Information Technology (M41) Flashcards

1
Q

This processes data and transactions to provide users with the information they need to plan, control, and operate an organization

A

An Information System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F

Overall, manual accounting systems have been replaced by computerized accounting information systems

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

These are designed to improve productivity by supporting daily work of employees (Word, Excel, Email, etc.)

A

Office Automation Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This involves the daily processing of transactions (payroll recording, cash receipts, cash disbursements)

A

Transaction Processing Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This is designed to help with the decision-making process by providing access to computer data

A

Management Reporting Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This is an example of a management reporting system that is designed to provide past, present, and future information for planning, organization, and controlling the operations of the organization

A

Management Information Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This is an example of a management reporting system that is computer-based and combines models and data to resolve non-structured problems with extensive user involvement

A

Decision Support Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This is an example of a management reporting system that is computer-based and applies reasoning methods to data in a specific relatively structured area to render advice or recommendations

A

Expert Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This is an example of a management reporting system is a computerized system that is specifically designed to support executive work

A

Executive Information Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the phases in a Systems Development Lifecycle (SDLC)

(7 Phases - PADDTIM)

A

1) Planning
2) Analysis
3) Design
4) Development
5) Testing
6) Implementation
7) Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This is a type of testing under the testing phase (in a systems development lifecycle) that involves testing the pieces of code

A

Unit Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is a type of testing under the testing phase (in a systems development lifecycle) that involves testing of the integration of the units/pieces of code into a system

A

System Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This is a type of testing under the testing phase (in a systems development lifecycle) involves testing where the separate systems can work together

A

Integration Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This is a type of testing under the testing phase (in a systems development lifecycle) which determines whether the system meets the business requirements and enables users to perform their jobs efficiently and effectively

A

User Acceptance Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This is a type of implementation under the implementation phase (in a systems development lifecycle) that uses two systems (old and new) until it is determined that the new system is operating properly

A

Parallel Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This is a type of implementation under the implementation phase (in a systems development lifecycle) that ceases the old system and begins using the new system immediately

A

Plunge Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This is a type of implementation under the implementation phase (in a systems development lifecycle) that involves having a small group of individuals using the new system until it is seen to be working properly

A

Pilot Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is a type of implementation under the implementation phase (in a systems development lifecycle) that involves installing the system in a series of waves

A

Phased Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The advantage of this implementation is that there is less risk of system disaster

A

Parallel Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The disadvantage of this implementation is the additional work and cost during the implementation period

A

Parallel Implementation

It is VERY expensive to keep both systems running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The advantage of this implementation system is that it isn’t very costly

A

Plunge Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The disadvantage of this implementation system is that it has high risk of system disaster

A

Plunge Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The advantage of this implementation system is that it provides a partial operational test of the new system at a lower cost

A

Pilot Implementation

The costs are much lower than the Parallel Implementation where both systems are being used across the board.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In which phase of the SDLC would the activity of identifying the problem(s) that need to be solved most likely occur?

A

Planning Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List the 5 types of computers in order of largest/highest power to smallest/lowest power

A

1) Supercomputers
2) Mainframe Computers
3) Servers
4) Microcomputers (desktops/laptops)
5) Tablets/Smart Phones/PDAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are 4 categories of hardware?

A

1) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
2) Secondary Storage
3) Input Devices
4) Output Devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the slowest & therefore cheapest form of secondary storage hardware, which is used primarily for archiving purposes

A

Magnetic Tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of secondary storage hardware is similar to a USB drive?

A

Solid State Drives (SSDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of secondary storage hardware is also known as “Storage as a Service” (SaaS), hosted offsite, and is accessed via the internet?

A

Cloud-Based Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most common secondary storage hardware medium used today?

A

Magnetic Disks (hard drives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between Digital & Analog?

A

Digital is read in binary (0s & 1s)

Analog is read using electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, or pneumatic devices to transmit the fluctuations in a signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of secondary storage device requires no moving parts for read/write operations?

A

Solid State Drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Another term for cloud-based storage is

A

Storage-as-a-Service (SaaS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This is a program that controls the display for a user (usually on a computer monitor that allows the user to interact with the system

A

a Input Interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

This uses icons, pictures, and menus instead of text for inputs (classic example: Windows)

A

Graphical User Interface (GUI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

These are documents that are sent to the customer and returned as inputs

A

Turnaround Documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a classic example of a turnaround document?

A

a Remittance Advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A good example of a point-of-sale recorder is…

A

A cash register

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F

Point of Sale Recorders are generally wireless

A

FALSE

They usually have a wire connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a good example of a Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)

A

A toll road that reads the toll card in a person’s card and charges it as they drive by

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F

RFID is a wireless input device that is used for inventory control and similar to bar-codes technology but does not require line-of sight access

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 4 common output devices?

A

1) Monitors
2) Printers
3) Plotters
4) Computer Output to Microfilm or Microfiche (COM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the most common output device?

A

Monitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This is a systems software that manages the input, output, processing, and storage devices and operations of a computer

A

an Operating System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This is a systems software that handles common file, data manipulation, and other “housekeeping” tasks

A

Utility Programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This is a systems software that controls and supports transmission between computers, computers and monitors, and accesses various databases

A

Communications Software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the difference between a low-end and high-end application software?

A

Low-End is all in one package, designed for small organizations.

High-End is ordinarily in Modules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This is an applications software that is designed as a relatively complete information system

A

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the difference between multiprocessing and multitasking?

A

Multiprocessing is the simultaneous execution of two or more tasks, usually by two or more CPUs that are part o the same system

Multitasking is the simultaneous processing of several jobs on one computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

List the programming languages in order of 1st generation to 5th generation

A

1) Machine Language (Binary)
2) Assembly Language
3) “High-Level” Programming language
4) “Application-Specific Languages”
5) Visual or Graphical Interfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are examples of a high-level, 3rd generation programming language?

A

COBOL, C++, Java

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

This is a review of a program by a programmer for errors before the program is run and debugged on the computer

A

Desk Checking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This finds and eliminates errors in a computer program.

A

Debug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This is a set of program instructions performed repetitively a predetermined number of times, or until all of a particular type of data has been processed

A

Loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This is a listing of the contents of storage

A

Memory Dump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

This is a section of coding inserted into a program to correct a mistake or to alter a routine

A

Patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This is a complete cycle of a program including put, processing, and output

A

Run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a big pro for batch processing as opposed to online real-time processing

A

a Batch leaves a relatively easy-to-follow audit trail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F

Misstatements in a batch computer system caused by incorrect programs or data may not be detected immediately because the processing of transactions in a batch system is not uniform

A

FALSE

The processing of transactions in a batch system usually IS uniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T/F

Misstatements in a batch computer system caused by incorrect programs or data may not be detected immediately because there are time delays in processing transactions in a batch system

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

T/F

The posting of a transaction as it occurs, to several files, without intermediate printouts, is a characteristic of a batch processed computer system

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

T/F

The production of numerous printouts is a characteristic of a batch processed computer system

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

T/F

The keypunching of transactions, following by machine processing is a characteristic of a batch processed computer system

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

T/F

The collection of like transactions which are sorted and processed sequentially against a master file is a characteristic of a batch processed computer system

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

This is a subject-oriented, integrated collection of data used to support management decision making processes

A

Data warehouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the difference between a data warehouse and a data mart?

A

a Data Mart is a data warehouse that is limited in scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

he online analytical processing term that represents a combination of systems that help aggregate, access, and analyze business data and assist in the business decision-making process is

A

Business Intelligence

68
Q

This uses sophisticated techniques from statistics, artificial intelligence and computer graphics to explain, confirm, and explore relationships among data which is stored in a data warehouse or data mart

A

Data Mining

69
Q

Processing can be ______, _____, or _______

A

Centralized
Decentralized
Distributed

70
Q

What is the difference between a Bit and a Byte

A

Bit - a binary digit (0 or 1)

Byte - A group of adjacent bits (usually 8)

71
Q

This is the smallest storage unit in a computer

A

Bit

72
Q

This is a group of related characters (Example, SSN)

A

Field

73
Q

This is an ordered set of logically related fields (for example, a payroll file for one employee)

A

Record

74
Q

This is a group of related records (for example, all weekly pay records YTD)

A

File

75
Q

A group of related records in a relational database with a unique identifier in each record

A

Table

76
Q

This is a group of related files or a group of related tables

A

Database

77
Q

This type of system focuses upon data processing needs of individual departments. Each application program or system is developed to meet the needs of the particular requesting department or user group

A

Traditional File Processing Systems

78
Q

This is computer hardware and software that enables the databases to be implemented

A

Database System

79
Q

This is software that provides a facility for communications between various applications programs and the database

A

Database Management System

80
Q

This concept separates the data from the related application programs

A

Data Independence

81
Q

This is the process of identifying and organizing a database’s data, both logically and physically

A

Data Modeling

82
Q

This is the field that makes a record in a relational database table unique

A

Primary Key

83
Q

This is the field that is common to two or more related tables in a relational database

A

Foreign Key

84
Q

This is a data model designed for use in designing accounting information databases

A

REA Data Model

85
Q

What does REA stand for in the REA data model?

A

R - Resources
E - Events
A - Agents

86
Q

These are identifiable objects that have economic value

A

Resources

87
Q

These are an organization’s business activities

A

Events

88
Q

These are people or organizations about which data is collected

A

Agents

89
Q

What are the three methods of backup and recovery?

A

1) Backup of Database & Logs of Transactions
2) Database Replication
3) Backup Facility

90
Q

This is a computer network that is centered around an individual and the personal communication devises they use

A

Personal Area Networks (PANs)

91
Q

This is a privately owned network within a single building or campus of up to a few miles in size

A

Local Area Networks (LANs)

92
Q

This is a larger version of a LAN. It might include a group of nearby offices within a city

A

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

93
Q

These are networks that span a large geographical area, often a country or continent.

A

Wide Area Networks (WAN)

94
Q

These are languges used to create and format documents, link documents to other web pages, and to communicate between web browsers

A

HTML - Hypertext Markup Language

XML - Extensible Markup Language

95
Q

_____ is increasingly replacing _____ in internet applications due to its superior ability to tag and format documents that are communicated among trading partners

A

XML

HTML

96
Q

SQL is used to ____

A

Query a Database

97
Q

Internetwork communication requires the use of a common set of rules, ____, and _____

A

Protocols (TCP)

Shared Routing Systems (IP)

98
Q

This is the primary internet protocol for data communication on the World Wide Web

A

HTTP - Hypertext Transfer Protocol

99
Q

This is a standard for finding a document on the internet

A

URL - Uniform Resource Locator

100
Q

A framework for acessing linked resources

A

WWW - World Wide Web

101
Q

This provides the user with the ability to locate and display web resources. Examples include Firefox, Chrome, & Internet Explorer

A

Web Browser

102
Q

This is an XML application that facilitates the sharing and syndication of web content, by subscriptio

A

RSS (Really Simple Syndication)/Atom Feeds

103
Q

This is a web page diary or bulletin board

A

Blog

104
Q

What does Wiki stand for?

A

What I Know Is

105
Q

This is a micro variation of a blog

A

Twitter

106
Q

This is a number that identifies a machine as unique on the internet

A

IP Address

107
Q

This is an entity that provides access to the internet

A

ISP - Internet Service Provider

108
Q

This basic communication language or protocol of the internet has two layers

A

TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol)

109
Q

What is the higher layer in TCP/IP?

A

The higher layer assembles messages or files into smaller packets that are transmitted over the internet

110
Q

What is the lower layer in TCP/IP?

A

The lower layer assigns IP addresses and insures that messages are delivered to the appropriate computer

111
Q

This is a malicious, security-breaking program that is disguised as something benign, such as a game, but is actually intended to cause IT damage

A

Trojan Hourse

112
Q

This is a program that propagates itself over a network, reproducing itself as it goes

A

Worm

113
Q

This states that the end user is responsible for the development and execution of the computer application that generates the information used y that same end user

A

End-User Computing (EUC)

114
Q

This is the conversion of data into a form called a cipher text, that cannot be easily understood by unauthorized people

A

Encryption

115
Q

This is the process of convertng encrypted data ack into its original form so it can be understood. The conversion is performed using an algorithm and key which only the users control

A

Decryption

116
Q

This is a detailed sequence of actions to perform to accomplish some task

A

Algorithm

117
Q

In the content of encryption, a value that must be fed into the algorithm used to decode an encrypted message in order to reproduce the original plain text

A

Key

118
Q

This is an encryption system in which both the sender and receiver have access to the electronic key but do not allow others access

A

Private Key System

119
Q

What is the primary disadvantage for a private key system?

A

Both parties must have the key

120
Q

T/F

The use of message encryption software reduces the need for periodic password changes

A

FALSE

121
Q

T/F

The use of message encryption software increases system overhead

A

TRUE

122
Q

T/F

The use of message encryption software requires manual distribution of keys

A

FALSE

This process can be automated

123
Q

T/F

The use of message encryption software guarantees the secrecy of data

A

FALSE

NOTHING guarantees the secrecy of anything

124
Q

Controls must exist over the origin, proper submission, and proper delivery of EDI communications.

A

Autentication

125
Q

This is a block of data that is transmitted from one computer to another. It contains data and authentication information.

A

Packet

126
Q

This is the electronic exchange of business transactions, in a standard format, from one entity’s computer to another entity’s computer through an electronic communications network

A

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

127
Q

T/F

Increased reliance upon third parties is considered an exposure involved with EDI systems as compared to other systems

A

TRUE

128
Q

T/F

Possible loss of confidentiality of information is considered an exposure involved with EDI systems as compared to other systems

A

TRUE

129
Q

T/F

Delayed transaction processing time is considered an exposure involved with EDI systems as compared to other systems

A

FALSE

130
Q

T/F

Increased reliance upon computer systems is considered an exposure involved with EDI systems as compared to other systems

A

TRUE

131
Q

_______ is a framework to assist enterprises in achieving their objectives for governance and management of enterprise IT

A

COBIT - Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology

132
Q

Who developed COBIT?

A

ISACA - Information Systems Audit & Control Association

133
Q

What is the current version of COBIT?

A

COBIT 5

134
Q

What are the 5 principles of COBIT 5? (MCAES)

A

1) Meeting stakeholder needs
2) Covering the enterprise end-to-end
3) Applying a single integrated framework
4) Enabling a holistic approach
5) Separating governance from management

135
Q

These factors individually and collectively influence whether something will work in an organization

A

COBIT Enablers

136
Q

What are the 7 COBIT Enablers? (POCPISP)

A

1) Processes
2) Organizational Structures
3) Culture/ethics
4) Principles & Policies
5) Information
6) Services
7) People’s skills

137
Q

What are the five principles of a reliable Trust System?

A

1) Security
2) Availability
3) Processing Integrity
4) Online Privacy
5) Confidentiality

138
Q

This means that the system is protected against unauthorized use, both physical and logical

A

Security

139
Q

This means that the system is available for operation and use as committed or agreed. The system is available for operation and use in conformity with the entity’s availability policies

A

Availability

140
Q

This means that system processing is complete, accurate, timely, and authorized

A

Processing Integrity

141
Q

This means that personal information obtained as a result of e-commerce is collected, used, disclosed, and retained as committed or agreed

A

Online Privacy

142
Q

This means that information designated as private is protected as committed or agree

A

Confidentiality

143
Q

T/F

Internal control is ineffective when computer department personnel provide physical security for program files

A

FALSE

144
Q

T/F

Internal control is ineffective when computer department personnel originate changes in master files

A

TRUE

Only a user should be able to change master files

145
Q

T/F

Internal control is ineffective when computer department personnel design documentation for computerized systems

A

FALSE

146
Q

T/F

Internal control is ineffective when computer department personnel participate in computer software acquisition decisions

A

FALSE

147
Q

What are the five steps in the system development life cycle?

A

1) Software Concept
2) Requirements Analysis
3) Architectural Design
4) Coding & Debugging
5) System Testing

148
Q

This person is responsible for maintaining the database and restricting access to the database to authorized personel

A

Database Administration

149
Q

This person is responsible for the daily computer operations of both the hardware and the software

A

Data Operator

150
Q

This person is responsible for custody of the removable media and for the maintenance of program and system documentation

A

Data Librarian

151
Q

For the CPA Exam, remember that (at a minimum) an attempt should be made to segregate what 3 key functions in a small computer environment?

A

1) Programming
2) Operations
3) Library

152
Q

What is the difference between a systems programmer and a applications programmer

A

The Systems programmer is responsible for implementing, modifying, and debugging the software necessary for making the hardware work.

The Applications programmer is responsible for writing, testing, and debugging the application programs from the specifications provided by a systems analyst.

153
Q

These control program development, program changes, computer operations, and access to programs and data.

A

Computer General Control Activities

154
Q

These control activities relate to specific computer applications and are embedded in the computer program used in the financial reporting system

A

Programmed Control Activities

155
Q

These control activities involve employee follow-up of items listed on computer exception reports.

A

Manual Follow-Up of Computer Exception Reports

156
Q

Programmed Control Activities and Manual Follow-Up of Computer Exception Reports are examples of….

A

Computer Application Control Activities

157
Q

A control feature in an electronic data processing system requires the central processing unit (CPU) to send signals to the printer to activate the print mechanism for each character. The print mechanism, just prior to printing, sends a signal back to the CPU verifying that the proper print position has been activated. This type of hardware control is referred to as ….

A

Echo Control/Echo Check

158
Q

Under this computer control, a special bit is added to each character that can detect if the hardware loses a bit during the internal movement of a character

A

Parity Check

159
Q

This is a specialized form of user identification in which the user dials the system, identifies themselves, and is disconnected from the system before being called back

A

Call Back

160
Q

This is a control total where the total is meaningless for financial purposes (for example, a mathematical sum of employee SSNs)

A

Hash Total

161
Q

This is a test of the reasonableness of a field of data, given a predetermined upper and/or lower limit

A

Limit/Reasonableness Test

162
Q

This is a control that allows only “valid” transactions or data to be entered into the system

A

Validity Check

163
Q

This is a control that limits the types of characters accepted into a specific data field

A

Field Check

164
Q

This is a control that searches for blanks inappropriately existing in input data

A

Missing Data Check

165
Q

This is a control of an exact number of characters to be input

A

Field Size Check

166
Q

What are the four things a disaster recovery and business continuity plan should allow the firm to do?

A

1) Minimize the disruption, damage, and loss
2) Establish an alternate temporary method for processing information
3) Resume normal operations as quickly as possible
4) Train and familiarize personnel to perform emergency operations