Intensive Recap Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
What test measures the production of parasitic lactate dehydrogenase?
A
OptiMal Malaria Test
Histidine Rich Protein: For P. falciparum ONLY
2
Q
The frequency of positive results obtained in the testing of a population of individuals who are truly POSITIVE for the antibody:
A
Sensitivity
3
Q
The detection of specific antibody in the serum of an individual in who, the antibody was PREVIOUSLY UNDETECTABLE:
A
Seroconversion
4
Q
The proportion of the negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question:
A
Specificity
5
Q
The time of recovery from conditions such as illness, injury, or surgery:
A
Convalescent
6
Q
HBv may be stable in dried blood specimens at room temperature for up to:
A
7 days
7
Q
HIV ratains infectivity for:
A
3 days
8
Q
A technician who is pregnant should avoid working with:
A
Radioisotopes or teratogens
9
Q
How are DNA and RNA different?
A
Only RNA contains Uracil
10
Q
Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labell probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocelulose paper following electrophoresis?
A
Southern blot
11
Q
The PCR involves the 3 processes/
A
Denaturation ➡️ Annealing ➡️ Extension
12
Q
Hemolytic transfusion reactions result in all of the ff. laboratory finding except:
A
Haptoglobinemia
13
Q
All paperwork checks on this transfusion reaction are OK. The pre-transfusion sample has straw colored plasma. The post-transfusion sample has red tinged plasma. This is indicative of a/an.
A
Intravascular transfusion reaction
14
Q
A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of _______ occuring in assoc. with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation:
A
1 deg Celsius or more
15
Q
The most common reason for transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood is that the recipient:
A
Has had two or more FNHTRs
*Leukocyte has pyrogens that causes fever
16
Q
Transfused plasma constituents resulting in immediate erythema, itching and hives best typify what transfusion reaction?
A
Allergic
17
Q
What transfusions reaction is most assoc. with transfued patients lacking IgA Ig?
A
Anaphylactic
18
Q
What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
A
RBC alloantibody
19
Q
The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
A
Platlet concentrates (stord at 20 to 24 deg Celsius wi agitation)
20
Q
Of the deaths caused by bacterial contamination of blood components reported to CDC, most are caused by blood components contaminate by:
A
Yersinia enterocolitica
21
Q
What electrolyte may fall in level as a result of citrate toxicity from massive transfusions?
A
Calcium
22
Q
Graft vs. host disease can be a consequence if tranfusion if _______________ are transfused into a recipient who is not capable of rejecting them.
A
Lymphocytes
23
Q
Of the transfusion reaction type list, what results in thrombocytopenia owing to platelet alloantibody?
A
Post-transfusion Purpura (PTP)
24
Q
Hemochromatosis (⬆️ Fe) may be reduce by transfusing:
A
Neocytes (reticulocytes)
25
A characteristic of neocytes is:
Longer transfusion survival time
26
An iron chelating agent which is important in lowering the body iron stores of patients with thalassemia:
Deferoxamine
27
DHTRs from anamnestic responses usuallg occur within which time period?
3 to 7 days after transfusion
28
```
Specimen needed in the investigation of HTRs, EXCEPT:
• New blood sample from recipient
• New blood sample from donor
• Patient's urine
• Remaining blood in the unit
```
✅ New blood sample from recipient
❌ New blood sample from donor
✅ Patient's urine
✅ Remaining blood in the unit
29
```
All of the following are microbially assoc. forms of polyagglutinstion, EXCEPT:
• T polyagglutination
• Th polyagglutination
• Tk polyagglutination
• Tn polyagglutination
```
✅ T polyagglutination
✅ Th polyagglutination
✅ Tk polyagglutination
❌ Tn polyagglutination
30
HEMPAS RBCs are characterized by:
Increased amount of i Ag
31
Patients with in vivo polyagglutination should be given transfusions of:
Washed RBCs
32
A lectin with anti-N specificity can be made from:
Vicia graminea
33
Lectin with anti-B specifity:
Bandeirse simplicifolia
34
Lectin with anti-A specifity:
Dolichos biflorus
35
Lectin with anti-M specifity:
Iberis amara
36
Predict compatibility or incompatibility for the ff. situation. Assume that the patient has a negative antibidy screen and auto-control.
Patient group: B positive
Donor group: O positive
Compatible major side crossmatch
37
What type of blood should be given in an emgench transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient's sample?
O Rh-negative, packed cells
38
Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a minimum of how many days ff. transfusion?
7 days
39
If patients has had a transfusion or has bee pregnant within the last 3 months or if the history is unavailable, the sample must be obtained from the patients within _______ days of the scheduled transfusion:
3 days
40
Anti-K snd anti-c were found in a patient with colon cancer. How many units of red cells would need to be screened to find 2 compatible units for surgery? The antigen negative frequency for K and c a 0.91 and 0.20, respectively.
2/product of the frequencies given
41
What type of blood can be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient's sample?
O-Rh neg packed cells
42
```
Allogeneic donor blood collected and processes from outside sources must have the ff. tests repeate by the hospital blood bank:
• ABO
• Rh
• HBsAg
• Anti-HIV1
```
ABO and Rh
43
Once a unit of blood is removed from a 2 to 8 deg Celsius environment, how long can it be left before commencing a transfusion?
30 minutes
44
Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:
Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
45
A positive DAT may be found in which of the ff. situations:
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)
46
Penicillin given in massive doses has been assoc. with red cell hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is involved in the hemolytic process?
Drug adsorption
47
The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test by which if the following mechanism?
Membrane modification
48
RBCs must be washed in saline at least 3 times before addition of AHG reagent to:
Remove traces of free serum globulins
49
Incubation period when using low ionic strength saline solution (LISS) medium:
5 to 15 minutes
50
The main carriers of A, B, and H in body fluids and secretions:
Type 1 precursor chain
51
True chimerism occurs as a result of:
Two cell population are both recognized as self, occuring in twins
52
The AB cis genotype is:
ABO
53
When a patiens's sample shows a discrepancy bet. forward and reverse grouping with missing or weak reactions, what can be done to enhancee tissue reactions?
Incubate 15 to 30 minutes at room temperature lor 4 deg Celsius
54
```
Which of the ff. conditions can result in rouleaux formation or pseudoagglutination.
• Elevated levels of globulin
• Elevated levels of fibrinogen
• Presence of plasma expanders
• Presence of Wharton's jelly
```
✅ Elevated levels of globulin
✅ Elevated levels of fibrinogen
✅ Presence of plasma expanders
✅ Presence of Wharton's jelly
55
What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?
Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H
56
You are working on a specimen in the laboratory you believe to be a Bombay phenotype. Which of the ff. reactions would you expect to see?
Patient's cells + Ulex europaeus = No agglutination
57
Acquired B Ag have been found in:
Bombay individuals
58
What typing results are most likely to occur when a patients has an acquired B Ag?
Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 1+
A cells: Negative
B cells: 4+
59
A mixed agglutination pattern with anti-B and anti-AB typing sera is characteristic of type:
B3
60
Arrange the common Rh Ags accdg. to immunogenicity (greatest to least):
D > c > E > C > e
61
What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C Ab?
R1r / r'r / R1R1 / rr
rr
62
Cells carrying a weak D Ag require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence?
Indirect Antiglobulin Test
63
If a D-positive person makes an anti-D, this person is probably:
Partial D
64
Inheritance of Sese and Lewis gene produces the ff. phenotype:
Le (a-b+)
65
Which of the ff. Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually non existent in whites?
Fy (a-b-)
66
A patient with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to:
I
67
A previously named HLA that is not uncommonly detected on erythrocytes is:
Bga
68
A low-incidence Ag that serves as a useful antrhopologic marker for Mongolian ancestry:
Dia
69
Mutations in the carrier molecules for this blood group system may result in changes of RBC shape in forms of elliptocytes, acanthocytosis, or ovalocytosis.
DI
70
What blood group system is under control of a gene located at the petite (short) are of the X chromosome?
XG
71
What Ag is routinely destroyed by enzymes?
Fya
72
What procedure would help to distinguish bet. anti-a and anti-Fya in an antibody mixture?
Run an enzyme panel
73
ZZAP is used to remore Ab from sensitized RBCs and to enzyme treat them at the same time. It is a mixture of:
Dithiothreitol and papain
74
What ABO blood group contains the least amount of H substance?
A1B
75
The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
Elution
76
How can interfering with anti-P1 Ab be removes from from a mixture of antibodies?
Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid (also pigeon droppings, turtledoves' egg white)
77
Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-Lewis:
Secretor saliva, plasma, or serum
78
Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-Chido, Anti-Rodgers:
Plasma or serum
79
Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-Sda
Guinea pig urine
80
Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-I:
Mother's milk
81
If during a Donath-Landsteiner test there is hemolysis in both the test and the control tube at the conclusion of the test, what is the possible conclusion is most applicable?
The test is invalid.
82
How is cold hemagglutinin disease (CHD) different from paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
The offending antibody in PCH is an IgG antibody unlike the IgM antibody in CHD.
83
The required hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donation should be at least:
11 g/dL hgb, 33% hct
84
For autologous donation, blood should not be withdrawn from the donor-patient within ________ hours of the time of the anticipated operation or transfusion.
72 hours
85
What are the pretransfusion requirements for an autologous transfusion?
ABO and Rh typing
86
Immunization for rubella would result in a temporary deferral for:
4 weeks
87
A donor who was a recipient of human growth hormone would be:
Deferred indefinitely
88
To maximize the number of components derived from one unit of blood, processing must occur within:
6 to 8 hours
89
Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the ff. is a result of this "storage lesion"?
Increase in plasma K+
90
When blood is stored, there is a "shift to the left". This means:
Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to a decrease in 2.3-DPG
91
What hematocrit is acceptable for packed RBCs in a closed system?
78%
92
Platelet concentrates prepared by pheresks should contain how many platelets per uL.
3.0 x 10^11
93
Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within:
24 hours
94
```
Even though it is properly collected and stored, which of the following will FPP NOT provide?
• Factor V
• Factor VII
• Factor IX
• Platelets
```
Platelets
95
What would be the component of choice for treatment of von Willebrand's disease?
Cryoprecipitate AHF
96
Transmission of viruses in cryoprecipitate may be eliminated by:
• Heating in a liquid for
• Heating in a lyophilized form
• Irradiating with ultraviolet light
AOTA
97
Granulocyte transfusions are clinically appropriate for:
Patients whi have life-threatening systemic infections that are uncontrolled by antibiotics
98
What is the component of choice for a patient with CGD?
Granulocytes
99
Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat:
Factor IX deficiency
100
Perfluorocarbons have been investigated as:
RBC substitute
101
Which of the ff. is usually employed to start an IV line prior to blood transfusion?
Normal (0.9%) saline
102
The most severee form of HDN is associated with:
Anti-D
103
```
Blood for intrauterine transfusion should be all of the ff. EXCEPT:
• More an 7 days old
• Screened for CMV
• Gamma irradiated
• Compatible with maternal serum
```
❌ More an 7 days old
✅ Screened for CMV
✅ Gamma irradiated
✅ Compatible with maternal serum
104
Blood products are tested for which virus before being tranfused to newborns?
CMV
105
Commonly used blood banl antisera should be routinely stored at _____ deg Celsius when not in use.
2 to 6 deg Celsius
106
The major advanatge of gel technology is:
Standardization
107
Detemine what incompatibility is demonstrated:
Donor: Group A
Patient: Group O
Incompatible in major crossmatch
108
```
Which of the ff. is positive for the compound antigen ce(f)?
• R1R2
• R2r'
• rr
• AOTA
```
rr (dce/dce)
109
The glass surface of an Rh viewbox should be ________ deg Celsius.
Bet. 45 and 50 deg Celsius
110
Which Duffy phenotype offers the greatest resistance to invasion by malarial parasites?
Fyn(a-b-)
111
Antigens are carried on the decay accelerating factor (DAF) and are distributed in body fluids and on red cells, white cells, platelets, and placental tissue:
Cromer
112
Antibodies formerly classified as HTLAs:
Anti-Ch/Rg
113
Rh immune globulin provides ______________ protection against fetal D Ag:
Passive
114
If an Rh-negative woman recently delivered an Rh positive baby and the Kleihauer-Betke test results is 5%, how many vials of Rh Ig should be administered?
Volume of FMH = % fetal x 50 cells
Vol. of FMH = 250
Number of Rh Ig = vol. of FMH/30 +1
No. of Rh Ig = 9 (8 +1)
115
```
If a group AB, Rh-neg patient is admitted with massive bleeding, which of the ff. units of packed cells would be the LEAST desirable to transfuse?
• Group O Rh-neg
• Group A Rh-neg
• Group O Rh-pos
• Group B Rh-ngpeg
```
Group O Rh-pos
116
If a prospective allogeneic donor has received blood or blood components known to be sources of hepatitis (e.g. Surgery), the donor should be deferred from donating for ______________ after transfusion:
12 months
117
Min. number of platelets in a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood by centrifugation:
RD Platelets (LS-HS) = 5.5x10^10
*Pheresis = 3.0x10^11
118
Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?
42 days
SAGM — Adsol, Nutricel, Optisol
119
Graft-versus-host disease is caused by:
Lymphocytes (T cell; irradiated blood component)
120
The radiation source for irradiation of blood products is:
137 Cesium
121
Once defrosted, cryoprecipitate must be administered within ___________ of thawin.
6 hours
122
Perfluorocarbons have been investigated as:
RBC substitutes (⬆️ O2 capacity)
123
If a donor weight, how much blood can be safely be drawn?
(Donor's wt/ideal wt) x 450
(105/110) x 450
430 (429.6)
124
```
Allogeneic donor blood collected and processes from outside sources must have the ff. tests repeated by the hospitsl blood bank:
• ABO
• Rh
• HBsAg
• Anti-HIV1
```
ABO and Rh
125
The minimum HGB concentration in g/dL in a fingerprick from a male donor is:
12.5 g/dL
126
The required HGB and HCT for autologous donation should be at least:
Hgb: 11 g/dL
Hct: 33%
127
```
Autologous blood donor units must be tested for:
• ABO
• Rh
• HBsAg
• Anti-HIV1
```
ABO and Rh
128
Samples of recipient's blood and donor units must be stored for _____ days after transfusion:
7 days
129
A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of __________________ occuring in assoc. with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation:
1 deg Celsius or more
130
Blood component most frequently assoc. with transfusion reaction due to bacterial contamination:
Platelet concentrate
131
The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
Platelet concentrates
132
Of the deaths caused by bacterial contamination of blood components reported to CDC, most are caused by blood components contaminated by:
Yersinia enterocolitica
133
Polysoecific AHG reagents contains:
Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
Rabbit
*Monospecific: Anti-IgG or anti-C3d; mouse
134
A positive DAT may be found in which of the ff. situations?
HDN
135
Each unit of WB will yield approx. how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?
80
136
Accdg. to AABB standards, 75% of all platelet pheresis units shall contain how many platelts per uL?
3.0x10^11
137
What blood component is the best source of Factor IX?
Prothrombin complex (Factors 2, 7, 9, 10)
138
Hives and itching are symptoms of what transfusion reaction?
Allergic
139
Cold agglutinin syndrome is best assoc. with which of the ff. blood groups?
Ii
140
Rejuvenation of a unit of RBCs is a method used to:
Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
141
Based upon Kleihauer-Betke test results, which of the ff. formulas is used to determine the vol. of feto-maternal hemorrhage in mL of while blood?
% of fetsl cells x 50
142
Accdg. to the AABB standards, what is the min. pH required for platelets?
6
143
What transfusion reaction occurs after infusion of only a few mL of blood and gives no history of fever?
Anaphylactic
144
```
Which Ag gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding Ab following tx of the RCs with proteolytic enzymes?
• Fya
• S
• E
• M
```
E
145
A lectin with anti-N specificity:
Vicia graminea
146
What would be the component of choice for tx of vWD?
Cryoprecipitated AHF
147
If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1-6 deg Celsius, what is the max. allowable storage period in hours?
24 hours
148
The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive DAT by which of the ff. mechanisms?
Membrane modification
149
Characteristic of anti-I:
Frequently a cold agglutinin
150
The mechanism that best explains HA due to penicillin is:
Drug adsorption
151
Post-transfusion anaphylactic reactions occur often in px with:
IgA deficiency
152
Hydroxyethyl starch (HEZ) is a rouleaux-promoting agent used to:
Increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis
153
What is the proper storage temp. requirements for granulocytes?
Room temperature without agitation
