Infectious diseases Flashcards

This is hard stuff (94 cards)

1
Q

Hepatitis C walks into a bar and the barman says “we don’t serve your kind here.”

A

directactingantivarals

The Hep. C replies “your not a very good host!”

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2
Q

What strategies can be used when using antibiotics?

A

Empirical

Targeted therapy

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3
Q

What main mechanism do antibiotics act via?

A

Bacteriacidal

Bacteria static

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4
Q

When are antibiotics used empirically?

A

Before antibiotic sensitivity or cultures are back and the patient is at risk.

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5
Q

Pencillin (Betalactam) in an example of what type of antibiotic?

A

Bacteriacidal

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6
Q

Does dose matter with antibiotics?

A

Only with Dose dependent antibiotics: Increase dose to be more effective antibiotics

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7
Q

What are time dependent antibiotics?

A

The effectiveness relies on the antibiotic being in the therapeutic window therefore frequency of the antibiotic is increased rather than the dose

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8
Q

What is an example of a time dependent antibiotic?

A

Penecillin

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9
Q

Some antibiotics also have anti-inflammatory effects. Which?

A

Macrolides

Tetracyclins

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10
Q

35yo female has dysuria , , foul smelling urine, increase frequency, There is no fever or lion pain. What is the diagnosis?

A

simple UTI

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11
Q

What bacteria are responsible for UTIs?

A

Colifrims -originate from the GI tract. E coli, Klebsiella etc.

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12
Q

How can Chemotherapy causes a blood stream infection (BSI) other than immunosuppression?

A

Chemotherapy causes mucocytis which leads bacterial entering blood stream

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13
Q

What are some features of non-fermenter bacteria?

A

Usually opportunistic

Strict aerobes

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14
Q

Which bacteria present with fever?

A

Ebola
Malaria
Dengue

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15
Q

What bacteria are associated with hospital infection?

A

CPE
MRSA
norovirus
Ebola

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16
Q

What factors cause patients to be immunocompromised?

A

Chemotherapy
HIV
Trauma
Burns

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17
Q

Name some infectious disease which cause rashes?

A

Lyme
meningococcal
CMV

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18
Q

What infections can develop from IVDU?

A

Infective Endocarditis
Influenza A
Hep c

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19
Q

What medications are used to treat Hep C?

A

Ribavarin

interferon

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20
Q

What medications are used to trea herpes simplex?

A

Aciclovir

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21
Q

What medications are used to treat HIV?

A

Tenovir

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22
Q

What pathogens can cause splenomegaly?

A

Hep C
EBV
Plasmodium falciparum

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23
Q

What infections can cause abnormal vaginal discharge?

A

Bacterial vaginosis
Chlamydia
Trichomonas
Candida infection

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24
Q

What staining can be used for mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelson staining rather than gram staining

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25
What does cocci mean?
Round
26
Is Staph A gram + or - ?
Gram positive
27
Is E coli gram + or - ?
Gram negative
28
How is travellers diarrhoea treated?
Self limiting Fluids Antibiotics only if there is a positive culture
29
What bacteria cause travellers diarrhoea?
``` Shigella Salmonella Yersinia enterocolitica Campylbacter E coli ```
30
When should a patient with travellers diarrhoea be referred to hospital?
Bacteraemia | Dystentry
31
What post infective complication are there of travellers diarrhoea?
reactive arthritis IBS Guillian-barré syndrome
32
What is the most common causative organism for Guilian-Barré syndrome?
Campylobacter
33
What is onychomycosis?
Fungal infection under toe nails
34
What causes chicken pox?
Primary infection of Varicella zoster virus
35
How does Varicella zoster virus cause shingles?
The virus remains dormant in ganglia and when it is activated spread through the distribution of the dermatome causing a rash
36
What management should be used for a pregnant lady with no history of chickenpox?
Tested for IgG marker for varicella zoster. If negative antibodies for VZV should be given
37
A 35 yo male IVDU presents with 5 day history of leathery and rigors. There is no sexual or travel history. On examination there is a systolic murmur. What is the likely diagnosis?
Infective endocarditis
38
What investigations should be done for infective endocarditis?
CXR - septic emboli TTE Bloods and cultures
39
When would a TOE be done instead of a TTE?
TOE is better but only needed for prosthetic valves or myocardial invasion
40
What criteria is used when suspecting infective endocarditis?
Dukes criteria
41
What investigations should be done for meningitis?
Viral/ bacteria throat swabs Pneumococcal urinary antigen Lumbar puncture Meningoccal PCR
42
When would a CT be done before a lumbar puncture?
Only when a patient has focal neurological deficits, symptoms of raised ICP, History of CNS disease. A CT doesn't exclude raised ICP
43
What investigation could be done with septic arthritis?
Blood cultures | Left knee aspiration
44
What is SIRS?
Systematic inflammatory response syndrome
45
What is the SIRS criteria?
``` SIRS criteria is 2 or more: o 36 > Temp > 38C o HR > 90 o RR > 20 o WCC 12x 10^ (> 10% neutrophils) ```
46
What is the seroconversion timeline for HIV?
4-12 weeks
47
What is procalcitonin?
A liver enzyme which indicates bacterial infection
48
What is the differential diagnosis for pyrexia?
- Infections (TB) - Autoimmune (Sacoidosis) - Malignancy (lymphoma)
49
What is pyrexia of unknown origin definition?
> 3 weeks | Negative 1st line test results
50
What is Jobs syndrome
Autosomal dominant IgE syndrome. An immunodeficiency leading to recurrent infections (pneumonia)
51
What types of penicillin allergy are there
Severe - anaphylaxis | MIld - SE usually rash after few hours
52
Which antibiotics have 10% cross reactivity penicillin?
Cephalosporins
53
What can penicillin treat?
Streptococcus | Neisseria meninngitis
54
What is Amoxacillin used to treat?
Better water solubility | Gram+ve cocci
55
What Abx treat Staph. ?
Flucloxacillin | Co-Amoxiclav
56
What treats pseudomonas?
Penicillin, Beta lacam + inhibitor
57
What do Carbopenamase treat?
Treats ESBL - extended spectrum beta lactamases
58
How do bacteria gain Abs resistance?
- Efflux pumps - Enzymes - Impermeability (Influx pumps) - Change of the Abc target
59
What does Vancomycin target?
Cell wall of the bacteria
60
What Abx target the ribosomes?
- Macrolides - Tetra/Doxy - cyclin - Aminoglycosides
61
What Abx target folate synthesis of the bacteria?
Trimephopren
62
What main categories of Fungi are there?
Molds and yeast
63
Aspergilosis is an example of a mold or an yeasts?
Mold
64
PCP is an example of a mold or yeast?
Yeast
65
What WBC is raised when there is an infection with moulds?
Neutrophils
66
What WBC is raised when there is an infection with yeast?
T cells (lymphocytes)
67
What type of fungal infection is typical with chemotherapy treatment?
Aspergilosis, Neutropenia (+/- sepsis) means mold fungi cannot be fought by the body as well
68
What type of fungal infection is typical with HIV?
PCP, decreased T cells/ lymphocytes mean that yeast fungi cannot be fought of by the body as well
69
Darren has a widespread, itchy, vesicular rash. Breathlessness, low oxygen saturations and tachypnoea. What is the diagnosis?
Chicken pox (varicella zoster)
70
Prodrome of fever, malaise, conjunctivitis and cough. A maculpapular rash start on the face and moves down the body. What is the diagnosis ?
Measles
71
A syndrome of fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Patients are either in infancy and teenage years. What is the diagnosis?
Glandular fever (Infectivious mononucleosis). Caused by EBV or CMV
72
Which parasites can be acquired in the UK?
Giardia Public lice Toxoplasmosis
73
What are neuraminidase inhibitors?
Anti virals for flu, Used for decreasing transmission rather than treatment
74
What is antigenic shift?
Where microorganisms combine to form a strain which changes/combines its surface antigens and is therefore "new" to the body
75
What is antigenic drift?
Accumulation of mutations therefore altering the antigen susceptibility
76
What are the usually symptoms of uncomplicated influenza?
``` Fever Coryzal Headache Malaise Myalgia Arthralgia ```
77
What is complicated influenza?
Influenza infection which requires hospital admission
78
What is a secondary bacterial pneumonia?
Superimposed bacterial infection after influenza. Usually strep. or staph.
79
Who is eligible for the annual influenza vaccination?
``` ALL health care workers Care homes Chronic condition Pregnant < 17 yo >65 yo ```
80
What is the Beta-D-glucan test used for?
Ruling out yeast/fungal infection if negative
81
What is the Galactommannan test used for?
Diagnosing mould infection like aspergillosis.
82
How does candida enter the blood to cause candidaemia?
From the gut when the epithelium is broken like in sepsis or infection
83
How is candidaemia treated?
- Iv antifungals like casporin for 2 weeks after -ve blood cultures - Echo - candida on valves - Replace lines
84
Bacteria which cause diarrhoea?
``` Campylobacter Shigella Salmonela E coli O157 C diff ```
85
What viruses cause Diarrhoea?
Rotavirus Noravirus CMV - specially immunocompromised
86
What interaction happen with HAART?
Look at BNF - omeprazole and ranitidine
87
What does IgM and IgG for Hep A indicate?
IgM shows current or recent infection IgG shows immunity to Hep A
88
What does a Anti-HBs show?
Vaccination or immunity to Hep B
89
What does Anti-HBC show?
Show previous exposer to Hep B
90
What does HBs-Ag show?
That there is an active Hep B infection
91
What does an antibody to Hep C show and what test should be ordered next?
Previous Hep C exposer, PCR will show active infection.
92
What symptoms would an infection with Entamoeba histolytic show?
- Fever, RUQ pain, Rigor | - +ve Travel history ≠ 12 weeks ago
93
What investigation would be done if Liver access was detected?
Ultrasound with an hypoechoic area of the liver. Would need to be drained and antibodies screened of E histolytica
94
What is an indicator illness?
A illness linked to HIV that would therefore prompt HIV testing.