Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

How and when does HIV seroconversion illness usually present?

A
Is presents 3-12 weeks after contact and presents as a glandular fever type illness- sore throat
lymphadenopathy
malaise, myalgia, arthralgia
diarrhoea
maculopapular rash
mouth ulcers
rarely meningoencephalitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is SIRS?

A

Temp <36 or >38
WBC <4 or >12
HR>90
RR>20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 4 AIDS defining illnesses?

A

Kapozis sarcoma
PCP
Toxoplasmosis
CMV retinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What tests are used to diagnose syphillis?

A

Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) and rapid plasma reagin (RPR) are two blood tests used to diagnose syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the tx for recurrent genital herpes?

A

Daily orla valaciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should a mother who has an outbreak of herpes during pregnancy take up until planned c-section?

A

Oral aciclovir 400mg TDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tetanus information

A

Intramuscular human tetanus immunoglobulin should be given to patients with high-risk wounds (e.g. Compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue) irrespective of whether 5 doses of tetanus vaccine have previously been given

If vaccination history is incomplete or unknown then a dose of tetanus vaccine should be given combined with intramuscular human tetanus immunoglobulin for high-risk wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Post influenza pneumonia tx?

A

As a result the BNF advises the co-prescription of flucloxacillin to the standard antibiotic (amoxicillin) in such a situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhoea in patients with HIV?

A

Cryptosporidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for PCP?

A

Oral co-trimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of toxoplasmosis?

A

A 6 month treatment regimen of sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine should be commenced immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Meningitis contacts

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of meningitis?

A

Intravenous cefotaxime + amoxicillin < 3 months

Everyone else - IV cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Someone who had the hep b vaccine and responded has come into contact with hep b, what should happen?

A

Hep b booster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Someone who had the hep b vaccine and didnt respond (or are in the process of the vaccines) has come into contact with hep b, what should happen?

A

Hep B immune globulin (HBIG) and the vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many doses of tetanus usually confers life long resistance?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Legionnaires disease

A
flu-like symptoms including fever (present in > 95% of patients)
dry cough
relative bradycardia
confusion
lymphopaenia
hyponatraemia
deranged liver function tests
pleural effusion: seen in around 30% of patients
18
Q

What is the commonest cause of traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

E.coli

19
Q

First line tx for falciparum malaria?

A

Iv artesunate

20
Q

Diseases which offer protection from malaria?

A

Sickle cell
G6PD deficiency
HLA-B53
absence of Duffy antigens

21
Q

Most common organism found on central line infections?

A

Staph epidermidis

22
Q

What might you see on a chest x-ray of a HIV patient?

A

pneumatocoeles

23
Q

Tx for legionella disease?

A

Erythromicin

24
Q

Warty rash associated with syphillis?

A

condylomata lata

25
Q

The results of the lumbar puncture show a yeast and a capsule in the CSF stained with India ink.

A

Cryptococcus

26
Q

What causes sub acute sclerosing pan encephalitis?

A

Persistant infection with the measles virus

27
Q

Genital warts mgmt?

A

Multiple, non-keratinised warts: topical podophyllum

solitary, keratinised warts: cryotherapy

28
Q

Rash in lymes disease?

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

29
Q

What are the features of lymes disease?

A

Rash + arthralgia + fever
Heart block + myocarditis
Meningitis + cranial nerve palsies

30
Q

Tx for lymes disease?

A

Doxycycline

31
Q

What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Reaction commonly seen after initiating tx in lymes and syphillis

32
Q

Suppression of MRSA once identified in a patient?

A

Nose: mupirocin 2% in white soft paraffin, tds for 5 days
skin: chlorhexidine gluconate, od for 5 days. Apply all over but particularly to the axilla, groin and perineum

33
Q

Most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

E.coli

34
Q

Incubation periods for diarrhoea?

A

1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli
48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter
> 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis

35
Q

What do you use to treat invasive diarrhoea (ie bloody diarrhoea with fever)?

A

Ciprofloxacin

36
Q

Which types of pneumonia can cause erythema multiforme?

A

Mycoplasma & pneumococcus

37
Q

Abdominal pain, dry cough and hyponatraemia + erythema multiforme?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

38
Q

Strep which causes endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans

39
Q

Strep which causes cellultitis?

A

Strep pyogenes

40
Q

What percentage of patients with hepC become chronically infected?

A

55-85%