interpreting test result Flashcards

1
Q

what is the basic clinical process?

A

it is a consultation that is a history or exam and then a lab request and then a report

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2
Q

what is the purpose of the tests?

A

to rule in or rule out - most will rule out and form a differential diagnosis

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3
Q

how many diagnoses depend on laboratory tests?

A

up to 70%

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4
Q

what is the service discipline of chemical pathology?

A

diagnosis, screening, monitoring and therapeutic control

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5
Q

who does the service discipline provide advice to?

A

individual cases and clinical care protocols

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6
Q

what is the role of the major clinical science in chemical pathology?

A

it is research into the biochemical basis of disease, it provides support for clinical trials, science for diagnosis and bridges pre-clinical and clinical subjects

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7
Q

what are the major subjects of chemical pathology?

A

metabolism, endocrinology, homeostasis and physiological systems

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8
Q

what is the normal range?

A

it is the range of results that can be expected in a healthy population - it defines the values of biochemical tests found in a healthy population against which the patient values can be compared

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9
Q

what is the issue with the normal range?

A

it is not really normal - all patients differ and we do not use ‘normal’ patients all the time when defining - artificial concept - no clear boundaries exist

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10
Q

what is the reference range?

A

it is the frame of reference to make a decision against - you take a normal distribution of patients and put +/- 2SDs to find the range - they are a guide - not fixed

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11
Q

what are the difficulties of ideal tests?

A

they are rarely available - sensitivity and specificity rarely coexist - there is always overlap

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12
Q

how would you improve tests?

A

chose a more appropriate sample normal population,. use a combination of tests with low cost sensitive test first line and high cost specific test second line and combine tests to test for multiple things at once - e.g. PKU and hypothyroidism in neonatals

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13
Q

what are appropriate normal populations?

A

same presenting symptom, same age, gender, hospitalised normals and same underlying condition

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14
Q

explain the factors affecting reference ranges?

A
age 
gender 
diet - change status 
ethnicity 
time of month and day - hormones
time of year - vit D and calcium 
weight 
stimulus 
glucose tolerance
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15
Q

what are the factors that affect interpretation?

A

different therapeutic ranges for different drugs in different patients and action limits - may not be a normal range or may be more interested in risk factors

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16
Q

what is the lower and upper ranges for therapeutic control?

A

lower - effectiveness

upper - toxicity

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17
Q

what is the therapeutic range for cholesterol?

A

we want people on the lower part of the curve - ideal is 5.2, range is from around 6.5-12 - when lower than this want to focus on diet and in this want to focus on medications

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18
Q

what is the therapeutic control for phenytoin?

A

want to be at a level where are neither under treated nor over but are fit free. Titrate the dose and monitor levels of drugs to see: effectiveness, if they are taking and toxicity.

19
Q

how would you treat a patient with paracetamol poisoning?

A

take dose and read to see if need antidote. Find out how much taken and replace glutathione to divert toxic products into harmless - prevent liver failure - methionine if given soon enough can reverse - by 12 hours

20
Q

what must you ensure when interpreting biochemical values?

A

they are read in light of appropriate reference range, they are taken at right conditions and you understand normal physiological regulation for each patient `

21
Q

what is protein glycosylation?

A

protein + glucose = advanced glycosylated endproducts
non-enzymatic process
rate dependent on time and glucose concentration

22
Q

what it HbA1c?

A

it is a stable glycosylated haemoglobin - percentage concentration indicates cumulative glucose exposure

23
Q

what is aspirin often used for?

A

over dose - salicylate OD

24
Q

what can paracetamol OD result in?

25
what is surveillance?
it is a process of gathering information to preempt disease outbreak or identify early
26
what is trimethoprim?
it is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor that is used in treatment in UTIs
27
what is commonly used to treat cytomegalovirus?
ganciclovir
28
what is disinfection?
it is a method of removing sufficient numbers of potential harmful micro-organisms to make an item safe to use
29
what is the last line drugs for multiresistant enterobacteriacae?
meropenem
30
what parasitic disease commonly causes diarrhoea?
cryptosporidiosis
31
what enables the horizontal transfer of resistance?
transponons
32
what is zidovudine?
it is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that is a analogue of thymidine
33
what is fluconazole?
it is a commonly used triazole drug
34
what is commonly used to treat anaerobic bacterial infection?
metronidazole
35
what are tetracyclines?
they are protein synthesis inhibitors - inhibit RNA translocation
36
what disease is notifiable, preceded by Koplik's spots and it caused by paramyxovirus?
measles
37
what is a adverse side effect of azole treatment?
hepatotoxicity
38
what is a common method of reducing susceptibility to infection?
immunisation
39
what is ergosterol and what is peptidoglycan?
ergosterol is a component of fungal cell membranes and peptidoglycan is the main component of bacterial cell walls
40
what is sterilisation?
is is exposing single use disposable equipment to ionising radiation
41
what group of bacteria may have acquired resistance to vancomycin?
enterococci
42
what is aspergillosis?
it is a condition due to chronic pulmonary fungal infection
43
what is nevirapine?
it is a non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
44
what is a devastating disease in pregnancy?
rubella - non specific rash but usually mild if not pregnant