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Anatomy Exam 1 > Internal Med COPY > Flashcards

Internal Med COPY Flashcards

1
Q

MHC) class II complex communicates with what cells?

A

Helper T Cells

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2
Q

MHC) class I complex complex communicates with what cells?

A

CD8 Cytotoxic T cells

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3
Q

what type of nucleus to neutrophils possess?

A

segmented, 3-5 lobe nucleus

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4
Q

monocyte/macrophages possess what type of nucleus?

A

bilobed nucleus

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5
Q

What cells release histamine?

A

Basophils and Mast cells

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6
Q

What cells use MHC II to communicate with Helper T cells?

A

Macrophage and Monocytes, B cells, and Dendric Cells

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7
Q

hematologic stem cell produces

A

myeloid stem cells (Granular) -> basophils-eosinophils-neutrophils

Lymphoid Stem cells -> T and B lymphocytes

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8
Q

Mature populations of NK cells are found

A

blood and spleen

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9
Q

Chemotherapy causes a reduction in what cells?

A

phagocytes

Monocytes, and Macrophages

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10
Q

The first , second, and third line of defense?

A

1- Physical and chemical barriers, Phagocytes, reflexes

  1. Inflammation/immune response, complement system, plasma proteins
  2. Adaptive immunity
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11
Q

vaccinations are an example of

A

active accquired immunity

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12
Q

transplacental transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus is an example of…

A

passive acquired immunity

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13
Q

active site on an antigen that binds to a T-cell

A

epitope

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14
Q

antibody structure has 2 ____ and 2 ____, which determines gene expression?

A

2 identical light and heavy chain

heavy chain determines gene expression

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15
Q

4 functions of immunoglobulins

A

directly attack antigens

complement system

anaphylaxis by releasing histamine

antibody-mediated hypersensitivity

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16
Q

LgM does what?

A

Primary Immunoglobin in immune response, on the surface of B cells.

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17
Q

LgG does what?

A

Major immunoglobulin synthesized during a secondary immune

-Antibacterial, antiviral, LONGTERM immunity

-Crosses placenta to protect newborn

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18
Q

IgA does what?

A

Found on body surfaces, in secretions

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19
Q

IgE does what?

A

present at very low levels in the blood and is

-Parasites

-Allegric reaction by causing mast cell and basophil to release histamine

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20
Q

LgD does what?

A

low levels in the blood

  • Found on Naive B cells
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21
Q

The most potent antigen presenting cell, crucial to stimulating primary immune response

A

Dendritic Cell

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22
Q

helper T cell

6 functions

A
  1. Help B cells produce antibodies
  2. activate macrophage
  3. proliferate CD8 cells
  4. helping NK cells
  5. Recruit neutrophils
  6. downregulate immune system

example of something it DOESNT do: produce antibodies

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23
Q

What cells produce antibodies?

A

B cells

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24
Q

cell-mediated immunity is comprised of

A

T cells.

Cell mediated immunity is NOT always beneficial to the host (It is responsible for donor tissue rejection and autoimmune disease)

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25
Q

5 phases of the immune system

A

recognition ->
amplification->
effector ->
termination ->
memory ->

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26
Q

phase 1: recognition

A

innate immune receptors bind to pathogen/antibodies on invader

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27
Q

phase 2: amplification

A

complement cascades,

production of soluble factors (cytokines,

recruitment of neutrophils (cell army)

IF ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY: Proliferation of T cells and B cells

One antigen-activated lymphocyte replicates into an army of clones that all express the same antigen receptors

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28
Q

3) effector phase

A

-removal of antigens by a number of different mechanisms

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29
Q

4.) termination phase

A

-dampens the immune system after the antigen has been cleared

-protects host from excessive immune response

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30
Q

5.) memory phase

A

Generation of longlived T cells and B cells, these new cells have a lowered threshold for activiation and will respond quick next time

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31
Q

Exercise over 30 minutes causes what?

A

Rise in the level of neutrophils and macrophages

but lowers the level of lymphocytes for 2-4 hours after

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32
Q

regular exercise has a _________ effect

A

Anti inflammatory

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33
Q

Primary autoimmune deficiency means….

A

defect involving T cells, B cells, or lymphoid tissues

(from birth)

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34
Q

Secondary autoimmune deficiency means…

A

result of infection, aging, malnutrition, chemotherapy, autoimmune disorders, or immunosuppression

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35
Q

HIV is what kind of virus?

RNA or DNA

A

RNA

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36
Q

What two cells are effected by HIV?

A

CD4 and Macrophages

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37
Q

True or False: will you have HIV antibodies immediately after infection?

A

No, so you will test negative for HIV innitially

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38
Q

Asymptomatic HIV Disease CD4 cell count criteria

A

500 cells/mm or more CD4 cells

Person will test positive for HIV

fatigue and generalized lymphadenopathy with swollen and firm lymph glands may be observed during this stage

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39
Q

Symptomatic HIV Disease CD4 cell count criteria

A

500-200cells/mm

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40
Q

HIV becomes AIDS if you have ____ amount of CD4 left

A

200 cells/mm

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41
Q

Type I hypersensitivity means

A

IgE mediated

IMMEDIATE/ ALLERGIES

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42
Q

Type II hypersensitivity means

A

(Tissue-Specific) Hypersensitivity

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43
Q

Type III hypersensitivity means

A

(Immune Complex-Mediated) Hypersensitivity

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44
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity means

A

(Cell-Mediated Immunity) Hypersensitivity

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45
Q

2 Immunoglobulins invovled in type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG and IgM

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46
Q

type II (tissue-specific) hypersensitivity diseases

A

-Myasthenia gravis
-Graves disease (hyperthyroidism)
-Insulin-resistant diabetes

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47
Q

Systemic Lupus is what kind of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 3

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48
Q

What immunoglobulins are invovled in type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG, IgM, and occasionally IgA

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49
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity(Cell-Mediated Immunity) disease examples:

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Multiple sclerosis
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Hashimoto thyroiditis, inflammatory bowel disease and others

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50
Q

What cell is involved in type IV hypersensitivity

A

T lymphocyte-mediated

(NO IMMUNOGLOBULINS)

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51
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity is the delayed type, responsible for donor tissue rejection?

A

Type 4

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52
Q

How many autoimmune diseases are identified?

A

56

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53
Q

Central tolerance

A

Self-antigen lymphocytes are killed during their maturation in lymphoid organs

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54
Q

Periphrial tolerance

A

Self-antigen lymphocytes are killed after they mature and leave the lymph organs by regulatory T cells

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55
Q

True or false: Certain bacteria, mycoplasmas, and viruses can trigger autoimmunity

A

TRUE

56
Q

What antigen is it important to match for donor tissues?

A

human leukocyte antigen

57
Q

5 common signs of infection:

A

-Fever

-Chills

-Increase in leukocyte number OR change in leukocyte type

-malaise

-enlarged lymphnodes

58
Q

Signs of infection in an older adult may be

A

Subtle or atypical, change in mental status, lower body temp, brady or tachicardia, decreased appetite

59
Q

Normal WBC count?

A

5k to 10k per mm

60
Q

Leukocytosis vs Leukopenia

A

Cytosis: Over 10k per mm of wbc

Under 4k is leukopenia

61
Q

Normal body temp range and avg?

A

96.8 to 99.5

AVG: 98.6

62
Q

smallest known organisms, only RNA or DNA nucleus covered in proteins, cannot self replicate

A

Viruses

63
Q

nusual, self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes

antibiotics that effect cell wall have no effect on them

A

mycoplasmas

64
Q

Single celled microorganisms with well defined cell wall that can grow independently without the need for other cells

A

bacteria

65
Q

Pathogen primarily from animals and insects

gram negative

often cause life threatening infections

A

ricketssiae

66
Q

Gram negative color?

Gram positive?

A

Negative : Pink

Positive: Purple

67
Q

Smaller than ricketssiae but larger than viruses.

Unlike viruses, They contain both DNA and RNA

Like viruses, they depend on a host for replication

A

chlamydiae

68
Q

Single-cell unit or group of nondifferentiated cells

cell membranes instead of cell walls

flat worms, round worms

A

protozoa

69
Q

Unicellular or fillamentus organisms possessing hyphae

relatively little specialization

surrounded by cell walls and containing nuclei (eukaryocyte)

A

fungi

70
Q

fungal diseases in human beings are called….

A

Mycoces

71
Q

Infectious particles that are proteins with no RNA or DNA

Long latency period/ deadly

transmissible spongiform encephalopathy/mad cow disease

A

prions

72
Q

the chain of transmission

A

1.Pathogen or agent
2.Reservoir
3.Portal of exit
4.Mode of transmission
5.Portal of entry
6.susceptable host

73
Q

largest role in determining the risk for infection and the ability of the host to combat organisms

A

immune status of the person

74
Q

principle pathogens vs opportunistic pathogens

A

Principle: Regularly cause disease in people with intact immune system

Opportunistic: only cause problems in people who are immunodeficient

75
Q

pathogenicity vs virulence

A

Pathogenicity: ability of the organism to induce disease, speed of growth and damage to tissue

Virulence: Ability to cause serious disease (Number of deaths / number of people with disease)

76
Q

fomite means

A

Inanimate object that microorganisms chill on to transfer to new host

77
Q

Airborne transmission particle size

A

-5 um or less

78
Q

vehicle transmission means

A

How something like salmonella spreads,

From bad food, water, or an IV

79
Q

Vector transmission

A

Through an insect or animal

80
Q

standard precautions involve…

A

following blood-borne pathogen protocols, and assuming any person may be contagious is an example of…

81
Q

3 most common HAI

A

Pnemonia

GI (C difficile)

and Surgical site infection

82
Q

indwelling urethral catheters cause what percent of UTI?

A

70-80%

83
Q

Percent of patients on ventalator that develop VAP(Ventilator pnemonia?

A

5-10%

84
Q

What accounts for 20% of HAIs
-Most common, most costly

A

surgical site infections

85
Q

Clostridioides (Formerly Clostridium) difficile infections (CDI) Occurs where?

What are the symptoms?

A

Primarily hospitals

Fecal-Oral route: Diarrhea

86
Q

Staphylococcal Infections primarily effect who?

What are the symptoms?

How does it spread?

A

Patients with chronic skin lesions, insulin dependent, HIV-infected patients

Symptoms: Infection of burns, wounds, lesions and can cause toxic shock

spreads via direct contact

87
Q

Psuedonomas most commonly spread where?

How does it spread?

A

Nursing homes

effects circulatory and integumentary system. Fruity odor, blue/green discoloration of wounds, spreads via contact or vehicle of transmission

88
Q

Penicillin works how?

A

INHIBIT penicillin-binding proteins,

results in impaired production of peptidoglycans, means ur cell walls aint shit, homes.

89
Q

erythromycin, and the tetracyclines work how?

A

Effect RIBOSOME to inhibit MESSENGER RNA translation

90
Q

trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine

A

Inhibit function of nucleic acids by ganking all the folic acid

91
Q

4 stages of viral replication?

A

Attachment -> penetration -> biosynthesis -> maturation/release

92
Q

HIV type I drug?

A

-reverse transcriptase inhibitors

  • can stop it from replicating and spreading
93
Q

group of proteins synthesized as part of the immune response to viral infection

A

Interferons

-exert nonspecific antiviral activity
-control cell differentiation
-limit excessive cell proliferation

94
Q

RNA VIRUSES

A

COVID

HEPATITIS A AND C

INFLUENZA A and B

HIV

95
Q

DNA VIRUSES

A

HERPES

HEP B

varicella zoster virus

ADENOVIRUS

96
Q

-HSV-1 effects how many people in americans?

A

70%

-cold sores

97
Q

You can only get shingles if you’ve had…

A

Chickenpox

98
Q

influenza lasts…

A

3-7 days

99
Q

-azole drug suffix

A

antifungal

100
Q

-cillin

-cycline

-mycin

A

Antibacterial drugs

101
Q

What % of cancers are genetic vs what % are from risk factors?

A

5-10% genetic

90-95% from risk factors

102
Q

When a tumor has completely lost identity with the parent tissue

A

Anaplastic

103
Q

the hallmark feature of malignant disease?

A

Anaplasia

104
Q

Being older than what age is a risk factor for cancer?

A

50

some experts say 40 though

105
Q

Oncogenes are?

A

Cancer causing genes

106
Q

protooncogenes are?

A

Normal non-cancer causing oncogenes

107
Q

factors affecting cancer cell growth

A
  • Inactivation of proapotopic factors
  • Hella’ telomerase enzyme

-Persistent inflammation

108
Q

-erol and -phylline are what kind of drug?

A

Bronchodialator

109
Q

5 most common sites for metastasis are

A

Lyphnodes

Liver

Bone

Brain

Lungs

110
Q

Which part of the skeleton is most commonly metastasized

A

axial skeleton

111
Q

Cancer staging:

A

Stage 0: In situ

Stage 1: Localized in primary organ

Stage 2: Increase risk of spread due to size

Stage 3: Localized spread to nearby regions

Stage 4: spreads distantly to far away parts of body

112
Q

What’s worse? Anaplasia, Metaplasia, or Dysplasia?

A

ANAPLASIA

113
Q

Hepatic system metastases is…

A

One of the most ominous signs of advanced cancer

right upper quadrant pain, general malaise and fatigue, anorexia, early satiety and weight los

114
Q

cell cycle

A

G0 Rest

G1 Pre-synthesis

S- Dna Synthesis

G2- pre-miotic

M- miotic stage/ division

115
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the G2 phase…

A

G2 phase

116
Q

alkylating agents

A

-Alkyl group acts as the bridge that ultimately links two bases in the DNA molecule
-The bonds formed by this cross-linking are strong and resistant to breakage
-Thus, the DNA double helix remains tied up for the cell’s life.

117
Q

antimetabolites

A

Impair biosynthesis of genetic material 2 ways

  1. Drug incorporates directly into genetic material
  2. Occupies enzyme responsible for metabolism
118
Q

Overall incidence of cancer peaked in the

A

Early 1990s

119
Q

Growth fraction typically ___ as a tumor gets larger

A

Decreases

120
Q

True or false: exercise can cause immunosuppression in young people, but for older adults it does not

A

Suprisingly, true

121
Q

What immune cell was most altered by overtraining exercise?

A

Neutrophils

122
Q

Humoral Immunity cells?

Cell mediated immunity cells?

A

Humoral= B cells

Cell Mediated= T cells

123
Q

T(reg) lymphocytes do what?

A

Prevent inappropriate responses against self antigens

124
Q

Translocations can create….

A

Fusion Proteins

125
Q

What is the gene responsible for programmed cell death?

A

p53

126
Q

In TNM, M0 means

A

No distant metastises

M1 means it’s present

127
Q

Where is the most common location for the spread of cancer?

A

Lungs

128
Q

Anti-metabolites work how?

A

Inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis

129
Q

True or false: Urine is not involved in the humoral immune system

A

true

130
Q

What portion of the antibody binds to an antigen?

A

FAB fragment

131
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma is most likely to effect what patients?

A

Advanced HIV

132
Q

For immunocompromised patients what can be a common reservoir

A

reusable equipment

133
Q

Mild symptoms of systemic lupus can be managed with…

A

nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication

134
Q

True or false: Is measles an airborne disease?

A

TRUE

135
Q

Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions
Contact precautions

all require that a patient have a....
A

Private room

136
Q

Penicillin effects: Peptoglycans

Cyclones effect: Ribosomes and messenger RNA translation

A
137
Q

-Avir is ….

-Azole is…

A

Avir = antibiotic

Azole = antifungal

Anatomy Exam 1 (9 decks)

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