer 519

Thrombocytopenia

Answer 520

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (CGA)

Answer 521

Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star tick)

Answer 522

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 523

Thrombocytopenia

Answer 524

Intracellular Gram-negative bacterium

Answer 525

Subclinical carriers can develop chronic disease later

Answer 526

Bleeding diathesis

Answer 527

Clinical improvement within 24–48 hours

Answer 528

Canine Cyclic Thrombocytopenia

Answer 529

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Answer 530

* Fever * Anorexia * Lethargy

Answer 531

May persist for months and do not confirm active infection

Answer 532

Salmon Poisoning Disease (SPD)

Answer 533

Nanophyetus salmincola

Answer 534

5–33 days

Answer 535

* High fever (up to 42°C / 107.6°F) * Anorexia

Answer 536

* Thrombocytopenia * Neutrophilia ± left shift * Lymphopenia * Monocytosis * Hyponatremia * Hypokalemia * ↑ ALT, ALP * Hypoalbuminemia

Answer 537

* Doxycycline 10 mg/kg PO q24h for ≥7–10 days * Supportive care including fluids and antiemetics * Praziquantel for fluke treatment

Answer 538

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 539

* Dermacentor variabilis * Dermacentor andersoni * Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Answer 540

* Leukocytosis ± left shift * Thrombocytopenia * Anemia * ↑ ALT/ALP * Electrolyte imbalances

Answer 541

Ehrlichia canis-like organisms

Answer 542

* Lethargy * Anorexia * Fever * Pallor * Epistaxis * Hyperesthesia

Answer 543

* Fever * Lethargy * Lameness * Thrombocytopenia ## Footnote These signs can also indicate other conditions.

Answer 544

Mononuclear cells ## Footnote This is a key aspect of the infection's pathology.

Answer 545

Granulocytes ## Footnote Understanding the target cells is crucial for diagnosis.

Answer 546

* Non-regenerative anemia * Hyperglobulinemia ## Footnote These lab findings are important for diagnostic considerations.

Answer 547

* Thrombocytopenia * Possibly anemia ## Footnote These findings can indicate the severity of the infection.

Answer 548

* PCR * Cytology * Limited serology ## Footnote These tools help confirm the diagnosis.

Answer 549

* Cytology * PCR * Limited serology ## Footnote Similar to Ehrlichia canis-like, these tools assist in diagnosis.

Answer 550

Rapid and complete ## Footnote A favorable response suggests successful management of the infection.

Answer 551

Small, wall-less bacteria that attach to the surface of erythrocytes.

Answer 552

Yes, human cases have been reported.

Answer 553

Mild pathogenicity; may cause anemia in immunocompromised cats.

Answer 554

* Male * Outdoor lifestyle * Older age * Positive FeLV or FIV status * Feral or free-roaming lifestyle

Answer 555

Mycoplasma haemofelis.

Answer 556

Acute hemolytic anemia.

Answer 557

Mycoplasma haemocanis.

Answer 558

hemolytic.

Answer 559

* Lethargy * Pallor * Weakness * Weight loss * Intermittent fever

Answer 560

Retinal toxicity/blindness.

Answer 561

* Cytology * PCR * Serology

Answer 562

Does not confirm causality; subclinical carriers exist.

Answer 563

Regenerative macrocytic hypochromic anemia.

Answer 564

Increased risk for hemoplasmosis due to Mycoplasma haemocanis.

Answer 565

Mild; usually subclinical.

Answer 566

Contributes to immune evasion.

Answer 567

Generally not recommended ## Footnote Antibiotic therapy and supportive care are usually sufficient. Risks include infection reactivation.

Answer 568

PCR for M. haemocanis became negative only after stopping prednisolone ## Footnote This was after prednisolone was started for presumed IMHA.

Answer 569

Only with strong evidence of concurrent primary IMHA unresponsive to antibiotics or if hemoplasma infection has been ruled out via PCR ## Footnote This caution is due to the risk of infection reactivation.

Answer 570

PCR screening for hemoplasma infection ## Footnote Subclinical carriers may appear healthy but can transmit infection via transfusion.

Answer 571

Strongly recommended in all at-risk animals ## Footnote This is vital for preventing hemoplasma infection.

Answer 572

No vaccine available ## Footnote Currently, there is no vaccine to prevent hemoplasma infections.

Answer 573

Complex due to: * High prevalence of asymptomatic carriage * Co-infections with viruses, parasites, and other bacteria * Most infections being self-limiting

Answer 574

Animals with: * Severe systemic signs * Sepsis * Extra-GI infection * Immunocompromised status

Answer 575

Signs include: * Diarrhea (acute or chronic) * Anorexia * Lethargy * Tenesmus * Vomiting * Abdominal pain

Answer 576

CBC may show: * Neutrophilia (with/without left shift) * Regenerative anemia * Neutropenia in sepsis Chemistry may show: * Electrolyte derangements * Azotemia * Mild liver enzyme elevation * Hyperbilirubinemia

Answer 577

Imaging is used to rule out: * Obstruction * Peritonitis * Neoplasia Ultrasound may show: * Mucosal thickening * Abnormal layering * Lymphadenopathy

Answer 578

Options include: * Fecal PCR panels * Culture (requires microaerophilic conditions) * Identification by MALDI-TOF MS * Antimicrobial susceptibility testing

Answer 579

Characteristics include: * Gram-negative, spiral rods * 30 species, many are commensals * Prevalence in fecal samples: Dogs 0–87%, Cats 0–75%

Answer 580

Common species include: * Dogs: C. upsaliensis, C. jejuni, C. helveticus * Cats: C. helveticus, C. upsaliensis, C. jejuni

Answer 581

Transmission is fecal–oral, direct or indirect, and it survives weeks in feces.

Answer 582

Virulence factors include: * Flagella * Adhesins * Invasins * CDT toxin

Answer 583

Signs include: * Often subclinical * Diarrhea (watery, mucous, or bloody) * Tenesmus * Lethargy * Dehydration * Anorexia

Answer 584

Challenges include: * High asymptomatic carriage * Co-infections complicating clinical significance

Answer 585

Recommended for: * Severe clinical signs * Immunocompromised patients * Extraintestinal disease

Answer 586

Recommended antibiotics include: * Erythromycin * Tylosin * Azithromycin * Enrofloxacin

Answer 587

Major concern with: * Campylobacter jejuni * C. coli Most common human source: undercooked poultry

Answer 588

Features include: * Gram-negative rods * Facultative anaerobic * Motile * Serotyped by O, K, H antigens

Answer 589

Transmission occurs via: * Fecal-oral route * Contaminated food or water * Fomites

Answer 590

Signs include: * Asymptomatic in most * Acute gastroenteritis * Diarrhea * Anorexia * Fever * Vomiting

Answer 591

Virulence factors include: * Adhesins * Invasion * Toxin production

Answer 592

Supportive care is primary; antibiotics are avoided unless necessary due to resistance concerns.

Answer 593

It is a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus.

Answer 594

Signs include: * Small or large bowel diarrhea * Vomiting * Lethargy * Anorexia

Answer 595

Treatment includes: * Discontinuation of current antibiotics * Supportive care * Probiotics * Fecal Microbiota Transplant (FMT)

Answer 596

Toxigenic ribotypes found in humans also identified in pets; zoonotic risk is considered low.

Answer 597

Notable features include: * High prevalence in pets * Multidrug resistance common * Systemic spread possible

Answer 598

Notable features include: * Toxins A/B * FMT effective * ELISA not validated in dogs/cats

Answer 599

Anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus

Answer 600

Highly resistant to environmental conditions and disinfectants

Answer 601

Fecal–oral route, often from contaminated environments

Answer 602

Disruption of normal flora and overgrowth of toxigenic strains

Answer 603

* TcdA (enterotoxin A) * TcdB (cytotoxin B) * Some strains produce binary toxin CDT

Answer 604

* Small or large bowel diarrhea, sometimes hemorrhagic * Vomiting * Anorexia * Lethargy

Answer 605

PCR (preferred): Detects TcdA and TcdB genes

Answer 606

* Discontinue unnecessary antibiotics * Supportive care * Probiotics * Dietary changes * Fecal Microbiota Transplant (FMT)

Answer 607

Minimal but possible risk of community-acquired CDI from pets

Answer 608

Anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus

Answer 609

Seven toxotypes (A–G) based on toxin production

Answer 610

* Alpha * Beta * Epsilon * Iota * CPE * NetB

Answer 611

Sporulation of toxigenic strains leading to enterotoxin (CPE) release

Answer 612

* Direct fecal PCR for toxin genes * CPE ELISA

Answer 613

Supportive care

Answer 614

Facultative anaerobic, gram-negative, pleomorphic rods

Answer 615

* Enteropathogenic (EPEC) * Enterotoxigenic (ETEC) * Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC) * Enteroinvasive (EIEC) * Enteroaggregative (EAEC) * Adherent-Invasive (AIEC)

Answer 616

60 of 61 positive for E. coli

Answer 617

Moderate, especially ESBL-producing strains

Answer 618

Gram-negative, motile, facultative anaerobe

Answer 619

Ingestion of contaminated pork or other meats

Answer 620

* Enteritis (diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain) * Extra-GI infections (e.g., myocarditis or hepatitis)

Answer 621

Most cases are self-limiting; antibiotics based on susceptibility testing if required

Answer 622

Significant foodborne pathogen in humans

Answer 623

Obligate intracellular gram-negative spore-forming bacillus

Answer 624

Poor, due to rapid clinical course

Answer 625

Use 1:10 bleach dilution, surfaces should be pre-cleaned and scrubbed for 10 minutes

Answer 626

Fecal-oral transmission ## Footnote Except for Cystoisospora satanus, whose transmission pathway remains unknown in dogs and cats.

Answer 627

Ingestion of sporulated oocysts from the environment ## Footnote They have direct life cycles and undergo asexual and sexual replication in host enterocytes.

Answer 628

Immediately infectious upon excretion as sporulated oocysts ## Footnote Capable of autoinfection and highly environmentally resistant.

Answer 629

Ingestion of cysts from contaminated feces, food, or water ## Footnote Cysts are the infectious and environmentally resistant stage.

Answer 630

Dogs: duodenum to ileum; Cats: jejunum to ileum ## Footnote Trophozoites do not significantly contribute to transmission.

Answer 631

False ## Footnote Transmission occurs by ingestion of trophozoites.

Answer 632

Cyst ## Footnote Cysts are ingested and excyst in the small intestine.

Answer 633

Invertebrate paratenic hosts (e.g., flies, cockroaches) ## Footnote Ingestion of infected prey may also transmit other protozoa.

Answer 634

* Giardia duodenalis * Cryptosporidium spp. * Cystoisospora spp. * Neospora caninum ## Footnote Common parasites differ from those found in cats.

Answer 635

Replication in intestinal epithelial cells ## Footnote Many infections are asymptomatic in immunocompetent hosts.

Answer 636

* Diarrhea * Weight loss * Dehydration ## Footnote Severe cases may lead to anorexia and vomiting.

Answer 637

* Direct fecal smear * Fecal flotation via centrifugation * ELISA for antigen detection ## Footnote PCR is also used for higher sensitivity.

Answer 638

* Metronidazole * Metronidazole + Fenbendazole * Fenbendazole ## Footnote Treatment is recommended only for symptomatic animals.

Answer 639

Often self-limiting in immunocompetent animals ## Footnote More severe in immunosuppressed hosts; no drug is fully curative.

Answer 640

2–14 days ## Footnote Patent period ranges from 3 to 33 days.

Answer 641

* Large bowel diarrhea * Semi-formed feces * Mucus and fresh blood ## Footnote Often presents with waxing and waning signs.

Answer 642

ulcerative colitis ## Footnote Typically subclinical but can lead to severe signs.

Answer 643

Cyst ## Footnote Shed in feces and can either be a commensal or invasive parasite.

Answer 644

Indicates potential public health concern ## Footnote Suggests the need for awareness and monitoring in dog populations.

Answer 645

Sulfadimethoxine

Answer 646

55 mg/kg PO once, then 27.5 mg/kg PO SID

Answer 647

50 mg/kg PO × 1–3 days

Answer 648

Ronidazole

Answer 649

30 mg/kg PO SID for 14 days

Answer 650

Efficacy assessed by PCR

Answer 651

* Inadequate dose or duration * Reinfection from a subclinical carrier * Drug resistance

Answer 652

PCR testing

Answer 653

Due to prolonged antigen shedding post-resolution

Answer 654

90% reduction with 2 doses of 30 mg/kg

Answer 655

Frequently induces vomiting

Answer 656

* Giardia duodenalis * Cryptosporidium spp. * Toxoplasma gondii * Entamoeba histolytica * Balantidium coli

Answer 657

Genetic assemblage

Answer 658

* A1 * A2 * B3 * B4

Answer 659

* C * D * F * E * G * H

Answer 660

* C. hominis: Humans * C. parvum: Ruminants, humans * C. canis: Dogs * C. felis: Cats

Answer 661

* Ingestion of sporulated oocysts from contaminated sources * Consumption of undercooked meat containing tissue cysts

Answer 662

Minimal; primarily a human pathogen

Answer 663

* Wash hands after handling feces * Avoid exposure to pet feces * Disinfect contaminated surfaces

Answer 664

* Handling pet feces * Contact with litterboxes * Cleaning up diarrhea

Answer 665

Low but not negligible, especially in immunosuppressed individuals

Answer 666

Babesia ## Footnote Babesia spp. are part of the phylum Apicomplexa.

Answer 667

* Sexual reproduction in the definitive host (ticks) * Asexual reproduction in the intermediate mammalian host

Answer 668

Tick bite inoculation

Answer 669

* Large Babesia * Small Babesia

Answer 670

Babesia vogeli

Answer 671

* Fever * Lethargy * Pallor * Tachycardia * Tachypnea * Hypotensive shock

Answer 672

Imidocarb dipropionate

Answer 673

Cytauxzoon felis

Answer 674

Amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)

Answer 675

* Schizogonous (tissue phase) * Erythrocytic (piroplasm) phase

Answer 676

* Pancytopenia * Hyperbilirubinemia * Elevated liver enzymes

Answer 677

* Atovaquone * Azithromycin

Answer 678

>30 species of Leishmania, primarily Leishmania infantum

Answer 679

Sandflies (Phlebotomus spp. in the Old World, Lutzomyia spp. in the New World)

Answer 680

* Weight loss * Fever * Lymphadenopathy * Splenomegaly

Answer 681

Allopurinol

Answer 682

Erythrocytic (Piroplasm)

Answer 683

Relapse common; subclinical carriers may later develop disease

Answer 684

* South America * Southern Europe * Middle East * North Africa

Answer 685

Transmission occurs via: * Sandfly bites * Blood transfusion * Vertical transmission ## Footnote Dogs serve as reservoirs for human infection.

Answer 686

The two forms are: * Promastigotes: extracellular; infectious stage from sandfly to mammal * Amastigotes: intracellular; replicate in macrophages

Answer 687

Macrophages phagocytose promastigotes, transforming them into amastigotes which replicate intracellularly.

Answer 688

A Th1 (cell-mediated) immunity leads to control or clearance, while a Th2 (humoral) or inadequate response results in chronic infection and disease.

Answer 689

Systemic signs include: * Weight loss * Muscle wasting * Fever * Splenomegaly * Lymphadenopathy * Anterior uveitis * Polyarthritis * Glomerulonephritis * Renal failure

Answer 690

Hematologic abnormalities include: * Non-regenerative anemia * Lymphopenia * Polyclonal or monoclonal gammopathy

Answer 691

Definitive diagnosis can be made via: * Cytology/histology: ID of amastigotes in tissue * PCR: preferred due to high sensitivity

Answer 692

First-line therapy includes: * Allopurinol (10–20 mg/kg PO q12h) * Meglumine antimoniate (not available in U.S.)

Answer 693

The goal of treatment is clinical remission—not curative.

Answer 694

Key statistics include: * ~90% mortality untreated * ~60% survival with combination therapy

Answer 695

The two species are: * Hepatozoon canis * Hepatozoon americanum

Answer 696

Transmission occurs via ingestion of infected ticks or prey—not via tick bite.

Answer 697

Clinical signs include: * Fever * Lethargy * Muscle pain or lameness * Mucopurulent ocular discharge * Stiff gait, myalgia, or muscle atrophy

Answer 698

Laboratory findings include: * Non-regenerative anemia * Marked leukocytosis * Hypoglycemia * Hypoalbuminemia * Elevated ALP

Answer 699

PCR (whole blood or buffy coat) is the most sensitive and specific method.

Answer 700

Treatment includes: * Triple therapy: potentiated sulfonamide + clindamycin + pyrimethamine * Decoquinate for long-term clinical remission

Answer 701

Transmission routes include: * Ingestion of sporulated oocysts * Bradyzoites * Tachyzoites * Transplacental transmission

Answer 702

The life stages include: * Oocysts * Tachyzoites * Bradyzoites

Answer 703

Common signs in cats include: * Fever * Lethargy * Icterus * Dyspnea * Seizures * Uveitis * Chorioretinitis

Answer 704

Treatment options include: * Clindamycin * Trimethoprim-sulfonamide combinations * Azithromycin

Answer 705

The greatest risk is ingestion of undercooked meat or contaminated food/water.

Answer 706

Signs include: * Ascending paralysis * Hyperextension of pelvic limbs * Muscle atrophy * Dysphagia * Death common in neonates

Answer 707

The life stages include: * Oocysts * Tachyzoites * Bradyzoites

Answer 708

Transmission occurs via: * Ingestion of oocysts or tissue cysts * Transplacental transmission

Answer 709

Diagnostic findings include: * Elevated CK and AST * Non-regenerative anemia * CSF analysis showing increased protein

Answer 710

Treatment options include: * Clindamycin * Trimethoprim-sulfonamides + pyrimethamine

Answer 711

Low ## Footnote IFA stands for Immunofluorescent Antibody.

Answer 712

CSF ## Footnote CSF stands for cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer 713

Electron microscopy, immunohistochemistry, or PCR ## Footnote PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction.

Answer 714

N. caninum >1 µm, T. gondii <1 µm

Answer 715

Trimethoprim-sulfonamides + pyrimethamine

Answer 716

Sequential therapy

Answer 717

Artemisinin derivatives

Answer 718

Early treatment

Answer 719

Dog feces contamination of livestock feed

Answer 720

Bovine placenta or venison

Answer 721

A Lentivirus in the family Retroviridae that causes immunosuppression in domestic cats worldwide. ## Footnote Often compared to HIV due to some shared pathophysiologic mechanisms.

Answer 722

Deep bite wounds during aggressive encounters (saliva or blood). ## Footnote Uncommon routes include rare vertical transmission and cohabitation in stable households.

Answer 723

* A * B * C * D * E ## Footnote Based on up to 26% sequence variation in the env gene.

Answer 724

5–6 years.

Answer 725

* Acute/primary phase * Subclinical phase * Terminal phase ## Footnote Unlike HIV, most FIV-infected cats do not develop a terminal AIDS-like syndrome.

Answer 726

* Immune dysfunction * Opportunistic infections * Chronic gingivostomatitis * Cytopenias * Neoplasia * Neurologic signs * Cachexia/Wasting syndrome

Answer 727

* Ill cats of unknown retroviral status * Cats with fight wounds or abscesses * Free-roaming cats, strays, or shelter intakes * Blood donors * Cats being adopted or rehomed * Kittens from FIV-positive queens * Cats prior to FIV vaccination

Answer 728

Confinement indoors.

Answer 729

* Concerns about efficacy against heterologous subtypes * Interference with antibody-based testing

Answer 730

High sensitivity (94–100%) and specificity (94–100%).

Answer 731

5–6× increased risk of lymphoma, especially high-grade extranodal B-cell lymphomas.

Answer 732

* No further action if low risk * Repeat test in 60 days if recent exposure possible * Consider false negative in high-risk cats

Answer 733

* Secondary infections * Cytopenias * Chronic inflammatory disease * Wasting and weight loss * Neoplasia

Answer 734

Biannual veterinary visits recommended.

Answer 735

* Early signs of secondary infections * Neoplasia * Immune dysfunction

Answer 736

May be justified for immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, inflammatory bowel disease, and chronic gingivostomatitis.

Answer 737

Vaccinated cats test antibody-positive on many point-of-care kits.

Answer 738

* Anemia * Neutropenia * GI signs

Answer 739

Confinement indoors to prevent transmission and physical trauma.

Answer 740

Emphasize dental care due to the association with gingivostomatitis.

Answer 741

Majority live normal life spans; prognosis is generally good, especially for indoor-only cats.

Answer 742

A retrovirus that affects domestic cats globally, associated with neoplasia, bone marrow suppression, and immunodeficiency ## Footnote FeLV is particularly known for causing lymphoma and increasing susceptibility to secondary infections.

Answer 743

2.3–3.3% ## Footnote Prevalence varies across regions, with Europe ranging from 0–15.6%, South America from 3–28.4%, and Asia/Australia/New Zealand from 0–24.5%.

Answer 744

1. Progressive 2. Regressive 3. Abortive 4. Focal/Atypical ## Footnote Each outcome is influenced by immune response strength and viral load.

Answer 745

Persistent viremia and antigenemia; high proviral load; clinical disease ## Footnote This outcome has the worst prognosis.

Answer 746

Initial viremia, then aviremic; no antigenemia; proviral DNA may persist ## Footnote This outcome is less severe than progressive infections.

Answer 747

shorter survival

Answer 748

* Bone marrow disorders (especially anemia) * Neoplasia (particularly lymphoma) * Immunosuppression leading to increased secondary infections ## Footnote Many infected cats may remain clinically healthy for years.

Answer 749

* Male, intact, adult cats * Associated diseases (e.g., lymphoma, anemia) * Behavior (e.g., aggression, mutual grooming) * Lack of vaccination * Outdoor access * Living in multi-cat households ## Footnote Environmental and socioeconomic factors also play a significant role.

Answer 750

Horizontal transmission via saliva (e.g., grooming, shared food/water bowls) and aggression (bite wounds) ## Footnote Vertical transmission can also occur in utero or via milk.

Answer 751

* Point-of-Care (POC) Testing * PCR Testing * Immunofluorescence Assay (IFA) * Antibody Testing ## Footnote Each method has specific indications and limitations.

Answer 752

It is used to detect progressive infection and indicates viral load ## Footnote High levels of p27 antigenemia at intake predict shorter survival.

Answer 753

Abortive infection ## Footnote This outcome is characterized by complete prevention of viral replication and no clinical signs.

Answer 754

Segregation and routine disinfection ## Footnote FeLV is easily inactivated by detergents, drying, and common disinfectants.

Answer 755

Lymphoma ## Footnote Progressively infected cats are significantly more likely to develop lymphoma than FeLV-negative cats.

Answer 756

proto-oncogenes

Answer 757

Inadequate immune response ## Footnote This may lead to progressive infection, especially in younger cats.

Answer 758

* Anemia * Respiratory infections * Lymphoma * Myeloproliferative disease * Stomatitis ## Footnote These conditions highlight the clinical burden of FeLV in affected cats.

Answer 759

3.1 years (range 0.6–6.5 years) post-infection ## Footnote This is based on long-term experimental studies.

Answer 760

Through segregation and routine disinfection ## Footnote Transmission requires direct contact.

Answer 761

* Adjuvanted inactivated whole-virus vaccines * Recombinant antigen vaccines * Non-adjuvanted canarypox-vectored vaccines

Answer 762

* Varied methodologies * Differing formulations * Confounding by immunosuppressive drug use or parvovirus contamination

Answer 763

Cause less local inflammation and potentially lower risk of injection site sarcomas ## Footnote They are less likely to cause adverse reactions.

Answer 764

Progressive infection and disease risk ## Footnote However, it does not prevent proviral integration.

Answer 765

* Outdoor cats * Cats in high-prevalence regions * Multi-cat settings * All kittens in endemic regions

Answer 766

At least 2 years ## Footnote A booster every 3 years is recommended after 2 years of age.

Answer 767

Vaccinating FeLV-infected cats offers no benefit.

Answer 768

Keep indoors, prevent spread, and continue routine preventive care.

Answer 769

Full segregation of infected and uninfected cats.

Answer 770

Glucocorticoids, immunosuppressives, or myelosuppressive drugs unless clearly indicated.

Answer 771

Chemotherapy (e.g., COP protocol: cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisone).

Answer 772

Up to 25%.

Answer 773

Upper respiratory infections (URI): 16% in FeLV+ vs 20% in FeLV−.

Answer 774

Limited benefit; most studies show no efficacy.

Answer 775

* Feline Enteric Coronavirus (FECV) * Feline Infectious Peritonitis Virus (FIPV)

Answer 776

Subclinical to mild, self-limiting enteritis.

Answer 777

A mutated, immune-evasive form of FCoV that causes systemic, usually fatal, immune-mediated vasculitis.

Answer 778

From spontaneous mutations of FECV within individual hosts.

Answer 779

* FCoV Type 1: Unknown receptor, most common in nature * FCoV Type 2: Aminopeptidase N (APN) receptor, less common

Answer 780

Intestinal epithelium.

Answer 781

* Often subclinical * May cause transient fever * Anorexia * Diarrhea

Answer 782

* Survives 1–2 days on surfaces * Up to 7 weeks in dried feces in lab settings

Answer 783

Granulomatous phlebitis.

Answer 784

Weak CMI, strong Th2/Humoral.

Answer 785

* Granulomatous lesions in CNS, eyes, kidneys, liver, lymph nodes * Slower clinical course

Answer 786

* TNF-α * IL-1β * IL-6 * VEGF * MMPs

Answer 787

Supports FIP but is not definitive.

Answer 788

* High protein (>3.5 g/dL) * Low-to-moderate cellularity * Predominantly macrophages and non-degenerate neutrophils

Answer 789

Histopathology and Immunohistochemistry (IHC) for FCoV antigen.

Answer 790

An investigational nucleoside analog inhibitor used for FIP treatment.

Answer 791

Mimics adenosine; halts viral RNA synthesis.

Answer 792

* Impaired cellular immunity * Genetic susceptibility * Overcrowded housing

Answer 793

Critical for macrophage tropism required for FIP.

Answer 794

FIPV arises spontaneously via mutations in FECV within each individual cat.

Answer 795

Mixed Th1-Th2 immune response.

Answer 796

Pedigree cats, especially purebred males, are at higher risk.

Answer 797

Alternate nucleoside analog with ambiguous base pairing mechanism

Answer 798

Potentially mutagenic; safety concerns under evaluation

Answer 799

Prodrug of GS-441524; expensive and off-label

Answer 800

Inhibits the 3C-like protease, required for viral protein processing

Answer 801

19/20 cats showed initial response

Answer 802

Detects both FIPV and FECV

Answer 803

Indicates exposure, not disease

Answer 804

84% response rate

Answer 805

GS-441524-based oral antiviral

Answer 806

Not recommended by AAFP/AAHA due to limited efficacy

Answer 807

Typically fecal-oral or aerosol

Answer 808

* Classic CCoV * Pantropic CCoV

Answer 809

Systemic illness, even fatal disease, without co-infection

Answer 810

Post-mortem immunofluorescence or immunostaining for viral antigen

Answer 811

Supportive care including fluid therapy and electrolyte replacement

Answer 812

Spread via aerosols; highly contagious

Answer 813

84% recovery rate; ~8/196 cats relapsed

Answer 814

Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2)

Answer 815

Mild respiratory signs or subclinical

Answer 816

Mount a robust neutralizing antibody response

Answer 817

Cats > Ferrets > Hamsters > Dogs

Answer 818

Increased cases of myocarditis

Answer 819

Human-to-cat transmission confirmed; cat-to-human transmission extremely rare

Answer 820

Studies on pathogenesis, transmission, and long-term immune consequences

Answer 821

Small, non-enveloped, single-stranded DNA viruses (~5,000 bp genome)

Answer 822

* Canine parvovirus (CPV) * Feline panleukopenia virus (FPV)

Answer 823

Parvoviral enteritis in dogs

Answer 824

Panleukopenia in cats

Answer 825

∼98% genetic similarity

Answer 826

CPV evolved from FPV and adapted to infect dogs

Answer 827

Minor amino acid differences (<10) in capsid proteins affecting interaction with the transferrin receptor (TfR)

Answer 828

They affect host specificity

Answer 829

* CPV-2a * CPV-2b * CPV-2c

Answer 830

Yes, CPV-2a and CPV-2b can infect cats and cause disease indistinguishable from feline panleukopenia, though this is rare

Answer 831

Fecal-oral route

Answer 832

Up to 10⁹ TCID₅₀/g of feces

Answer 833

Begins 3 days post-infection, peaks at days 3–4, and declines by day 7

Answer 834

* Unsanitary or crowded environments * High population turnover of unvaccinated or maternally unprotected puppies/kittens

Answer 835

* Positively correlated with wind speed * Inversely correlated with humidity

Answer 836

* Rottweilers * Doberman Pinschers * American Pit Bull Terriers * German Shepherd Dogs * English Springer Spaniels

Answer 837

90% acquired via colostrum; half-life ≈ 10 days; susceptibility increases at 12–14 weeks of age as MDA wanes

Answer 838

Targets mitotically active cells, leading to atrophy and lymphoid depletion in lymphoid and thymic tissues

Answer 839

* Skin necrosis * Bacterial polyarthritis * Discospondylitis

Answer 840

Septicemia

Answer 841

* Fecal ELISA antigen test * PCR

Answer 842

Hypokalemia

Answer 843

Early enteral nutrition via nasogastric tube

Answer 844

* Mild cerebellar signs * Severe hydrocephalus

Answer 845

Common and multifactorial, contributing to seizures in infected puppies

Answer 846

High mortality rate without prompt supportive care

Answer 847

Shown to reduce disease severity and mortality, though not widely available ## Footnote Recombinant interferons are proteins that can enhance the immune response.

Answer 848

Increased WBC counts, but unclear benefit on clinical outcomes ## Footnote G-CSF is used to stimulate the production of white blood cells.

Answer 849

<10% if untreated ## Footnote This highlights the critical need for prompt and effective treatment.

Answer 850

>90% with aggressive supportive care ## Footnote Supportive care significantly improves prognosis.

Answer 851

* Leukopenia * Neutropenia * Lymphopenia * Monocytopenia * Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) ## Footnote These indicators can suggest a poorer outcome for patients.

Answer 852

* Plasma antithrombin * AST * Lipase * Monocyte and lymphocyte counts ## Footnote This model has high sensitivity and specificity for predicting outcomes.

Answer 853

4–6 weeks of age ## Footnote Early vaccination is crucial to establish immunity.

Answer 854

Every 3–4 weeks ## Footnote This schedule helps ensure adequate protection against diseases.

Answer 855

Fetal risks ## Footnote Live vaccines can pose a risk to developing fetuses.

Answer 856

As early as 4 weeks of age, using high-titer, modified-live virus (MLV) vaccines ## Footnote Early vaccination helps protect puppies with insufficient maternal antibodies.

Answer 857

* 0.75% sodium hypochlorite (bleach) * Potassium peroxymonosulfate (e.g., Virkon®) ## Footnote These disinfectants are recommended for infection control.

Answer 858

Wildlife rabies ## Footnote This increase is driven by better surveillance and real epizootic spread.

Answer 859

Rabies virus, Genus Lyssavirus, Family Rhabdoviridae

Answer 860

Enveloped, bullet-shaped virus with a single-stranded negative-sense RNA genome

Answer 861

Through bite wounds from infected animals

Answer 862

Bats and carnivores ## Footnote Specifically, Chiroptera (bats) and Carnivora (carnivores).

Answer 863

Raccoon Rabies Virus Variant (RRVV)

Answer 864

Several weeks to several months

Answer 865

Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test on fresh brain tissue

Answer 866

Formalin fixation

Answer 867

Lethargy, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea

Answer 868

Administer a rabies vaccine booster immediately

Answer 869

Abnormal vocalizations that attract predators

Answer 870

Accidental infection via aerosolized virus

Answer 871

Immediate wound cleansing and rabies booster vaccination

Answer 872

Host species susceptibility, virus variant, virus dose, route of exposure

Answer 873

No shedding in urine or gastrointestinal secretions

Answer 874

* Wound cleaning * Human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) * Rabies vaccination series

Answer 875

Nearly 100% effective

Answer 876

* Provides immunologic priming * Simplifies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) * Reduces urgency and delays in treatment if exposed

Answer 877

Every 2 years

Answer 878

* No HRIG required * Booster vaccinations on days 0 and 3 only

Answer 879

* Rabies surveillance * Educational outreach * Diagnostic testing * Regulatory updates * Post-exposure human case management

Answer 880

* Cough * Sneezing * Nasal discharge * Ocular discharge * Conjunctivitis

Answer 881

Bordetella bronchiseptica

Answer 882

* Canine adenovirus type 2 (CAV-2) * Canine parainfluenza virus

Answer 883

2–14 days

Answer 884

Doxycycline

Answer 885

* H3N8 * H3N2

Answer 886

Intranasal modified live virus (MLV) vaccines

Answer 887

Terminal retch or expectoration of foamy material

Answer 888

Amplifies nucleic acids from CIRDC agents for testing

Answer 889

* Pasteurella * Staphylococcus

Answer 890

They are common and may worsen clinical severity

Answer 891

Consider pathogen-specific testing

Answer 892

An enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus of the Paramyxoviridae family, genus Morbillivirus.

Answer 893

* Domestic dogs * Ferrets * Raccoons * Skunks * Coyotes

Answer 894

No, there is no evidence supporting transmission to humans.

Answer 895

Ranges from <1 week to 4 weeks.

Answer 896

* Fever * Lethargy * Ocular discharge * Conjunctivitis * Nasal discharge * Coughing

Answer 897

* Vomiting * Diarrhea (may be bloody) * Anorexia * Muscle wasting

Answer 898

* Myoclonus * Chewing-gum fits * Seizures * Ataxia * Paralysis

Answer 899

* Increased respiratory illness frequency * Worsening respiratory illness severity * Emergence of neurologic signs * History of CDV in community * Delayed vaccination at intake

Answer 900

Primarily aerosolized respiratory droplets.

Answer 901

Can be >50%.

Answer 902

* Immune status * Infectious dose

Answer 903

They provide high efficacy and protection against all circulating CDV strains.

Answer 904

RT-PCR (reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction).

Answer 905

Presence of viral RNA but does not confirm viable virus.

Answer 906

* Nasal swabs * Deep pharyngeal swabs * Blood

Answer 907

Essential to combat secondary bacterial pneumonia.

Answer 908

* Bordetella bronchiseptica * Streptococcus spp. * E. coli

Answer 909

* Prompt recognition and diagnostics * Risk assessment * Immediate vaccination on intake

Answer 910

Loss of both dam and puppies.

Answer 911

Canarypox-vectored recombinant CDV vaccine.

Answer 912

Use RT-PCR and clinical signs to inform housing and isolation duration ## Footnote RT-PCR detects RNA but not viable virus; its limitations must be considered.

Answer 913

Serology helps identify protective antibody titers ## Footnote Antibody-positive, RT-PCR-negative dogs are considered non-infectious and protected.

Answer 914

False ## Footnote RT-PCR cannot differentiate between wild and vaccine strains.

Answer 915

Defined isolation, vaccination, and flow control are essential ## Footnote These factors can transform chaotic outbreaks into manageable situations.

Answer 916

To prevent disease spread ## Footnote Effective flow management is critical in managing outbreaks.

Answer 917

Low viral load ## Footnote This must be interpreted with timing and clinical signs.

Answer 918

A multifactorial disease complex involving viral and/or bacterial pathogens affecting the nasal, ocular, and respiratory mucosa.

Answer 919

Sneezing, nasal discharge, nasal congestion, ocular discharge, ulceration, systemic signs like inappetence and fever.

Answer 920

* Pathogen(s) involved * Infectious dose * Number of co-infections * Host immune status * Environmental conditions * Nutritional status and stress levels

Answer 921

In most feline populations.

Answer 922

Crowded, stressful, or unhygienic environments like shelters and catteries.

Answer 923

Via direct contact with oral, nasal, or ocular secretions.

Answer 924

Typically 2–10 days.

Answer 925

* Feline Herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1) * Feline Calicivirus (FCV)

Answer 926

Infects oral, nasal, conjunctival, and corneal epithelium, causing cytolysis and latency.

Answer 927

* Permanent damage to nasal turbinates * Osteolysis * Immune-mediated chronic rhinitis

Answer 928

Non-enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus.

Answer 929

High mutation rate due to lack of proofreading.

Answer 930

Mycoplasma felis.

Answer 931

Infects conjunctival epithelium; ocular secretions are the main transmission route.

Answer 932

Poor hygiene, overcrowding, concurrent infection, and immunosuppression.

Answer 933

* Sneezing * Nasal congestion * Mucopurulent nasal discharge * Conjunctivitis * Dendritic corneal ulcers

Answer 934

* Oral ulceration * Sneezing * Nasal and ocular discharge * Acute lameness * Fever

Answer 935

Clinical signs overlap significantly, co-infections are common, and healthy carriers may shed pathogens.

Answer 936

Doxycycline.

Answer 937

* Hydration * Nutrition * Stress reduction

Answer 938

To reduce population density and stress in multi-cat settings.

Answer 939

Famciclovir.

Answer 940

* FURI is primarily viral in origin. * Supportive care and stress reduction are critical. * Antimicrobials should be used judiciously.

Answer 941

* FHV-1: Fragile, inactivated by common disinfectants * FCV: Resilient, can survive days to weeks in the environment

Answer 942

FHV-1 ## Footnote Current evidence is inconclusive or does not support its benefit.

Answer 943

May have benefit in some cases, but evidence remains mixed and inconsistent

Answer 944

In outbreaks, unresolving illness, or severe cases

Answer 945

Supportive care and stress reduction

Answer 946

Clinical signs and progression

Answer 947

Environmental management, vaccination, and immune support

Answer 948

Via direct contact

Answer 949

Feline Calicivirus (FCV)

Answer 950

Pre-cleaning: All surfaces contaminated with dirt, organic matter, or bodily fluids should be cleaned with a detergent.

Answer 951

Bleach (5.25% sodium hypochlorite, diluted 1:32)

Answer 952

* Inactivated by organic matter and sunlight * Corrosive and potentially harmful to respiratory mucosa

Answer 953

* Broad-spectrum efficacy (including FCV) * Short contact times * Stability in the presence of organic debris * Lower toxicity and corrosiveness

Answer 954

Minimum 8–12 air exchanges per hour

Answer 955

Many become asymptomatic carriers, especially those infected with FHV-1 or FCV

Answer 956

Lifelong latency in trigeminal ganglia with episodic reactivation

Answer 957

Excellent – Resolution within 7–14 days with supportive care

Answer 958

* Young, geriatric, or immunocompromised status * Involvement of highly pathogenic strains * Comorbidities, poor hygiene, overcrowding, or antibiotic resistance

Answer 959

False ## Footnote Healthy carrier status does not necessitate permanent isolation if managed properly.

Answer 960

Inactivation of FCV, the most environmentally stable FURI pathogen

Answer 961

Most cases resolve with supportive care, and prognosis is typically very good

Answer 962

Emerging viral infections of cats ## Footnote This chapter discusses newly discovered or recently linked viruses that impact feline health.

Answer 963

At least 15 viral families ## Footnote This includes emerging viruses whose impact on feline health is still being investigated.

Answer 964

Modified Koch’s postulates ## Footnote This method has been adapted for modern viral discovery.

Answer 965

Unique communities of viruses that colonize various body surfaces ## Footnote Virome analyses have revealed these communities in normal cats.

Answer 966

They may alter immune function or physiology ## Footnote Under certain conditions, these infections can lead to disease.

Answer 967

2018 in Australia ## Footnote DCH is a member of the Orthohepadnavirus genus.

Answer 968

6.5–12.4% ## Footnote Detected via PCR of whole blood or serum.

Answer 969

Liver disease in cats ## Footnote This includes chronic hepatitis and hepatocellular carcinoma.

Answer 970

Tubulointerstitial nephritis (TIN) ## Footnote FeMV may be a major cause of feline chronic kidney disease (CKD).

Answer 971

High genetic diversity and evidence of recombination among isolates ## Footnote This makes interpretation of findings challenging.

Answer 972

DCH linked to liver disease; FeMV's role in kidney disease is under investigation ## Footnote Ongoing research is crucial for both viruses.

Answer 973

Increased risk of high-grade B-cell lymphoma in FIV-infected cats ## Footnote Similar to links between certain herpesviruses and lymphomas in humans.

Answer 974

6–23% ## Footnote Based on PCR detection.

Answer 975

No, it is not known or suspected to infect humans ## Footnote It is primarily associated with domestic cats.

Answer 976

Controversial; early studies suggested upper respiratory disease ## Footnote No consistent molecular evidence has been found in feline infections.

Answer 977

Staggering disease, a non-suppurative meningoencephalitis ## Footnote First reported in the 1970s.

Answer 978

Up to 20% ## Footnote BDV's role in staggering disease remains uncertain.

Answer 979

~7% ## Footnote Identified in blood, feces, respiratory, and urinary samples from healthy cats.

Answer 980

Diarrhea and respiratory disease (unproven) ## Footnote FBoV is often found alongside multiple other viruses.

Answer 981

Retrovirus in the Spumavirus genus ## Footnote It is extremely common with a seroprevalence exceeding 50% in many feline populations.

Answer 982

Detected in less than 50% of samples from affected cats during an outbreak ## Footnote Prevalence and transmission patterns remain unknown.

Answer 983

May act as a co-pathogen exacerbating disease ## Footnote Its exact role in feline enteric disease needs further investigation.

Answer 984

Complicated by high carrier rates and subclinical infections ## Footnote Multifactorial causation models are needed for understanding disease.

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

(1072 cards)