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MAVM: Blood Banking > Intensive Recap > Flashcards

Intensive Recap Flashcards

1
Q

What test measures the production of parasitic lactate dehydrogenase?

A

OptiMal Malaria Test

Histidine Rich Protein: For P. falciparum ONLY

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2
Q

The frequency of positive results obtained in the testing of a population of individuals who are truly POSITIVE for the antibody:

A

Sensitivity

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3
Q

The detection of specific antibody in the serum of an individual in who, the antibody was PREVIOUSLY UNDETECTABLE:

A

Seroconversion

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4
Q

The proportion of the negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question:

A

Specificity

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5
Q

The time of recovery from conditions such as illness, injury, or surgery:

A

Convalescent

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6
Q

HBv may be stable in dried blood specimens at room temperature for up to:

A

7 days

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7
Q

HIV ratains infectivity for:

A

3 days

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8
Q

A technician who is pregnant should avoid working with:

A

Radioisotopes or teratogens

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9
Q

How are DNA and RNA different?

A

Only RNA contains Uracil

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10
Q

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labell probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocelulose paper following electrophoresis?

A

Southern blot

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11
Q

The PCR involves the 3 processes/

A

Denaturation ➡️ Annealing ➡️ Extension

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12
Q

Hemolytic transfusion reactions result in all of the ff. laboratory finding except:

A

Haptoglobinemia

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13
Q

All paperwork checks on this transfusion reaction are OK. The pre-transfusion sample has straw colored plasma. The post-transfusion sample has red tinged plasma. This is indicative of a/an.

A

Intravascular transfusion reaction

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14
Q

A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of _______ occuring in assoc. with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation:

A

1 deg Celsius or more

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15
Q

The most common reason for transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood is that the recipient:

A

Has had two or more FNHTRs

*Leukocyte has pyrogens that causes fever

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16
Q

Transfused plasma constituents resulting in immediate erythema, itching and hives best typify what transfusion reaction?

A

Allergic

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17
Q

What transfusions reaction is most assoc. with transfued patients lacking IgA Ig?

A

Anaphylactic

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18
Q

What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

A

RBC alloantibody

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19
Q

The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:

A

Platlet concentrates (stord at 20 to 24 deg Celsius wi agitation)

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20
Q

Of the deaths caused by bacterial contamination of blood components reported to CDC, most are caused by blood components contaminate by:

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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21
Q

What electrolyte may fall in level as a result of citrate toxicity from massive transfusions?

A

Calcium

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22
Q

Graft vs. host disease can be a consequence if tranfusion if _______________ are transfused into a recipient who is not capable of rejecting them.

A

Lymphocytes

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23
Q

Of the transfusion reaction type list, what results in thrombocytopenia owing to platelet alloantibody?

A

Post-transfusion Purpura (PTP)

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24
Q

Hemochromatosis (⬆️ Fe) may be reduce by transfusing:

A

Neocytes (reticulocytes)

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25
Q

A characteristic of neocytes is:

A

Longer transfusion survival time

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26
Q

An iron chelating agent which is important in lowering the body iron stores of patients with thalassemia:

A

Deferoxamine

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27
Q

DHTRs from anamnestic responses usuallg occur within which time period?

A

3 to 7 days after transfusion

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28
Q 
Specimen needed in the investigation of HTRs, EXCEPT:
• New blood sample from recipient
• New blood sample from donor
• Patient's urine
• Remaining blood in the unit
A

✅ New blood sample from recipient
❌ New blood sample from donor
✅ Patient’s urine
✅ Remaining blood in the unit

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29
Q 
All of the following are microbially assoc. forms of polyagglutinstion, EXCEPT:
• T polyagglutination
• Th polyagglutination
• Tk polyagglutination
• Tn polyagglutination
A

✅ T polyagglutination
✅ Th polyagglutination
✅ Tk polyagglutination
❌ Tn polyagglutination

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30
Q

HEMPAS RBCs are characterized by:

A

Increased amount of i Ag

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31
Q

Patients with in vivo polyagglutination should be given transfusions of:

A

Washed RBCs

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32
Q

A lectin with anti-N specificity can be made from:

A

Vicia graminea

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33
Q

Lectin with anti-B specifity:

A

Bandeirse simplicifolia

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34
Q

Lectin with anti-A specifity:

A

Dolichos biflorus

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35
Q

Lectin with anti-M specifity:

A

Iberis amara

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36
Q

Predict compatibility or incompatibility for the ff. situation. Assume that the patient has a negative antibidy screen and auto-control.

Patient group: B positive
Donor group: O positive

A

Compatible major side crossmatch

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37
Q

What type of blood should be given in an emgench transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample?

A

O Rh-negative, packed cells

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38
Q

Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a minimum of how many days ff. transfusion?

A

7 days

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39
Q

If patients has had a transfusion or has bee pregnant within the last 3 months or if the history is unavailable, the sample must be obtained from the patients within _______ days of the scheduled transfusion:

A

3 days

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40
Q

Anti-K snd anti-c were found in a patient with colon cancer. How many units of red cells would need to be screened to find 2 compatible units for surgery? The antigen negative frequency for K and c a 0.91 and 0.20, respectively.

A

2/product of the frequencies given

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41
Q

What type of blood can be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample?

A

O-Rh neg packed cells

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42
Q 
Allogeneic donor blood collected and processes from outside sources must have the ff. tests repeate by the hospital blood bank:
• ABO
• Rh
• HBsAg
• Anti-HIV1
A

ABO and Rh

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43
Q

Once a unit of blood is removed from a 2 to 8 deg Celsius environment, how long can it be left before commencing a transfusion?

A

30 minutes

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44
Q

Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

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45
Q

A positive DAT may be found in which of the ff. situations:

A

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)

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46
Q

Penicillin given in massive doses has been assoc. with red cell hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is involved in the hemolytic process?

A

Drug adsorption

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47
Q

The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test by which if the following mechanism?

A

Membrane modification

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48
Q

RBCs must be washed in saline at least 3 times before addition of AHG reagent to:

A

Remove traces of free serum globulins

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49
Q

Incubation period when using low ionic strength saline solution (LISS) medium:

A

5 to 15 minutes

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50
Q

The main carriers of A, B, and H in body fluids and secretions:

A

Type 1 precursor chain

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51
Q

True chimerism occurs as a result of:

A

Two cell population are both recognized as self, occuring in twins

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52
Q

The AB cis genotype is:

A

ABO

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53
Q

When a patiens’s sample shows a discrepancy bet. forward and reverse grouping with missing or weak reactions, what can be done to enhancee tissue reactions?

A

Incubate 15 to 30 minutes at room temperature lor 4 deg Celsius

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54
Q 
Which of the ff. conditions can result in rouleaux formation or pseudoagglutination.
• Elevated levels of globulin
• Elevated levels of fibrinogen
• Presence of plasma expanders
• Presence of Wharton's jelly
A

✅ Elevated levels of globulin
✅ Elevated levels of fibrinogen
✅ Presence of plasma expanders
✅ Presence of Wharton’s jelly

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55
Q

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?

A

Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H

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56
Q

You are working on a specimen in the laboratory you believe to be a Bombay phenotype. Which of the ff. reactions would you expect to see?

A

Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = No agglutination

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57
Q

Acquired B Ag have been found in:

A

Bombay individuals

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58
Q

What typing results are most likely to occur when a patients has an acquired B Ag?

A

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 1+
A cells: Negative
B cells: 4+

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59
Q

A mixed agglutination pattern with anti-B and anti-AB typing sera is characteristic of type:

A

B3

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60
Q

Arrange the common Rh Ags accdg. to immunogenicity (greatest to least):

A

D > c > E > C > e

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61
Q

What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C Ab?
R1r / r’r / R1R1 / rr

A

rr

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62
Q

Cells carrying a weak D Ag require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence?

A

Indirect Antiglobulin Test

63
Q

If a D-positive person makes an anti-D, this person is probably:

A

Partial D

64
Q

Inheritance of Sese and Lewis gene produces the ff. phenotype:

A

Le (a-b+)

65
Q

Which of the ff. Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually non existent in whites?

A

Fy (a-b-)

66
Q

A patient with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to:

A

I

67
Q

A previously named HLA that is not uncommonly detected on erythrocytes is:

A

Bga

68
Q

A low-incidence Ag that serves as a useful antrhopologic marker for Mongolian ancestry:

A

Dia

69
Q

Mutations in the carrier molecules for this blood group system may result in changes of RBC shape in forms of elliptocytes, acanthocytosis, or ovalocytosis.

A

DI

70
Q

What blood group system is under control of a gene located at the petite (short) are of the X chromosome?

A

XG

71
Q

What Ag is routinely destroyed by enzymes?

A

Fya

72
Q

What procedure would help to distinguish bet. anti-a and anti-Fya in an antibody mixture?

A

Run an enzyme panel

73
Q

ZZAP is used to remore Ab from sensitized RBCs and to enzyme treat them at the same time. It is a mixture of:

A

Dithiothreitol and papain

74
Q

What ABO blood group contains the least amount of H substance?

A

A1B

75
Q

The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:

A

Elution

76
Q

How can interfering with anti-P1 Ab be removes from from a mixture of antibodies?

A

Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid (also pigeon droppings, turtledoves’ egg white)

77
Q

Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-Lewis:

A

Secretor saliva, plasma, or serum

78
Q

Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-Chido, Anti-Rodgers:

A

Plasma or serum

79
Q

Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-Sda

A

Guinea pig urine

80
Q

Source of substances for neutralization of Anti-I:

A

Mother’s milk

81
Q

If during a Donath-Landsteiner test there is hemolysis in both the test and the control tube at the conclusion of the test, what is the possible conclusion is most applicable?

A

The test is invalid.

82
Q

How is cold hemagglutinin disease (CHD) different from paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?

A

The offending antibody in PCH is an IgG antibody unlike the IgM antibody in CHD.

83
Q

The required hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donation should be at least:

A

11 g/dL hgb, 33% hct

84
Q

For autologous donation, blood should not be withdrawn from the donor-patient within ________ hours of the time of the anticipated operation or transfusion.

A

72 hours

85
Q

What are the pretransfusion requirements for an autologous transfusion?

A

ABO and Rh typing

86
Q

Immunization for rubella would result in a temporary deferral for:

A

4 weeks

87
Q

A donor who was a recipient of human growth hormone would be:

A

Deferred indefinitely

88
Q

To maximize the number of components derived from one unit of blood, processing must occur within:

A

6 to 8 hours

89
Q

Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the ff. is a result of this “storage lesion”?

A

Increase in plasma K+

90
Q

When blood is stored, there is a “shift to the left”. This means:

A

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to a decrease in 2.3-DPG

91
Q

What hematocrit is acceptable for packed RBCs in a closed system?

A

78%

92
Q

Platelet concentrates prepared by pheresks should contain how many platelets per uL.

A

3.0 x 10^11

93
Q

Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within:

A

24 hours

94
Q 
Even though it is properly collected and stored, which of the following will FPP NOT provide?
• Factor V
• Factor VII
• Factor IX
• Platelets
A

Platelets

95
Q

What would be the component of choice for treatment of von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Cryoprecipitate AHF

96
Q

Transmission of viruses in cryoprecipitate may be eliminated by:
• Heating in a liquid for
• Heating in a lyophilized form
• Irradiating with ultraviolet light

A

AOTA

97
Q

Granulocyte transfusions are clinically appropriate for:

A

Patients whi have life-threatening systemic infections that are uncontrolled by antibiotics

98
Q

What is the component of choice for a patient with CGD?

A

Granulocytes

99
Q

Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat:

A

Factor IX deficiency

100
Q

Perfluorocarbons have been investigated as:

A

RBC substitute

101
Q

Which of the ff. is usually employed to start an IV line prior to blood transfusion?

A

Normal (0.9%) saline

102
Q

The most severee form of HDN is associated with:

A

Anti-D

103
Q 
Blood for intrauterine transfusion should be all of the ff. EXCEPT:
• More an 7 days old
• Screened for CMV
• Gamma irradiated
• Compatible with maternal serum
A

❌ More an 7 days old
✅ Screened for CMV
✅ Gamma irradiated
✅ Compatible with maternal serum

104
Q

Blood products are tested for which virus before being tranfused to newborns?

A

CMV

105
Q

Commonly used blood banl antisera should be routinely stored at _____ deg Celsius when not in use.

A

2 to 6 deg Celsius

106
Q

The major advanatge of gel technology is:

A

Standardization

107
Q

Detemine what incompatibility is demonstrated:
Donor: Group A
Patient: Group O

A

Incompatible in major crossmatch

108
Q 
Which of the ff. is positive for the compound antigen ce(f)?
• R1R2
• R2r'
• rr
• AOTA
A

rr (dce/dce)

109
Q

The glass surface of an Rh viewbox should be ________ deg Celsius.

A

Bet. 45 and 50 deg Celsius

110
Q

Which Duffy phenotype offers the greatest resistance to invasion by malarial parasites?

A

Fyn(a-b-)

111
Q

Antigens are carried on the decay accelerating factor (DAF) and are distributed in body fluids and on red cells, white cells, platelets, and placental tissue:

A

Cromer

112
Q

Antibodies formerly classified as HTLAs:

A

Anti-Ch/Rg

113
Q

Rh immune globulin provides ______________ protection against fetal D Ag:

A

Passive

114
Q

If an Rh-negative woman recently delivered an Rh positive baby and the Kleihauer-Betke test results is 5%, how many vials of Rh Ig should be administered?

A

Volume of FMH = % fetal x 50 cells
Vol. of FMH = 250

Number of Rh Ig = vol. of FMH/30 +1
No. of Rh Ig = 9 (8 +1)

115
Q 
If a group AB, Rh-neg patient is admitted with massive bleeding, which of the ff. units of packed cells would be the LEAST desirable to transfuse?
• Group O Rh-neg
• Group A Rh-neg
• Group O Rh-pos
• Group B Rh-ngpeg
A

Group O Rh-pos

116
Q

If a prospective allogeneic donor has received blood or blood components known to be sources of hepatitis (e.g. Surgery), the donor should be deferred from donating for ______________ after transfusion:

A

12 months

117
Q

Min. number of platelets in a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood by centrifugation:

A

RD Platelets (LS-HS) = 5.5x10^10

*Pheresis = 3.0x10^11

118
Q

Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?

A

42 days

SAGM — Adsol, Nutricel, Optisol

119
Q

Graft-versus-host disease is caused by:

A

Lymphocytes (T cell; irradiated blood component)

120
Q

The radiation source for irradiation of blood products is:

A

137 Cesium

121
Q

Once defrosted, cryoprecipitate must be administered within ___________ of thawin.

A

6 hours

122
Q

Perfluorocarbons have been investigated as:

A

RBC substitutes (⬆️ O2 capacity)

123
Q

If a donor weight, how much blood can be safely be drawn?

A

(Donor’s wt/ideal wt) x 450
(105/110) x 450
430 (429.6)

124
Q 
Allogeneic donor blood collected and processes from outside sources must have the ff. tests repeated by the hospitsl blood bank:
• ABO
• Rh
• HBsAg
• Anti-HIV1
A

ABO and Rh

125
Q

The minimum HGB concentration in g/dL in a fingerprick from a male donor is:

A

12.5 g/dL

126
Q

The required HGB and HCT for autologous donation should be at least:

A

Hgb: 11 g/dL
Hct: 33%

127
Q 
Autologous blood donor units must be tested for:
• ABO
• Rh
• HBsAg
• Anti-HIV1
A

ABO and Rh

128
Q

Samples of recipient’s blood and donor units must be stored for _____ days after transfusion:

A

7 days

129
Q

A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of __________________ occuring in assoc. with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation:

A

1 deg Celsius or more

130
Q

Blood component most frequently assoc. with transfusion reaction due to bacterial contamination:

A

Platelet concentrate

131
Q

The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:

A

Platelet concentrates

132
Q

Of the deaths caused by bacterial contamination of blood components reported to CDC, most are caused by blood components contaminated by:

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

133
Q

Polysoecific AHG reagents contains:

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
Rabbit

*Monospecific: Anti-IgG or anti-C3d; mouse

134
Q

A positive DAT may be found in which of the ff. situations?

A

HDN

135
Q

Each unit of WB will yield approx. how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?

A

80

136
Q

Accdg. to AABB standards, 75% of all platelet pheresis units shall contain how many platelts per uL?

A

3.0x10^11

137
Q

What blood component is the best source of Factor IX?

A

Prothrombin complex (Factors 2, 7, 9, 10)

138
Q

Hives and itching are symptoms of what transfusion reaction?

A

Allergic

139
Q

Cold agglutinin syndrome is best assoc. with which of the ff. blood groups?

A

Ii

140
Q

Rejuvenation of a unit of RBCs is a method used to:

A

Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels

141
Q

Based upon Kleihauer-Betke test results, which of the ff. formulas is used to determine the vol. of feto-maternal hemorrhage in mL of while blood?

A

% of fetsl cells x 50

142
Q

Accdg. to the AABB standards, what is the min. pH required for platelets?

A

6

143
Q

What transfusion reaction occurs after infusion of only a few mL of blood and gives no history of fever?

A

Anaphylactic

144
Q 
Which Ag gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding Ab following tx of the RCs with proteolytic enzymes?
• Fya
• S
• E
• M
A

E

145
Q

A lectin with anti-N specificity:

A

Vicia graminea

146
Q

What would be the component of choice for tx of vWD?

A

Cryoprecipitated AHF

147
Q

If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1-6 deg Celsius, what is the max. allowable storage period in hours?

A

24 hours

148
Q

The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive DAT by which of the ff. mechanisms?

A

Membrane modification

149
Q

Characteristic of anti-I:

A

Frequently a cold agglutinin

150
Q

The mechanism that best explains HA due to penicillin is:

A

Drug adsorption

151
Q

Post-transfusion anaphylactic reactions occur often in px with:

A

IgA deficiency

152
Q

Hydroxyethyl starch (HEZ) is a rouleaux-promoting agent used to:

A

Increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis

153
Q

What is the proper storage temp. requirements for granulocytes?

A

Room temperature without agitation

MAVM: Blood Banking (1 decks)

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