Neurology Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
What are the main components of a neuron?
A
Cell body, dendrites, axon
2
Q
What generates action potentials in neurons?
A
Axon terminal (hillock)
3
Q
What is the resting membrane potential for neurons?
A
~–65 mV
4
Q
What maintains the resting membrane potential in neurons?
A
Na⁺ (↑ extracellular), K⁺ (↑ intracellular), Cl⁻ (↑ extracellular), organic anions (intracellular and impermeable), Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase
5
Q
What is the role of Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase?
A
Pumps 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in
6
Q
What occurs during depolarization of the action potential?
A
Na⁺ influx results in membrane potential reaching +35–40 mV
7
Q
What is the function of myelination?
A
Enables saltatory conduction at Nodes of Ranvier
8
Q
What are excitatory neurotransmitters?
A
Glutamate, acetylcholine
9
Q
What are inhibitory neurotransmitters?
A
GABA, glycine
10
Q
True or False: EPSPs require spatial/temporal summation for action potential generation.
A
True
11
Q
What are the signs of lower motor neuron (LMN) lesions?
A
↓ tone, reflexes, strength
12
Q
What are the signs of upper motor neuron (UMN) lesions?
A
↑ tone/reflexes, paresis
13
Q
What is proprioception associated with?
A
Spinocerebellar & DCML tracts
14
Q
What is the effect of a T3–L3 lesion on the spinal cord?
A
Mimics LMN signs (e.g., flaccid paresis)
15
Q
What are common pathogens in bacterial CNS infections?
A
- Staphylococcus * Streptococcus * Pasteurella * E. coli * anaerobes
16
Q
What is the most common fungal pathogen causing CNS infections?
A
Cryptococcus
17
Q
What is the characteristic sign of SRMA?
A
Cervical pain, fever, rigidity, reluctance to move
18
Q
What are the clinical signs of narcolepsy?
A
Excessive sleepiness, cataplexy
19
Q
Fill in the blank: A seizure is defined as sudden, abnormal excessive/synchronous _______.
A
neuronal activity
20
Q
What distinguishes idiopathic epilepsy from structural epilepsy?
A
No structural/metabolic cause in idiopathic epilepsy
21
Q
What is the common treatment for seizures?
A
- Phenobarbital * Potassium Bromide
22
Q
What is the purpose of CSF analysis in diagnosing CNS disorders?
A
Identifies inflammatory/infectious causes
23
Q
What is the prognosis for MUO?
A
Guarded to fair, depending on various factors
24
Q
What is the common dose of Levetiracetam for seizure management?
A
20 mg/kg q8h
25
What are the phases of a seizure?
* Prodrome * Aura * Ictus * Postictal Phase
26
What is a common sign of upper motor neuron lesions?
Long-strided/spastic gait
27
What is the clinical significance of the crossed extensor reflex?
Indicates UMN lesions
28
What is a characteristic of focal seizures?
Localized activity, may or may not impair consciousness
29
What system regulates wakefulness and REM sleep?
ocretin/orexin system
## Footnote
This system is crucial for maintaining sleep-wake cycles.
30
What are common clinical signs of narcolepsy in dogs?
Collapse or weakness, often triggered by excitement or eating
## Footnote
Consciousness is usually preserved during episodes.
31
Which breeds are commonly affected by narcolepsy?
Dobermans, Labs, others
## Footnote
Narcolepsy can be hereditary in some breeds.
32
How is narcolepsy diagnosed?
Clinical signs and exclusion of other causes, CSF hypocretin-1 levels, genetic testing in predisposed breeds
## Footnote
CSF hypocretin-1 levels have limited availability.
33
What is the primary treatment approach for narcolepsy?
Focus on reducing episode frequency
## Footnote
There is no cure for narcolepsy.
34
Name two medications used to treat narcolepsy.
Imipramine, Clomipramine
## Footnote
These are tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) used for managing symptoms.
35
What is the prognosis for idiopathic epilepsy?
Can be well-managed with AEDs
## Footnote
Prognosis varies by underlying cause.
36
What are developmental brain anomalies often caused by?
Genetic factors or secondary to in utero insults
## Footnote
Teratogens can also contribute to these anomalies.
37
What imaging techniques are used for diagnosing developmental brain anomalies?
Imaging or postmortem
## Footnote
Diagnosis often requires advanced imaging techniques.
38
What are examples of neural tube defects?
* Anencephaly
* Meningocele
* Meningoencephalocele
## Footnote
These defects result from improper closure of the neural tube.
39
What is hydrocephalus?
Ventricular dilation due to impaired cerebrospinal fluid flow or absorption
## Footnote
It can lead to increased intracranial pressure and other complications.
40
What are the two main types of hydrocephalus?
* Intraventricular
* Extraventricular
## Footnote
Hydrocephalus ex vacuo is secondary to parenchymal atrophy.
41
What breeds are predisposed to hydrocephalus?
Small and brachycephalic dogs
## Footnote
Conditions like Chiari-like malformation can contribute to hydrocephalus.
42
What clinical signs are associated with hydrocephalus?
* Dome-shaped skull
* Visual deficits
* Seizures
* Mentation changes
## Footnote
These signs indicate increased intracranial pressure.
43
What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?
* Medical: corticosteroids, omeprazole, furosemide
* Surgical: CSF shunting
## Footnote
Surgical options carry risks of complications.
44
What defines degenerative brain diseases?
Progressive, usually breed/age-associated
## Footnote
Symptoms can include ataxia, paresis, tremors, and seizures.
45
What are central myelinopathies?
* Hypomyelinogenesis
* Leukodystrophies
* Myelinolysis
* Leukoencephalomyelopathies
* Spongy degeneration
## Footnote
These conditions involve the degeneration of myelin sheaths in the nervous system.
46
What are signs of metabolic encephalopathies?
* Seizures
* Stupor
* Acidosis
* Hypoglycemia
## Footnote
These signs indicate underlying metabolic dysfunction.
47
What are lysosomal storage diseases (LSDs)?
Inherited enzyme deficiencies leading to macromolecule accumulation
## Footnote
They often present with neurological symptoms.
48
What are common causes of sleep-disordered breathing in dogs?
Common in brachycephalic breeds
## Footnote
Signs include snoring and apnea, which may improve with surgery.
49
What is the prevalence of brain tumors in dogs and cats?
~14.5 per 100,000 dogs; ~3.5 per 100,000 cats
## Footnote
Brain tumors can be primary or secondary.
50
What are primary brain tumors (PBTs)?
Tumors that arise within brain tissue, such as glia or meninges
## Footnote
Examples include meningiomas and gliomas.
51
What is the most common type of primary brain tumor in dogs?
Meningioma (~45%)
## Footnote
Gliomas are the second most common type.
52
What are common clinical signs of brain tumors in dogs?
* Seizures
* Altered behavior
* Personality changes
## Footnote
Cats may show more behavioral changes than seizures.
53
What is the best imaging modality for diagnosing brain tumors?
MRI
## Footnote
MRI can provide detailed information about tumor type and characteristics.
54
What is the Modified Glasgow Coma Scale (MGCS) used for?
To evaluate level of consciousness, brainstem reflexes, motor activity
## Footnote
A score >8 indicates a greater than 50% survival chance.
55
What are the main goals of palliative care for brain tumors?
* Manage seizures
* Reduce edema
* Improve quality of life
## Footnote
Palliative care focuses on symptom management rather than curative treatment.
56
What factors influence prognosis for brain tumors?
* Tumor type
* Location
* Chosen treatment
* Patient response
## Footnote
Histopathologic diagnosis is crucial for treatment decisions.
57
What does TBI stand for?
Traumatic Brain Injury
## Footnote
TBI can involve both primary and secondary injuries.
58
What are primary injuries associated with TBI?
* Contusions
* Lacerations
* Hemorrhage
## Footnote
These injuries occur at the time of trauma.
59
What are secondary injuries associated with TBI?
* Inflammation
* Excitotoxicity
* Systemic effects
## Footnote
Secondary injuries develop after the initial trauma.
60
What is the normal range for intracranial pressure (ICP)?
5–12 mmHg
## Footnote
ICP is a critical measure in assessing brain health.
61
What is the Modified Glasgow Coma Scale used to assess?
Level of consciousness
## Footnote
A higher score indicates better neurological function.
62
What is epilepsy?
A brain disorder with an enduring predisposition to unprovoked seizures
## Footnote
Requires at least two unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart.
63
What is idiopathic epilepsy?
The most common type of epilepsy, presumed genetic or functional
## Footnote
Onset typically occurs between 6 months and 6 years of age.
64
What are structural epilepsy causes?
* Neoplasia
* Inflammation
* Infarcts
* Malformations
## Footnote
Structural epilepsy can present with interictal neurologic deficits.
65
What breeds are commonly affected by idiopathic epilepsy?
* Border Collies
* Vizslas
## Footnote
Some breeds have a hereditary basis for epilepsy.
66
What are confirmed monogenic disorders in dogs related to epilepsy?
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Rhodesian Ridgebacks), Benign familial juvenile epilepsy (Lagotto Romagnolo)
## Footnote
These disorders have a known genetic basis.
67
What is the most likely inheritance pattern for epilepsy in dogs?
Polygenic inheritance
## Footnote
This suggests multiple genes contribute to the condition.
68
Which sex is more commonly affected by epilepsy in dogs?
Males
## Footnote
This reflects a potential gender predisposition in canine epilepsy.
69
What neutering effects have been observed in dogs with epilepsy?
Intact dogs → more cluster seizures; neutered before onset → no effect
## Footnote
The impact of neutering on seizure frequency is still under investigation.
70
What are the diagnostic criteria for Tier I epilepsy according to IVETF?
≥2 unprovoked seizures ≥24h apart, age of onset 6 mo–6 yrs, normal interictal neuro exam, unremarkable CBC/chem/bile acids/UA
## Footnote
These criteria help establish a diagnosis of epilepsy.
71
What additional criteria are needed for Tier II diagnosis of epilepsy?
Tier I + normal postprandial bile acids, normal MRI, and normal CSF
## Footnote
This tier requires more comprehensive testing.
72
What defines Tier III diagnostic criteria for epilepsy?
Tier II + EEG abnormalities consistent with epilepsy
## Footnote
EEG findings are crucial for confirming the diagnosis.
73
What is the prevalence of feline epilepsy?
~0.16%
## Footnote
This indicates that epilepsy is less common in cats compared to dogs.
74
What are the two categories of feline epilepsy?
Idiopathic epilepsy (IE) and structural epilepsy
## Footnote
IE is often diagnosed when other causes are ruled out.
75
What are common clinical signs of temporal lobe epilepsy in cats?
Orofacial automatisms: lip-smacking, chewing, salivation
## Footnote
These signs often indicate underlying hippocampal lesions.
76
What is Feline Audiogenic Reflex Seizures (FARS)?
Seizures triggered by sound in older cats; ~50% are deaf
## Footnote
This syndrome highlights a unique trigger for seizures in cats.
77
When should antiseizure drugs be started in dogs and cats?
≥2 seizures within 6 months, cluster seizures or status epilepticus, severe/prolonged postictal signs, worsening seizure frequency or severity
## Footnote
These criteria guide the decision to initiate treatment.
78
What are the common adverse effects of Phenobarbital in dogs?
Sedation, PU/PD, hepatotoxicity
## Footnote
These side effects warrant careful monitoring during treatment.
79
What is the dose of Imepitoin for dogs?
10 mg/kg q12h
## Footnote
This dosage is commonly used in clinical practice.
80
What adverse effects are associated with Levetiracetam in cats?
Hypersalivation, sedation
## Footnote
Understanding side effects helps in managing treatment.
81
What is the contraindication for Bromide use in cats?
Risk of fatal respiratory hypersensitivity
## Footnote
This highlights the need for careful drug selection in feline patients.
82
What defines seizure freedom in monitoring treatment?
No seizures for 3× longest pre-treatment interictal interval, minimum 3 months
## Footnote
This is a key metric for evaluating treatment efficacy.
83
What percentage of patients typically fail first-line ASD therapy?
~30%
## Footnote
This statistic emphasizes the challenge of treatment-resistant epilepsy.
84
What are alternative therapies for drug-resistant epilepsy?
Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) diets, pulse-dose levetiracetam, cannabidiol (CBD), vagal nerve stimulation, transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
## Footnote
These options are explored when standard treatments fail.
85
What is the recommended dose of rectal Diazepam for rescue therapy?
1–2 mg/kg (up to 3 doses in 24h)
## Footnote
This provides a quick response to seizures at home.
86
What is the prognosis for idiopathic epilepsy compared to structural epilepsy?
Better prognosis for idiopathic epilepsy
## Footnote
Understanding prognosis aids in treatment planning.
87
What characterizes vestibular disease?
Head tilt, nystagmus, ataxia
## Footnote
These signs are crucial for diagnosis.
88
What controls balance and posture in vestibular function?
Peripheral components: Inner ear, CN VIII; Central components: Vestibular nuclei, cerebellum, MLF, thalamus, cortex
## Footnote
This highlights the complex neuroanatomy involved.
89
What are shared clinical signs of peripheral and central vestibular disease?
Head tilt, nystagmus, vestibular ataxia, strabismus, nausea/vomiting
## Footnote
Recognizing these signs is essential for diagnosis.
90
What distinguishes central from peripheral vestibular disease in terms of nystagmus?
Central: vertical, variable direction; Peripheral: horizontal or rotary only
## Footnote
This is a key diagnostic feature.
91
What is a common cause of peripheral vestibular disease?
Otitis media/interna
## Footnote
This is the most common etiology.
92
What diagnostic imaging is considered the gold standard for spinal cord assessment?
MRI
## Footnote
MRI is essential for evaluating spinal cord conditions.
93
What is the main treatment principle for traumatic spinal cord injuries?
Cage rest or surgical stabilization
## Footnote
The approach depends on the stability of the injury.
94
What defines fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE)?
Peracute onset, often during activity, lateralized signs
## Footnote
FCE is a common cause of acute spinal cord dysfunction.
95
What are the signs of CN II (Optic Nerve) dysfunction?
Sudden bilateral vision loss, non-responsive mydriatic pupils
## Footnote
These signs indicate possible optic neuritis.
96
What is hematomyelia?
Spinal cord hemorrhage
## Footnote
Rare condition with etiologies including spontaneous events, trauma, coagulopathy, and vasculitis. Treatment varies based on severity.
97
What types of tumors are classified as extradural?
* Vertebral tumors
* Bone tumors
* Osteosarcoma
* Hemangiosarcoma
## Footnote
These tumors are located outside the dura mater.
98
What types of tumors are classified as intradural-extramedullary?
* Meningioma
* Nerve sheath tumor
## Footnote
These tumors grow slowly and are located between the dura mater and the spinal cord.
99
What are the characteristics of intramedullary tumors?
Rare tumors including astrocytoma, ependymoma, nephroblastoma
## Footnote
These tumors arise within the spinal cord itself.
100
What diagnostic tool is most sensitive for detecting neoplastic lesions?
MRI
## Footnote
MRI is the most sensitive diagnostic imaging technique for detecting tumors.
101
What is the prognosis for neoplastic lesions?
Highly variable
## Footnote
Some tumors, like meningiomas, may be surgically curable, while others, such as metastatic hemangiosarcoma, may be terminal at diagnosis.
102
What are common signs of peripheral neuropathies?
* Paresis
* Hypotonia
* Muscle atrophy
* ↓ or absent reflexes
* Sensory ataxia
* Autonomic dysfunction
## Footnote
These signs affect motor, sensory, autonomic, or cranial nerves outside the CNS.
103
What is the minimum database required for the diagnostic approach to peripheral neuropathies?
* CBC
* Chemistry
* UA
* Thyroid panel
## Footnote
Additional screening may include infectious/neoplastic tests and advanced diagnostics.
104
What is a characteristic sign of diabetic neuropathy in cats?
Plantigrade stance
## Footnote
This condition is often accompanied by pelvic limb weakness and is demyelinating in nature.
105
What defines brachial plexus neuritis?
Asymmetric thoracic limb deficits
## Footnote
Diagnosis is typically made via MRI showing nerve enlargement.
106
What is dysautonomia?
Rare, idiopathic neurodegenerative disease affecting autonomic functions
## Footnote
Histologically, it shows chromatolysis in autonomic ganglia.
107
What are classic clinical signs of dysautonomia?
* Vomiting
* Megaesophagus
* Mydriasis
* Mucosal dryness
* Fixed heart rate
## Footnote
These signs indicate dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system.
108
What is the prognosis for dysautonomia?
Guarded
## Footnote
It is not always fatal, but recovery is long and mortality is high.
109
What is a common neurologic condition exclusive to cats?
* Cerebellar hypoplasia
* Feline spongiform encephalopathy
* Feline infectious peritonitis
## Footnote
These conditions exhibit distinct clinical features compared to similar conditions in dogs.
110
What is the treatment for feline infectious peritonitis?
Experimental treatments available
## Footnote
The prognosis is generally poor for this common feline CNS infection.
111
What are the signs of feline spongiform encephalopathy?
* Ataxia
* Tremors
* Hypersalivation
* Behavior changes
## Footnote
This prion disease is uniformly fatal.
112
What is the etiology of feline hippocampal necrosis?
Associated with limbic encephalitis
## Footnote
Presents with seizures and behavioral changes, possibly linked to status epilepticus.
