Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Instrument Checkride Oral > Instrument > Flashcards

Instrument Flashcards

1
Q

Pirep

A

Pilot weather report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metar

A

Routine surface weather report. Every hour.

SPECI ISSUED WHEN SIGNIFICANT CHANGE IN ONE or more reported elements since last metar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TAF

A

Terminal aero dome forecast

5SM around station

Issued 4 times a day, every 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Class B airspace dimensions

A

Surface to 10,000 MSL

Inner ring 10NM
Outer ring 30NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Class D airspace dimensions

A

4NM radius 2500 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hold for release

A

May not takeoff until being released for IFR departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VOR check sign off

(hint: DEPS)

A

Date
Error
Place
Signature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Magnetic compass errors and limitations (hint: DVMONA)

A

Deviation
Variation
Magnetic dip
Oscillation
North/south turn errors (UNOS- undershoot north/overshoot south)
Acceleration errors (ANDS - accelerate north/decelerate south)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oxygen requirements

A

Part 91 only: part 121 and 135 are different

12,500-14,000 crew must use O2 for flight over 30 min
+14,000 crew must be provided and use O2 for total duration of flight
+15,000 each occupant must be provided with O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Instrument Ice

A

Structural ice forming over aircraft

Instruments and sensors: pitot + static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Minimum equipment required for VFR day flight (hint: ATOMATOFLAMES)

A 
Altimeter 
Tachometer 
Oil temp indicator- each engine
Manifold pressure gauge- each engine
Airspeed indicator
Temperature gauge - for each liquid 
Oil pressure gauge- each engine
Fuel quantity gauge - each tank
Landing gear position lights (retractable)
Anti collision lights 
Magnetic compass 
ELT (if required by 91.207)
Safety belts/shoulder harnesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Airspace speed limits

A

Less than 10,000 250kts
Below class B 200kts
Class C/D within 4NM and below 250-200kts
Above 10,000 Mach 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Static port blockage

A

Airspeed indicator- shows correct speed if you at altitude blockage occurred
Lower altitude - higher than it should
Higher altitude - lower than it should
Altimeter - will freeze on altitude where it was blocked
VSI - freezes on zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gyroscopic instruments

A

Attitude indicator- rigidity in space
Heading indicator- rigidity in space
Turn indicators - principle of precession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DP(departure procedure)

A
  • must be assigned by ATP
  • must at least possess textual description
  • provides obstruction clearance from terminal area to the enroute structure
  • detailed procedure to depart airport
  • transition to enroute structure safely
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Approach clearance minimums

Contact +visual

A

Contact:

  • must be requested by the pilot
  • at least 1sm reported ground visibility and remain clear of clouds
  • available at airports with approved instrument approach procedures

Visual:

  • initiated by pilot or ATC
  • Requires at least 1000’ ceilings + 3sm visibility
  • pilot must have airport or traffic to follow in sight at all times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

4 parts of an ILS

A

Localizer
Glide slope
Marker beacons
Approach light system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mandatory reports under IFR

Hint: MARVELOUSVFR500

A 
Missed approach 
Airspeed +\- 10kts
Reaching holding fix(time+alt)
VFR on top
ETA change +\- 3 min
Leaving holding fix/point
Outer marker 
Unforecasted weather
Safety of flight
Vacating an altitude/FL
Final approach fix
Radio/Nav failure
Compulsory reporting points
500 unable climb/descent 500 fpm

*required only in non radar environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are your personal minimums

A

1000ft ceiling + 3sm visibility

Lower mins over time with experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Preflight self assessment

Hint: IMSAFE

A 
Illness 
Medication
Stress
Alcohol 
Fatigue
Emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

To carry passengers as PIC

A
  • 3 takeoffs and landings in last 90 days in same category, class, and type
  • periods between 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise: 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in last 90 days during that period
  • to act as PIC; flight review in last 24 calendar months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Holding pattern timing

A

Adjust outbound leg so inbound leg takes:

  • at or below 14,000 MSL 1 min
  • above 14,000 MSL 1.5 min
  • DME/GPS holds -fly outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight

Hint: ARROW

A 
Airworthiness certificate 
Registration certificate 
Radio station license (for international flights)
Operating limitations + AFM
Weight + Balance data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Class B airspace, basic VFR weather minimums

A

3SM visibility +stay clear of clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Class C airspace, Basic VFR weather minimums

A

3SM, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal (3152)

26
Q

Class D airspace, basic VFR weather minimums

A

3SM, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal (3152)

27
Q

Class C airspace dimensions

A

Surface to 4000 MSL
Inner ring 5NM
Outer ring 10NM 1,200-4000’

28
Q

Pitot blockage

A

Only affects airspeed indicator

  • RAM air clogged + drain hole open airspeed will drop to zero
  • both clogged airspeed acts as altimeter
  • drain clogged airspeed will read faster
29
Q

Leaving the clearance limit

A

Is the clearance limit a fix from which an approach begins?

Yes: start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC or (ETA if no EFC)

No: at EFC or clearance limit(if no EFC), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach

30
Q

Expect departure clearance time (EDCT)

A

Runway release time given under traffic management programs at busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 min from EDCT

31
Q

ODP

A

Obstacle departure procedure

  • only provides obstruction clearance
  • may be flown without an ATC clearance unless a DP(SID) or other instructions are assigned
32
Q

What is a contact approach?

A
  • the pilot may deviate from the published instrument approach procedure and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface
33
Q

What is a visual approach?

A
  • where the pilot proceeds by visual reference and clear of clouds to the airport
  • must have airport or traffic to follow in sight at all times
34
Q

Visual descent point (VDP)

A

Defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from MDA to runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate visual reference is established

35
Q

What is structural ice?

3 types

A
  • visible moisture, aircraft surface temp below freezing
    Rime
    Clear
    mixed
36
Q

What is needed to descend below MDA or DA?

A
  1. Flight visibility
  2. Position to land in TDZ using normal maneuvers
  3. RW environment in sight
37
Q

Required equipment for VFR night

FLAPS

A

All VFR day equipment +

Fuses
Landing light
Anti collision light
Position lights (NAV lights)
Source of power (battery)
38
Q

Aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR (AVIATE)

A 
Annual inspection (12 calendar months)
VOR (30 days)
100 hour inspection (if for hire)
Altimeter, altitude reporting and static system (24 calendar months)
Transponder (24 calendar months)
ELT (12 calendar months)
39
Q

Clearance void time

A
  • time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff
  • must notify ATC within 30 min after void time if you did not depart
40
Q

Marker beacons

A
  • provides range info over specific points along ILS approach

Outer marker: 4-7 miles out, aircraft should intercept glide slope +- 50ft. Blue

Middle marker: 3500 ft from runway, glide slope meets decision height, 200ft above TD zone. Amber

Inner marker: between MM and RW threshold, glide slope meets decision height on CAT II ILS approach

41
Q

Convective sigmet

A
  • inflight advisory of convective weather significant to all aircraft
  • issued hourly and valid for 2
- issued for:
Severe thunderstorms due to; surface winds > or = to 50kts, hail at surface > than 3/4 inch
Tornadoes 
Embedded thunderstorms 
Line of thunderstorm at 60 miles long
42
Q

Sigmet

A
  • a nonscheduled in flight advisory of non convective weather potentially hazardous to all types of aircraft
  • forecast period is 4 hours max
  • issued when: (not associated with thunderstorms) severe icing, severe turbulence, dust/sand storms, volcanic ash
43
Q

Airmet

A
  • advisory of significant weather at lower intensities than sigmet. Valid for 6 hours
  • Airmet(T): mod-turb. Surface winds of 30kts or >, non-convective low level wind shear
  • Airmet(Z): mod-icing, provides freezing level heights
  • Airmet(S): IFR conditions, extensive mountain obscurations
44
Q

Fog + Types

A
  • a cloud that begins w/in 50ft of the surface
  • occurs when ground air temp reaches dew point or dew point is raised to OAT by added moisture to air
  • radiation: calm, clear nights. Ground cools rapidly
  • advection: warm moist air over a cold surface
  • upslope: moist stable air forces up terrain slope and cooled to dew point by adiabetic cooling
  • steam: cold dry air moves over warm water
45
Q

WAAS

A
  • Wide area augmentation system
  • errors are broadcasted back to satellite and then to aircraft equipped w/ GPS WAAS receivers
  • covers wide area
  • allows for APV approaches such as LPV LNAV/VNAV
46
Q

RAIM

A
  • range autonomous integrity monitoring
  • function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals
  • minimum of 5 satellites or 4 +baro aid
  • fault exclusion = 6 satellites or 5 + baro aid
47
Q

Do not fly a procedure turn when?

SHARPTT

A 
Straight in approach 
Hold in lieu
Arc
Radar vectored to final
P no PT
Timed approach 
Teardrop course reversal
48
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A
  • no T/O minimums for part 91 ops
  • part 121, 125, 129, 135:
  • prescribed T/O minimums for specific runway or if none:
  • 1-2 engines 1SM visibility
  • more than 2 engines 1/2SM visibility
49
Q

Max holding speeds

A
  • up to 6000 MSL 200 kts
  • 6001 to 14,000 MSL 230 kts
  • above 14,000 MSL 265 kts
  • may be restricted to 175 kts on some instrument approach procedures
  • at air force fields 310 kts
  • at Navy fields 230 kts
50
Q

STAR

A

Standard terminal arrival route

  • serves as a transition from the enroute structure to a point from which an approach can begin
  • transitions routes connect en route fixes to the STAR procedure
51
Q

VOR limitations and receiver checks

A

Limitations:

  • cone of confusion
  • reverse sensing
  • requires line of sight to station

Receiver checks(every 30 cal days):

  • VOT +- 4
  • repair station +- 4
  • VOR ground checkpoint +/- 4
  • VOR airborne checkpoint +/- 6
  • dual VOR cross-check +/- 4
  • above prominent ground landmark +/- 6
52
Q

When using alternate static source, what happens?

A

Airspeed - indicated faster than it should
Altimeter - indicate higher than it should
VSI - momentarily show a climb

53
Q

Lost communications procedure
Altitude to fly (MEA)
Route to fly (AVEF)

A

Fly the highest among:
Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
Expected
A - last altitude assigned

In order:
Assigned route or if none
Vectored
E - last expected
Filed route
54
Q

Instrument approach types

Non-precision/precision

A 
Non-precision (MDA)
- lateral navigation LOC/VOR/GPS
VOR: VOR approach 
RNAV: GPS approach 
LOC: localizer approach 
LDA: localizer directional aid

Precision (DA)
- lateral/localizer and vertical/glide slope
ILS: instrument landing system

3 ways to enter straight in = no PT
Full procedure turn = procedure turn
Circling

55
Q

IFR flight plan

A
  • required before entering controlled airspace under IFR or IMC conditions
  • how to file: FSS, DUATs, radio or phone w/ ATC
  • file at least 30 min prior to est departure time
  • stored in system for 1.5 hours after proposed departure time
  • towered airports: automatically canceled by ATC upon landing
  • non-towered: must contact ATC or FSS to cancel
  • can cancel anytime not in IMC or class A
56
Q

Preflight info required for IFR

Hint: NWKRAFT

A

Notams
Weather reports and forecasts
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths and info
Alternatives available if flight cannot be complete as planned
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing performance data (minimums)

57
Q

Enroute weather information sources

A 
EFAS
HIWAS
ATIS
ASOS
AWOS
58
Q

What is induction ice? (2 types)

A
  • ice reducing amount of air for engine intake
  • intake ice
  • carburetor ice: steep temp drop in carburetor Venturi. OAT between -7 to 21 degrees and high humidity (80%)
59
Q

Required equipment for IFR day and night (GRABCARD)

A
  • for IFR day: all VFR day equip + grabcard
  • for IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night +
    Generator/alternator
    Radios
    Altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure
    Ball (slip/skid indicator)
    Clock installed as part of aircraft equipment
    Attitude indicator
    Rate of turn indicator
    Directional gyro
60
Q

When is an IFR rating required?

A
  1. Under IFR, controlled airspace
  2. WX minimums < vfr
  3. Class A airspace
  4. Special VFR at night
61
Q

Risk management + personal minimums

PAVE

A

Pilot
Aircraft
Environment
External pressure

62
Q

Position report items

A 
Aircraft ID
Position 
Time
Altitude/FL
Type of flight plan 
ETA to next fix
Name of next reporting point along route
Any pertinent remarks

Instrument Checkride Oral (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions