Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What is an Aircraft Approach Category

A

A grouping of aircraft based on a reference landing speed which typically determines the minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

If Vref (reference landing speed) is not specified , what value is used to determine Aircraft Approach Category?

A

1.3 Vso at the max certified landing weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Category A speed

A

< 91 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Category B speed

A

91-121 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Category C speed

A

121-141 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Category D speed

A

141-166 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Category E speed

A

> 166 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HAA

A

Height Above Airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CAR

A

Circling Approach Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are two reasons why circling-only approaches are designated?

A
  1. The final approach course alignment with the runway exceeds 30 degrees 2. The descent gradient from the FAF is greater than 400ft/NM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you know which equipment is required to fly an IAP?

A
  1. It’s in the title 2. Notes on the chart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are circling-only approaches identified?

A

By providing final approach guidance and a letter (starting with A) (VOR A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a title with more than one nav system indicate? (VOR/DME RWY 13)

A

That both nav systems are required to fly the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does an “or” indicate in the title of a procedure? (VOR or GPS RWY 15)

A

That either nav system may be flown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MAWP

A

Missed Approach Waypoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MAHWP

A

Missed Approach Holding Waypoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The MSA on an approach chart gives at least how much vertical separation from hazards?

A

1000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MDA

A

Minimum Descent Altitude; the lowest altitude to which a descent is authorized on final or during circling where no electronic glideslope is provided (not a missed approach, just a level off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you need to descend below the MDA?

A

Runway in sight, position to land, and required visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DA

A

Decision Altitude; the specified altitude on a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DH

A

Decision Height; same as DA, except with reference to height above terrain, with either a radar altimeter or Baro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TDZE

A

Touch Down Zone Elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HAT

A

Height above touchdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

LPV

A

Localizer performance with vertical guidance. A WAAS-enabled vertically guided approach that provides ILS-like approach mins to airports without ILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Which procedures can WAAS users fly?
RNAV and basic RNP as well as LPV
25
Who can fly to LNAV/VNAV minimums?
Those with an FMS that incorporates Baro-VNAV into the solution
26
Who can fly to LPV minimums
Those with WAAS-LPV avionics and when WAAS is functioning
27
Who can fly to LNAV minimums?
Those without WAAS or Baro, or when WAAS is unavailable
28
GBAS
Ground based augmentation system; focuses its service are to within 30 miles of the airfield and broadcasts a correction signal that enables very high precision approaches
29
Precision Approach (PA)
An instrument approach that provides course and glide path deviation information meeting ICAO standards (PAR, ILS, GLS)
30
Approach with vertical guidance (APV)
An instrument approach that provides course and glide path information but that doesn't meet ICAO standards (LPV, LNAV/VNAV, etc)
31
Non-precision approach (NPA)
An instrument approach that provides course deviation information but no glide path. (VOR, LNAV, LOC, etc)
32
MAP
Missed approach point. Variable depending on the equipment used--DA, DH, another fix, or a specified time
33
What is the standard direction for holding patterns?
Right
34
How long is the initial outbound leg of a holding pattern (minutes)?
1 minute below 14000ft, 1.5 min above
35
What must be accomplished in the last 6 months for a pilot to act as PIC in IFR conditions?
6 approaches, Holding, Intercepting and Tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic Systems
36
If not IFR current in the last six months (and less than a year), you can regain currency by:
Performing the 6 HITS with a safety pilot
37
IMSAFE preflight assessment:
Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion
38
PAVE Risk Management & Personal Minimums:
Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressure
39
DECIDE Decision making:
Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate
40
Personal documents required for flight:
Pilot Cert, Medical, Photo ID, Radio Operator Permit (if international)
41
ARROW Aircraft documents required for flight:
Airworthiness cert Registration Radio Station license (international) Operating limitations (AFM) Weight & Balance
42
AVIATES Maintenance inspections required for IFR
Airworthiness directives VOR (30 days) Inspections (annual, 100 hour) Altimeter + Static (24 months) Transponder (24 months) ELT (12 months Supplemental Type Certificate req. inspections
43
SAFETY Passenger Briefing
Safety (belts, seat) Air (vents and environmental controls) Fire extinguisher Exit (doors, emergency, survival kit) Traffic / Talking Your questions
44
Preflight info required for IFR flight (NW KRAFT)
NOTAMs Weather Known delays Runway lengths Alternates available Fuel requirements TOLD
45
How long before departure should you file a flight plan? AIM 5-1-6
30 minutes, or 4 hours prior to above FL230
46
Minimum IFR fuel required. 91.167
Fuel to go to destination, to the more distant alternate, then 45 minutes at normal cruise
47
An alternate is always required unless: (91.169)
An instrument approach is available, and: for at least hour before and after ETA, the ceiling is greater than 2000 and visibility at least 3 SM
48
What weather conditions must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate?
Precision: 600ft + 2 SM Non-precision: 800ft + 2 SM No approach available: weather better than the MEA
49
What are the GPS considerations when filing an alternate?
Non-WAAS GPS equipped: can't plan an RNAV to BOTH WAAS no Baro-VNAV equipped: LNAV circling mins at alternate WAAS + Baro equipped: LNAV/VNAV or RNP .3 minimums allowed
50
What are the IFR cruising altitudes below FL290? 91.179
0-179*: ODD thousands 180-359*: EVEN thousands
51
What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290 in non-RVSM?
0-179*: flight levels at 4,000 ft increments starting at FL290 180-359*: flight levels at 4,000ft increments starting at FL310
52
What are the IFR cruising altitudes FL290-FL410 (in RVSM)?
0-179: Odd flight levels starting at FL290 180-359: Even flight levels
53
What are the IFR takeoff minimums for part 135?
1. prescribed TO mins for the runway, or if none: 1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility, or more than 2 engines: 1/2 SM visibility
54
Departure procedures (DP) ensure obstacle clearance, provided:
1. The airplane croses the departure end at 35ft 2. Reaches 400ft before turning 3. climbs at least 200 ft/NM, or as published
55
How do you convert feet per nautical mile (FPNM) to feet per minute?
FPM = FPNM x GS / 60
56
What are the two types of Departure Procedures (DP)?
Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) - providing only obstacle clearance, and Standard Instrument Departures (SID)
57
At what altitude are turns allowed on a departure procedure?
400ftAGL
58
What is a Visual Climb Over the Airport (VOCA)?
A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC - climbing turns over the airport in lieu of complying with climb gradients greater than 200ft/NM
59
What are the elements of an IFR departure clearance?
Clearance Limit Route Altitude Frequency (departure) Transponder code
60
What is an EDCT?
Expect Departure Clearance Time - at busy airports, aircraft are expected to depart within 5 minutes
61
What's a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival--a transition from the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to land can be made
62
MAA
Maximum Authorized Altitude - "MAA-17000"
63
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude - the lowest altitude you can cross a fix en route to a segment with a higher MEA
64
MEA
Minumum Enroute Altitude - assures radio coverage and obstacle clearance
65
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - provides obstacle clearance, but radio signal only out 22NM
66
MORA (Jeppesen)
Minimum Off Route Altitude - provides obstacle clearance. Grid MORA provides the same in a grid
67
MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude
68
MTA
Minimum Turning Altitude. Annotated with a MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction
69
MVA
Minimum Vectoring Altitude - the lowest altitude that IFR aircraft will be vectored by a controller
70
OROCA
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
71
What is Indicated Airspeed (IAS)?
The altitude indicated on the altimeter
72
What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?
IAS corrected for instrument and calibration errors
73
What is Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?
CAS corrected for compressibility error
74
What is True Airspeed (TAS)?
Actual speed through the air
75
What is Mach number?
The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound
76
77
Max speed in a procedure turn
200 KIAS