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Flashcards in Information Security Guidelines and Risk Managerment Deck (44):
2

When seeking to hire new employees, what is the first step?
A) Create a job description.
B) Set position classification.
C) Screen candidates.
D) Request resumes.

Create a job description.

The first step in hiring new employees is to create a job description. Without a job description, there is no consensus on what type of individual needs to be found and hired.

3

Which of the following describes the freedom from being observed, monitored, or examined without consent or knowledge?
A) Integrity
B) Privacy
C) Authentication
D) Accountability

Privacy

One definition of privacy is freedom from being observed, monitored, or examined without consent or knowledge.

4

Which of the following is typically not a characteristic considered when classifying data?
A) Value
B) Size of object
C) Useful lifetime
D) National security implications

Size of object

Size is not a criterion for establishing data classification. When classifying an object, you should take value, lifetime, and security implications into consideration.

5

Which of the following would generally not be considered an asset in a risk analysis?
A) A development process
B) An IT infrastructure
C) A proprietary system resource
D) Users' personal files

Users' personal files

The personal files of users are not usually considered assets of the organization and thus are not considered in a risk analysis.

6

You've performed a basic quantitative risk analysis on a specific threat/vulnerability/risk relation. You select a possible countermeasure. When performing the calculations again, which of the following factors will change?
A) Exposure factor
B) Single loss expectancy
C) Asset value
D) Annualized rate of occurrence

Annualized rate of occurrence

A countermeasure directly affects the annualized rate of occurrence, primarily because the countermeasure is designed to prevent the occurrence of the risk, thus reducing its frequency per year.

7

What ensures that the subject of an activity or event cannot deny that the event occurred?
A) CIA Triad
B) Abstraction
C) Nonrepudiation
D) Hash totals

Nonrepudiation

Nonrepudiation ensures that the subject of an activity or event cannot deny that the event occurred.

8

What are the two common data classification schemes?
A) Military and private sector
B) Personal and government
C) Private sector and unrestricted sector
D) Classified and unclassified

Military and private sector

Military (or government) and private sector (or commercial business) are the two common data classification schemes.

9

A data custodian is responsible for securing resources after ___________ has assigned the resource a security label.
A) Senior management
B) Data owner
C) Auditor
D) Security staff

Data owner

The data owner must first assign a security label to a resource before the data custodian can secure the resource appropriately.

10

Which of the following is not specifically or directly related to managing the security function of an organization?
A) Worker job satisfaction
B) Metrics
C) Information security strategies
D) Budget

Worker job satisfaction

Managing the security function often includes assessment of budget, metrics, resources, information security strategies, and assessing the completeness and effectiveness of the security program.

11

The CIA Triad comprises what elements?
A) Contiguousness, interoperable, arranged
B) Authentication, authorization, accountability
C) Capable, available, integral
D) Availability, confidentiality, integrity

Availability, confidentiality, integrity

The components of the CIA Triad are confidentiality, availability, and integrity.

12

Which of the following is a primary purpose of an exit interview?
A) To return the exiting employee's personal belongings
B) To review the nondisclosure agreement
C) To evaluate the exiting employee's performance
D) To cancel the exiting employee's network access accounts

To review the nondisclosure agreement

The primary purpose of an exit interview is to review the nondisclosure agreement (NDA) and other liabilities and restrictions placed on the former employee based on the employment agreement and any other security-related documentation.

13

Which of the following is not a valid definition for risk?
A) An assessment of probability, possibility, or chance
B) Anything that removes a vulnerability or protects against one or more specific threats
C) Risk = threat * vulnerability
D) Every instance of exposure

Anything that removes a vulnerability or protects against one or more specific threats

Anything that removes a vulnerability or protects against one or more specific threats is considered a safeguard or a countermeasure, not a risk.

14

When a safeguard or a countermeasure is not present or is not sufficient, what remains?
A) Vulnerability
B) Exposure
C) Risk
D) Penetration

Vulnerability

A vulnerability is the absence or weakness of a safeguard or countermeasure.

15

What security control is directly focused on preventing collusion?
A) Principle of least privilege
B) Job descriptions
C) Separation of duties
D) Qualitative risk analysis

Separation of duties

The likelihood that a co-worker will be willing to collaborate on an illegal or abusive scheme is reduced because of the higher risk of detection created by the combination of separation of duties, restricted job responsibilities, and job rotation.

16

Data classifications are used to focus security controls over all but which of the following?
A) Storage
B) Processing
C) Layering
D) Transfer

Layering

Layering is a core aspect of security mechanisms, but it is not a focus of data classifications.

17

When an employee is to be terminated, which of the following should be done?
A) Inform the employee a few hours before they are officially terminated.
B) Disable the employee's network access just as they are informed of the termination.
C) Send out a broadcast email informing everyone that a specific employee is to be terminated.
D) Wait until you and the employee are the only people remaining in the building before announcing the termination.

Disable the employee's network access just as they are informed of the termination.

You should remove or disable the employee's network user account immediately before or at the same time they are informed of their termination.

18

Which of the following represents accidental or intentional exploitations of vulnerabilities?
A) Threat events
B) Risks
C) Threat agents
D) Breaches

Threat events

Threat events are accidental or intentional exploitations of vulnerabilities.

19

How is single loss expectancy (SLE) calculated?
A) Threat + vulnerability
B) Asset value ($) * exposure factor
C) Annualized rate of occurrence * vulnerability
D) Annualized rate of occurrence * asset value * exposure factor

Asset value ($) * exposure factor

SLE is calculated using the formula SLE = asset value ($) * exposure factor (SLE = AV * EF).

20

Which of the following is not true?
A) Violations of confidentiality include human error.
B) Violations of confidentiality include management oversight.
C) Violations of confidentiality are limited to direct intentional attacks.
D) Violations of confidentiality can occur when a transmission is not properly encrypted.

Violations of confidentiality are limited to direct intentional attacks.

Violations of confidentiality are not limited to direct intentional attacks. Many instances of unauthorized disclosure of sensitive or confidential information are due to human error, oversight, or ineptitude.

21

What element of data categorization management can override all other forms of access control?
A) Classification
B) Physical access
C) Custodian responsibilities
D) Taking ownership

Taking ownership

Ownership grants an entity full capabilities and privileges over the object they own. The ability to take ownership is often granted to the most powerful accounts in an operating system because it can be used to overstep any access control limitations otherwise implemented.

22

Confidentiality is dependent upon which of the following?
A) Accountability
B) Availability
C) Nonrepudiation
D) Integrity

Integrity

Without integrity, confidentiality cannot be maintained.

23

Which of the following is a principle of the CIA Triad that means authorized subjects are granted timely and uninterrupted access to objects?
A) Identification
B) Availability
C) Encryption
D) Layering

Availability

Availability means that authorized subjects are granted timely and uninterrupted access to objects.

24

Which of the following is the lowest military data classification for classified data?
A) Sensitive
B) Secret
C) Sensitive but unclassified
D) Private

Secret

Of the options listed, secret is the lowest classified military data classification. Keep in mind that items labeled as confidential, secret, and top secret are collectively known as classified, and confidential is below secret in the list.

25

A portion of the ____________ is the logical and practical investigation of business processes and organizational policies. This process/policy review ensures that the stated and implemented business tasks, systems, and methodologies are practical, efficient, cost-effective, but most of all (at least in relation to security governance) that they support security through the reduction of vulnerabilities and the avoidance, reduction, or mitigation of risk.
A) Hybrid assessment
B) Risk aversion process
C) Countermeasure selection
D) Documentation review

Documentation review

A portion of the documentation review is the logical and practical investigation of business processes and organizational policies.

26

When evaluating safeguards, what is the rule that should be followed in most cases?
A) The expected annual cost of asset loss should not exceed the annual costs of safeguards.
B) The annual costs of safeguards should equal the value of the asset.
C) The annual costs of safeguards should not exceed the expected annual cost of asset loss.
D) The annual costs of safeguards should not exceed 10 percent of the security budget.

The annual costs of safeguards should not exceed the expected annual cost of asset loss.

The annual costs of safeguards should not exceed the expected annual cost of asset loss.

27

Which of the following is not considered a violation of confidentiality?
A) Stealing passwords
B) Eavesdropping
C) Hardware destruction
D) Social engineering

Hardware destruction

Hardware destruction is a violation of availability and possibly integrity. Violations of confidentiality include capturing network traffic, stealing password files, social engineering, port scanning, shoulder surfing, eavesdropping, and sniffing.

28

Which of the following is not considered an example of data hiding?
A) Preventing an authorized reader of an object from deleting that object
B) Keeping a database from being accessed by unauthorized visitors
C) Restricting a subject at a lower classification level from accessing data at a higher classification level
D) Preventing an application from accessing hardware directly

Preventing an authorized reader of an object from deleting that object

Preventing an authorized reader of an object from deleting that object is just an example of access control, not data hiding. If you can read an object, it is not hidden from you.

29

Which of the following is the most important and distinctive concept in relation to layered security?
A) Multiple
B) Series
C) Parallel
D) Filter

Series

Layering is the deployment of multiple security mechanisms in a series. When security restrictions are performed in a series, they are performed one after the other in a linear fashion. Therefore, a single failure of a security control does not render the entire solution ineffective.

30

If an organization contracts with outside entities to provide key business functions or services, such as account or technical support, what is the process called that is used to ensure that these entities support sufficient security?
A) Asset identification
B) Third-party governance
C) Exit interview
D) Qualitative analysis

Third-party governance

Third-party governance is the application of security oversight on third parties that your organization relies upon.

31

Which of the following is the weakest element in any security solution?
A) Software products
B) Internet connections
C) Security policies
D) Humans

Humans

Regardless of the specifics of a security solution, humans are the weakest element.

32

Which of the following contains the primary goals and objectives of security?
A) A network's border perimeter
B) The CIA Triad
C) A stand-alone system
D) The Internet

The CIA Triad

The primary goals and objectives of security are confidentiality, integrity, and availability, commonly referred to as the CIA Triad.

33

What process or event is typically hosted by an organization and is targeted to groups of employees with similar job functions?
A) Education
B) Awareness
C) Training
D) Termination

Training

Training is teaching employees to perform their work tasks and to comply with the security policy. Training is typically hosted by an organization and is targeted to groups of employees with similar job functions.

34

While performing a risk analysis, you identify a threat of fire and a vulnerability because there are no fire extinguishers. Based on this information, which of the following is a possible risk?
A) Virus infection
B) Damage to equipment
C) System malfunction
D) Unauthorized access to confidential information

Damage to equipment

The threat of a fire and the vulnerability of a lack of fire extinguishers lead to the risk of damage to equipment.

35

Vulnerabilities and risks are evaluated based on their threats against which of the following?
A) One or more of the CIA Triad principles
B) Data usefulness
C) Due care
D) Extent of liability

One or more of the CIA Triad principles

Vulnerabilities and risks are evaluated based on their threats against one or more of the CIA Triad principles.

36

Which of the following statements is not true?
A) IT security can provide protection only against logical or technical attacks.
B) The process by which the goals of risk management are achieved is known as risk analysis.
C) Risks to an IT infrastructure are all computer based.
D) An asset is anything used in a business process or task.

Risks to an IT infrastructure are all computer based.

Risks to an IT infrastructure are not all computer based. In fact, many risks come from noncomputer sources. It is important to consider all possible risks when performing risk evaluation for an organization. Failing to properly evaluate and respond to all forms of risk, a company remains vulnerable.

37

All but which of the following items require awareness for all individuals affected?
A) Restricting personal email
B) Recording phone conversations
C) Gathering information about surfing habits
D) The backup mechanism used to retain email messages

The backup mechanism used to retain email messages

Users should be aware that email messages are retained, but the backup mechanism used to perform this operation does not need to be disclosed to them.

38

If a security mechanism offers availability, then it offers a high level of assurance that authorized subjects can _________ the data, objects, and resources.
A) Control
B) Audit
C) Access
D) Repudiate

Access

Accessibility of data, objects, and resources is the goal of availability. If a security mechanism offers availability, then it is highly likely that the data, objects, and resources are accessible to authorized subjects.

39

Which of the following is not a defense against collusion?
A) Separation of duties
B) Restricted job responsibilities
C) Group user accounts
D) Job rotation

Group user accounts

Group user accounts allow for multiple people to log in under a single user account. This allows collusion because it prevents individual accountability.

40

Which of the following is not an element of the risk analysis process?
A) Analyzing an environment for risks
B) Creating a cost/benefit report for safeguards to present to upper management
C) Selecting appropriate safeguards and implementing them
D) Evaluating each threat event as to its likelihood of occurring and cost of the resulting damage

Selecting appropriate safeguards and implementing them

Risk analysis includes analyzing an environment for risks, evaluating each threat event as to its likelihood of occurring and the cost of the damage it would cause, assessing the cost of various countermeasures for each risk, and creating a cost/benefit report for safeguards to present to upper management. Selecting safeguards is a task of upper management based on the results of risk analysis. It is a task that falls under risk management, but it is not part of the risk analysis process.

41

Which commercial business/private sector data classification is used to control information about individuals within an organization?
A) Confidential
B) Private
C) Sensitive
D) Proprietary

Private

The commercial business/private sector data classification of private is used to protect information about individuals.

42

What is the primary goal of change management?
A) Maintaining documentation
B) Keeping users informed of changes
C) Allowing rollback of failed changes
D) Preventing security compromises

Preventing security compromises

The prevention of security compromises is the primary goal of change management.

43

What is the primary objective of data classification schemes?
A) To control access to objects for authorized subjects
B) To formalize and stratify the process of securing data based on assigned labels of importance and sensitivity
C) To establish a transaction trail for auditing accountability
D) To manipulate access controls to provide for the most efficient means to grant or restrict functionality

To formalize and stratify the process of securing data based on assigned labels of importance and sensitivity

The primary objective of data classification schemes is to formalize and stratify the process of securing data based on assigned labels of importance and sensitivity.

44

How is the value of a safeguard to a company calculated?
A) ALE before safeguard - ALE after implementing the safeguard - annual cost of safeguard
B) ALE before safeguard * ARO of safeguard
C) ALE after implementing safeguard - annual cost of safeguard - controls gap
D) Total risk - controls gap

ALE before safeguard - ALE after implementing the safeguard - annual cost of safeguard

The value of a safeguard to an organization is calculated by ALE before safeguard - ALE after implementing the safeguard - annual cost of safeguard [(ALE1 -- ALE2) - ACS].

45

Which of the following is not a required component in the support of accountability?
A) Auditing
B) Privacy
C) Authentication
D) Authorization

Privacy

Privacy is not necessary to provide accountability.