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121 Prep > Instrument > Flashcards

Instrument Flashcards

(65 cards)

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1
Q

Gate hold Procedures

A

hold aircraft at gate or ground location when delays expected to exceed 15 minutes

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2
Q

EDCT

A

runway release time - expected to depart within 5 mintues of assigned time

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3
Q

Abbreviated Clearance

A 
Clearance Limit
Route
Altitude (initial altitude)
Frequency
Transponder
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4
Q

Clearance void time

A

time at which departure clearance is cancelled - must obtain new clearance if not departed by this time

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5
Q

What are the 2 types of DPs

A

ODP - Obstacle Departure Procedure
SID - Standard Instrument Departure

Both provide obstruction Clearance
DP- Graphical or Textual
SID- Graphical - provide transition to enroute structure

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6
Q

IFR Takeoff Mins

A

2 engines or less - 1 SM Vis

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7
Q

ILS Critical Hold Short Area

A

in affect with less than 800 and/or less than 2

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8
Q

Jet Routes

A

18000MSL-FL450
Depicted in Black wiht J followed by airway number
Predicated on VOR or VORTAC Facilities

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9
Q

Meaning of sideways “T” depicted at intersection

A

change in MEA, MOCA, and/or MAA

Do not appear at a navaid

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10
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

ensure nav signal & obstacle clearance

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11
Q

MOCA

A

Min Obstacle Clearance Altitude
Obstacle Clearance
Nav reception only with 22nm of VOR

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12
Q

MCA

A

Mic Crossing Altitude

lowest altitude at which intersection can be crossed when proceeding in direction of higher MEA

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13
Q

MRA

A

Min Reception Altitude

Lowest alt at which intersection can be determined

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14
Q

MAA

A

Max Authorized Altitude

max altitude at which adequate nav reception is assured

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15
Q

OROCA

A

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
1000 clearance non-mountainous
2000 clearance mountainous

No nav reception guarantee

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16
Q

What is the minimum altitude if no MEA or MOCA are published

A

1000 ft (2000 mountainous) above highest obstlance within 4nm of course

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17
Q

ATC Reporting (AIM 5-3-3)

A 
Missed Approach
Airspeed +/- 10/5%
Reach holding fix/clerance limit
VFR on Top
*ETA +/-2
Leaving holding fix
*Outer Marker/FAF
Unforecasted Wx
Safety of Flight
Vacating Altitude
Radio/Nav Failure
*Compulsory Reporting Point
500FPM unable to climb or descend

*not in radar contact

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18
Q

Radio Comm Failure Procedures

A

VFR - continue under vfr, land as soon as practical

IFR
Route: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
Altitude: Highest of Min IFR Altitude, Expected, Assigned

Leave clearance limit as close as possible to EFC to fly approach or to fix at which an approach begins

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19
Q

RNAV Routes

A

Depicted in Blue
Q- Routes - 18000MSL-FL450
T-Routes: 1200AGL- 17999MSL

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20
Q

Controller Pilot Data Link Communication (CPDLC)

A

supplement air/ground voice communication

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21
Q

What is a STAR

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

Purpose: transition from Enroute-Terminal Area
Simplify clearance delivery

Found in TPP

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22
Q

What does RNAV1 on RNAV STAR indicate?

A

procedure requires track keeping accuracy be +/-

1NM for 95% of total flight time

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23
Q

At what point can an aircraft start a descent when cleared for the approach?

A

When established on a published route or procedure

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24
Q

What is a Profile Descent?

A

Uninterrupted descent from cruise altitude to interception of glide slope or min altitude on a non-precision approach.

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25
What is MVA?
Minimum Vectoring Altitude | lowest MSL altitude IFR aircraft can by vectored by a controller
26
Minimum Safe Altitude
- depicted on approach chart - provide 1000ft obstacle clearance within 25nm of defined reference point - used for emergency
27
What procedure is used when the clearance "cleared for the visual" is issued?
- Visual Approach conducted - must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight - Min wx 1000/3 - Cloud clearances not applicable
28
Contact Approach
- May deviate from instrument approach and proceed visually to airport - Must have ATC authorization, clear of clouds, min 1 mile flight vis - Must be pilot requested
29
When is procedure turn not required?
``` SHARPTT Straight In Approach HILO ARC Radar Vector No PT Teardrop Depicted Turn barb not present ```
30
What information will ATC provide for a hold? (where hold is not charted)
``` Direction of Hold Fix Direction of Turn Radial/Course Leg Length EFC ```
31
Max Hold Speeds
Up to 6000 MSL 200KTS 6001 - 14000 MSL 230KTS >14000MSL 265KTS
32
If approach holding fix in excess of hold speed - what procedure is appropriate?
start speed reduction within 3 minutes of reaching fix
33
Standard hold procedures?
Right Turns Leg Length 1 min inbound leg at or below 14000 1.5 min inbound leg above 14000
34
Definition of a Precision Approach
glide slope is provided - ILS, PAR
35
Outer, Middle, Inner Marker indications
Outer: Blue, Dull Tone, Slow Speed: 4-7nm Threshold Middle - Amber, Med tone & speed: 3500ft to Thld Inner - White, High tone & Speed: btwn Middle & Thld
36
Where is localizer/transmitter antenna installation located in relation to runway? What is the normal usable range?
far end of the approach runway 18NM
37
Where is glideslope antenna located? What is the normal usable range?
Offset from approach end of runway 10NM
38
2 Methods to calculate rate of descent for 3 deg glide slope.
Ground speed x 5 | Ground speed / 2 x 10
39
Localizer & VOR sensitivity
LOC Full Deflection - 2.5* from centerline | VOR Full Deflection - 10* from centerline
40
Define Decision Altitude
Altitude at which a pilot must initiate missed approached if runway not insight Expressed in MSL
41
91.175
Defines when pilot can descend below MDA/DA 1. position for a normal descent using normal maneuvers to runway of intended landing 2. Required flight visibility 3. Visual Reference (1 of the following) Runway - Markings - Lights Threshold - Markings - Lights Touchdown zone - Markings - Lights REILs Visual glide slope indicator Approach Lighting System (May not descend below 100 above TDZ unless red terminating or side bars in sight)
42
Lowest ILS Mins Cat I,II,III | DH/RVR
``` Cat I : 200/2400 Cat II: 100/1200 Cat IIIa: 100/700 Cat IIIb: 50/150 Cat IIIc: No Limits ```
43
Nonprecision Instrument Approach
no glide slope provided
44
Define MDA
Minimum Descent Altitude | lowest altitude specified in Non P Instrument approach
45
Define VDP
Visual Descent Point point on nonprecision approach which allows for normal descent from MDA to runway Identified in Profile View by "V"
46
Formula to Calculate VDP
Distance | HAT/300 = Miles
47
What is VDA
Vertical Descent Angle found on non-p approach charts - descent angle for stabilized approach descent Utilize VDA, Groundspeed, & Rate of CLimb/Descent table to calculate Descent Rate for stabilized appraoch (Table in back of TPP)
48
Does VDA guarantee obstacle protection below MDA?
No
49
If no FAF published, where does final approach segment begin on Nonprecision Approach?
begins where procedure turn intersects final approach course inbound
50
What are required conditions for "straight-in" minimums to be published?
Final approach segment within 30 degrees of runway alignment (15* for GPS IAPs)
51
What is a stepdown fix?
permits additional descent on segment of a IAP
52
What does a VASI System provide?
Visual descent guidance | obstacle clearance within 10* centerline to 4nm
53
What is a sidestep approach?
visual maneuver which can be flown at completion of instrument approach permits straight in landing on parallel rwy w/n 1200 ft of approach runway
54
``` Describe the following: LNAV LNAV/VNAV LP LPV ```
- LNAV - Lateral Nav - Non precision - LNAV/VNAV - Lateral Nav/Vertical Nav - APV Approach - requires Baro-VNAV or WAAS - LP - Localizer Performance - Non-P - Requires WAAS - LPV - Localizer performance w/ Vertical Guidance - APV approach - requires WAAS
55
Explain how WAAS enhances GPS
GPS satellite signals monitored by ground reference stations linked to WAAS network The WAAS network implements required corrections & transmits to WAAS receivers
56
What is an APV approach?
Approach with Vertical Guidance does not meet precision approach standards but provides glidepath information
57
What are circle-to-land approaches?
Maneuver initiated by pilot to align aircraft with runway when straight-in not available or desirable
58
Why do some airports only have circling minimums?
normal descent rate or runway alignment factor of 30* (15* for GPS) is exceeded
59
Can a pilot make a straight-in landing if an approach only has circling minimums published?
Yes, circling mins only mean the alignment factor or normal descent rate is exceeded. Can maneuver to land any (tower approved if applicable) runway
60
If cleared for a "straight-in" approach can a pilot circle to land if needed?
Yes Straight-in approach is an approach where final approach is initiated without executing a procedure turn has nothing to do with straight-in/circling mins
61
What is the correct procedure if you lose visual contact with runway environment while circling to land?
1 - Initial climbing turn toward landing runway | 2- Continue turn until established on missed approach course
62
How can a pilot determine the approach category mins applicable to particular aircraft
1.3 x Vso @max gross landing weight =approach speed ``` Category A - 90 or less B- 91-120 C- 121-140 D- 141-165 E- above 166 ```
63
When must a pilot execute a missed approach?
1) MAP or DA & 91.175 not met 2) visual lost on circle to land 3) directed by ATC 4) safe landing not possible
64
How can MAP be identified on Non-Precision Approach?
1) timing from FAF 2) DME 3) Fix/Navaid
65
During IAP, before reaching MAP or DA, you determine missed approach is necessary. What procedure is recommended
Fly IAP to MAP at or above MDA/DA before executing a turning maneuver

121 Prep (3 decks)

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