Infectious diseases & dermatology Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Most common form of extra pulmonary TB

A

Lymphatic

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2
Q

Mainstay of treatment for Kawasaki disease

A

Immunoglobulin and aspirin

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3
Q

Criteria for antiviral drugs for flu

A

Start within 48hrs of symptoms
65+ / < 6months / pregnant

or a b/g of….

Asplenism
Immunocompromised
IHD
CKD
Chronic liver disease
Chronic respiratory disease
Chronic neurological condition
Morbid obesity

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3
Q

Infection of unclear cause in a child <3 months, what should be given alongside 3rd gen cef ? and why?

A

Amox for listeria

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4
Q

School exclusion advice for mumps

A

return 5 days after onset of swelling

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5
Q

Treatment of choice for severe Falciparum malaria

A

IV Artesunate

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6
Q

Tx of choice for uncomplicated Falciparum malaria

A

Arteminisin combination therapy

Artemether + lumefantrine

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7
Q

School exclusion for scarlet fever

A

Can go back 24hrs after treatment commenced

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8
Q

What complication of chicken pox are pregnant women especially at risk of ?

A

Pneumonia

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9
Q

Where does the rubella rash typically start

A

Behind the ears

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10
Q

Rubella exclusion period

A

5 days from rash onset

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11
Q

Differentiator between malaria and dengue fever

A

Rash

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12
Q

Treatment for lyme disease, either rash present or +ve serology

2nd line

A

Doxy

Amox (1st line in pregnancy)

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13
Q

Most common cause for bilateral facial palsy

A

Lyme disease

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14
Q

When does gas gangrene develop

A

Deep soil wound

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15
Q

antiviral drug in influenza criteria

A

Present with 48hrs of symptoms and any of the following

Pregnant (up to 2 weeks PP)
65+
<6 MONTHS
Or major chronic conditions

(Zanavir can be started 36hrs after sx in children)

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16
Q

Most commonly used assay tests for HIV

A

p24

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17
Q

Cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

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18
Q

Organism causing chancroid

A

fastidious Gram-negative bacteria Haemophilus ducreyi.

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19
Q

Treatment for chancroid

A

Azithromycin or ceftriaxone

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20
Q

Onchocerciasis

A

Parasitic disease caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus

Transmitted through black flies

Lots of skin reactions, ocular involvement (river blindness)

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21
Q

CD4 count diagnostic of advanced HIV disease

anti-retroviral therapy should be considered

A

<200 mm3

<350 mm3

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22
Q

Tape worm treatment

A

niclosamide or praziquantel

23
Q

Rose spots are seen in?

A

Typhoid, usually on the body

24
Horder’s spots can present as part of what infection?
Psittacosis zoonotic infection caused by Chlamydia psittica Horders spots are found on the face
25
Erythema marginatum
pale red maculopapular rash seen in rheumatic fever
26
Causes of acanthosis nigricans
Malignancy, e.g. gastric carcinoma, lymphoma Acromegaly Cushing’s syndrome Diabetes Mellitus Polycystic ovarian syndrome Obesity
27
Slapped cheek syndrome is also known as (2)
5th disease or erythema infectiosum
28
Slapped cheek syndrome is caused by?
Parovirus B19
29
Erythroderma definition
erythema affecting more than 90% of the body surface
30
Exfoliative erythroderma is also known as Defined by
Red man syndrome Erythema affecting more than 90% of the body surface + exfoliation
31
Most common underlying cause for exfoliative erythroderma
Atopic dermatitis
32
Infected eczema first line abx Pen allergic
Flucloxacillin Erythromycin
33
Pemphigus vulgaris vs Bullous pemphigoid Nikolsky sign
Middle aged vs elderly Flaccid lesions vs tense Fluids vs haemorrhagic blisters Oral involvement common vs rare Puritis rare vs common Positive vs negative
34
Skin biopsy in Pemphigus vulgaris
Intra-epidermal deposition of IgG between cells throughout the epidermis
35
Skin biopsy in Bullous pemphigoid
A band of IgG and/or C3 at the dermo-epidermal junction
36
Antiviral treatment in chicken pox, what is the indications?
In immunocompromised patients and those at special risk (e.g. because of severe cardiovascular or respiratory disease or chronic skin disorder);
37
Erysipelas is an infection of the superficial epidermis, most frequently caused by
Strep pyogenes
38
Acne conglobata =
very severe form of acne where acne nodules track together and form sinuses
39
Acne fulminans =
sudden severe inflammatory reaction that precipitates deep ulcerations and erosions, sometimes with systemic effects
40
Pork tape worm species Beef tapeworm
Taenia solium Taenia saginata
41
Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment for malaria is suggestive of
Blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
42
Malaria is usually diagnosed using the...
Indirect Fluorescence Antibody Test (IFAT).
43
The benign malarias are: And usually treated with...
P.vivax, P. malariae and P.ovale Chloroquine A course of primaquine is also required in P.vivax and P.ovale infection.
44
Notifiable disease, time frame to notify Urgent Non urgent
24hrs 72hrs
45
The median incubation period from HIV infection until the development of advanced HIV disease
10yrs
46
Needlestick injury The risk of contracting Hepatitis C from a Hepatitis C positive source patient is The risk of contracting HIV from an HIV positive source patient
3-10% 0.2-0.5%
47
In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by
Neisseria meningitidis group B
48
Cysticercosis
An infection caused by the larvae of the parasite Taenia solium Whereby larval cysts infiltrate and disseminate throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain.
49
Differentiate dengue fever vs malaria
Rash
50
Cutaneous vasculitis
51
Hereditary angioedema is caused by
deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor
52
Appropriate test for whooping cough in patients of all ages with cough <2 weeks
Nasopharangeal swab / aspirate
53
Appropriate test for whooping cough in patients of all ages with cough <3 weeks
PCR testing for pertussis toxcin (nasopharyngeal or throat swab).
54
Appropriate test for whooping cough in with cough >2 weeks: 17+ 5-16 y/o
Antipertussis toxin IgG (serum) Antipertussis toxin IgG (oral fluid)