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CE-650 FSI GS > Intial / Recurrent CE650 GS > Flashcards

Intial / Recurrent CE650 GS Flashcards

1
Q

As you are lining up on the runway for takeoff what light will be illuminated on the annunciator panel assuming everything is normal.

A

PAC HP Valve Open

Ground Idle

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2
Q

Electronic memory aid

DC _______ and AC ________

A

lies

doesn’t not share

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3
Q

how long does it take to extend the flaps from:

0 - 7

7 - 20

A

12-14 seconds

4 secsonds

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4
Q

Before starting the second engine

A

Ground Idle switch in HIGH

and

Amps less then 200

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5
Q

Min fuel

A

700 lbs, 350 in each wing

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6
Q

How many drain valves and where are they located

A

12

5 - lt

4 - Rh

3 empennage

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7
Q

if the brakes stop working on touchdown

A

recycle Anti Skid switch

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8
Q

The Ailerons are ________ boosted like power steering

The captains control wheel is connected to the ailerons via _______ The copilot is connected to the ______

A

Hydraulic

Captain - cable

Copilot - Hyd Assist (Roll Spoilers)

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9
Q

Total number of vortex generators and how many are on each wing.

How many can be missing

A

22

11

1

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10
Q

Total number of static wicks and how many can be missing

Which static wick can not be missing as per the MEL

A

23

2, not adjacent

On the singer

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11
Q

On Landing how many annunciators lights will be illuminated when TR are deployed assuming everything is normal

A

6 + 1

ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY

RUDDER BIAS

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12
Q

TR are to be tested ______ at a time

A

1

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13
Q

Max rev thrust is _______%

A

91%

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14
Q

All switches are ______ activated

A

DC

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15
Q

Pneumatic bleed valves are held closed, when they loose power the valves _______

A

open

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16
Q

when using pneumatic bleed air for A/I, PAC in HIGH or HP Bleed air is _________

A

prohibited

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17
Q

what 3 gauges can be seen in the left nose equipment area?

A
  • Emergency Gear and brake
  • NWS accumulator
  • W/S Alcolhol
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18
Q

Leave gen ______ for GPU starts

GPU starts count as ______ battery starts

A

OFF

0

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19
Q

How do you know if the generator field relay is open

A

Volt indicate 0

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20
Q

Landing lights may cause up to ______ of magnetic variation

A

10 deg

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21
Q

what makes up Passenger lights

A

Overhead
Reading
Footwell

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22
Q

min fuel in left tank to fill fus tank during overwing fueling

A

175 gallons - 1,100 lbs

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23
Q

Engine start can be aborted anytime by pressing the __________

A

starter disengage switch

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24
Q

Reasons to shut down engine start

A

HOT, ITT limit
HUNG, no N1 20 seconds
No light off, 10 seconds

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25
Q

APR will increase N1 by

A

1%

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26
Q

the EEC requires ___V

A

14 - 30 V

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27
Q

The mechanical N2 governor in the FCU is at ______% N2 to provide overspeed protection

A

105%

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28
Q

X-gen start in flight is

A

inhibited

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29
Q

Landing Gear locks PAC Bleed select to

A

LP

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30
Q

If svc air is lost pressure in the cabin

A

increases

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31
Q

max alt with a hydraulic issue

A

45,000

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32
Q

OFV sequence after landing

A

60 sec 300 fpm
60 fully open

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33
Q

Flap setting for Takeoff Alt above 8,000

A

7

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34
Q

Engine Fuel burn both engines

A

10 lbs/min

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35
Q

Average taxi time and fuel burn

A

20 min, 200 lobs

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36
Q

Rt and LT P/S switch control

A

LT - P/S, AOA

RT - P/S, Rudder bias

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37
Q

max quantity of w/s alcohol and time limit

A

2 quarts

15 min

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38
Q

roll spoilers move after _____” of control movement

A

3.5”

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39
Q

Vref is _____Vs0

A

1.3

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40
Q

N2 Lights

Green

Red

A

48 - 99.9%

> 99.9%

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41
Q

use_________ in the III with W/S bleed air on, on ground, due to lack of ram air

A

Caution

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42
Q

Actions to take if both batteries overheat

A

Batt sw off

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43
Q

Rotary test is required on the ________

Start with ______ to check all lights are working

VII - Rotary test requires w/s heat switch to be selected ______ during Rotary w/s temp test

A

first flight of day

ANNUN

ON

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44
Q

AP basic mode consist of

A

Hdg select and alt hold

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45
Q

AP _____ be tested before use

A

must

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46
Q

if PRI Trim is INOP, AP is

A

Inop

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47
Q

Flap up speed

A

v2 + 25

Vref + 25

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48
Q

STBY GYRO switch must be _____ for automatic transfer to emergency battery pack

A

ON

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49
Q

Gyro slave in manual moves LH and RH at _____ per min

A

30 deg

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50
Q

VERT GYRO switch to FAST acts as a _______

A

timer for AHRS

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51
Q

Attempting to override the feedback cable “snatcher” or advance throttles prior to unlock extingushing light requires _______

A

Mx inspection

52
Q

Engine start, test flood lights ________

A

backup, dedicated emergency, battery

53
Q

When the aileron boost looses pressure a ______ horn will sound and the _____ trips off

A

warning

AP

54
Q

On A/C without INV ON/OFF switch

Avionics switch turns on _____ and _____ equipment

A

AC and DC equipment

55
Q

the Red gun in the display is the ________ to fail

A

1st

56
Q

TFE 731, 731 means

A

731 lbs

57
Q

N2 produces _______

N1 Produces ________

A

Power

Thrust

58
Q

engine holds _______ qts of oil

oil breather closes at _________

1 sensor for the __________

1 sensor for the _______

A

11.6

27,000 - 30,000

annunciator

gauge

59
Q

APU produces ______ amps and _____ volts

A

150

28

60
Q

________ batteries need to be charged at the same time

A

both

61
Q

Junction box connects heaver ______amp wire to smaller _____ amp wire

A

365

75

62
Q

if one batter is 24 volts and the second is 19 volts the second battery is

A

faulty

63
Q

with the generators online switch the batt switch to ______ to read battery voltage from the HBB

A

off

64
Q

Engine fire bottle _______ oxygen

A

displaces

65
Q

smoke detector is next to the OFV where air is the ________

A

thickest

66
Q

wing fuel tanks are _______

fus fuel tank is a _______

A

wet tanks, fuel on metal

bladder

67
Q

Fuel flow pressure to the engine is _________

A

1450 psi

68
Q

wing fuel tanks are not ______

A

pressurized

69
Q

fuel transfers at a rate of approx ______ lbs a min

A

25

70
Q

the aft vanity FUS FUEL Transfer T handle ________ the transfer valve, pushing the handle in does NOT ______ the valve and pulling the T handle does ______ trigger the light

A

opens

close

does not

71
Q

NWS accumulator provides

A

3-4 90deg turns

72
Q

spoiler hold down accumulator _______ pressure and does ______ loose fluid

A

provides

not

73
Q

when does the AUX HYD PUMP turn on

A

Low Pressure -1200 PSI

SPoiler Hold down is on

74
Q

HYD Accumulators do what 3 things

A
  • Store fluid under pressure
  • Absorb system shock
  • Instant Pressure Available to components
75
Q

HYD fluid is _____ compressible

A

not

76
Q

explain Venturi effect

A

Bernoulli’s principle

as fluid travels thru a smaller cross section the pressure decreases and velocity increases

77
Q

Gen is limited to _____ amps on takeoff

A

365 amps

78
Q

receiving wing tank boost pump must be ______ during fuel transfer

A

off

79
Q

SPPR must be accomplished in accordance to the ______

A

Placard

80
Q

red light on rotary test _______ when out of off

A

illuminates

81
Q

Pri Trim may need to be ________ to for Rotary test to illuminate PRI TRIM Fail light

A

actuated

82
Q

On models 0-178 with automatic transfer of Inverters

The left switc” AKA Avionics Master controls the ____ components of the avionics equipment. The INV switch controls the ____ components of the avionics equipment.

On Models 179 and on the Avionics Power ON switch controls both _____ and _______ components of the avionics.

A

DC

AC

DC and AC

83
Q

All equipment on the Emergency buss will ______ if BATT switch is off due to overheat and generators are on

A

operate

84
Q

The horizontal stab test will trigger the annunciator light to illuminate for _______

A

5 seconds

85
Q

Flight crew non essential CB are located in the _______

A

J Box

86
Q

The APU is a ______ stage turb engine the provides _______ , ______ and optional _______

A

single

Service Air
A/C
Hyd

87
Q

The APU is controlled by the _______

The APU will ______ shutdown due to failure or fire.

the fie bottle will automatically discharge the fire after _____ seconds

The Fire bell bell will ring ________

A

ESU, Elec. Seq Unit

automatical

8 seconds

continously

88
Q

________TR Lights

Arm - a pressure switch, indicating the isolation valve is ______ and hydraulics are _______

Unlock - a Microswitch indicating TR _____ movement

Deploy - a Microswitch indicating _____ deployed

No light means Hydraulic Pressure is _______ from the TR’s and the TR’s are stowed in position by an Over-center condition of the operating _________.

A

Open
available

Initial

Fully

Isolated
bar mechanism

89
Q

TR will only deploy when the following 2 conditions are met:

A

WOW

TL in idle

90
Q

Pneumatics:

All Systems use _____ air.

The PACs use ____ and ____ air.

A

HP

HP and LP

91
Q

III

Caution when using W/S heat on ground as no _____ is mixing with HP air

A

Ram Air

92
Q

W/S Bleed Air Switches control the_____ of air

A

volume

93
Q

W/S defog does ____ heat the w/s

A

not

94
Q

AC/DC Gen Inlet heater is _____ monitored

A

not

95
Q

Cycling Engine A/I means

A

wingroot overheat

96
Q

min A/S of _____kts in icing conditions to ______ icing build up on a/c

A

180 kts

prevent

97
Q

Throttle feed back cable holds the throttle in idle at ______ psi

A

600 PSI

98
Q

A/C Dimensions and turning radius

A

55.2’ in length
53.3 wingtip to tip
17.1’ ht of empennage

Min Turn Radius 33.35’

99
Q

Green oxygen disc will rupture if the bottle is _______

A

overpressurized

100
Q

Pax O2 will not flow until the _______ is pulled to conserve O2

A

lanyard

101
Q

Select Pax O2 _____ to conserve O2 for the Crew

A

OFF

102
Q

Mic Oxy Mask and Mic Head Set switch is located where

A

Lt and Rt lower inst panel

103
Q

the walk around portable O2 is _________cb ft

A

11 cubic ft

104
Q

when the aircraft is descending below 8,000’ after a decompression the pax solenoid __________

A

closes

105
Q

Turn IGN _____ in heavy rain as a precaution against flamout

A

ON

106
Q

with WOW Stab Ht will ______ turn on

A

not

107
Q

A stab on light indicates the heating element is ________

stab light cycles on/off indicates ______

A

Cold

Overheat

108
Q

W/S Alcohol is dispersed on the _______ window

A

left

109
Q

The gear takes approximately ________ to cycle

A

4-6 seconds

110
Q

main gear braking is ______. during retraction

A

automatic

111
Q

the HYD dump valve is located _________ and pulling the valve relieves landing gear _______ by opening the ______ valve to release blocked fluid to return

A

in the aft lav

Pressure

112
Q

Do Not _______ gear after free fall

A

retract

113
Q

parking brake _______ fluid return

to use the parking break, if eng are off
_
_

Do not set _____ hot brakes

A

prevents

  • Aux hyd pump on
  • pump toe brake

Not

114
Q

roll spoilers movement begins after _______ of aileron travel

A

3 - 3.5 deg

115
Q

Aileron boost needs to be ________ after power interruption

A

reset

116
Q

clacker sound when stab trim is moving for more then ______

A

1 second

117
Q

Rudder bias provides _________ lbs of rudder pound force

A

125 - 150

118
Q

NWS automatically _________ once airborne

A

Disengages

119
Q

an indication of a floating spoiler is annun by________ and/or _______

A

spoiler up lt, speed brake lt

120
Q

anytime a flap asym is detect the flap control will _______ the flaps

A

disable

121
Q

control lock during taxi out in ________ conditions

A

gusty

122
Q

when a fault in the left or right AOA probe/transmitter the ________ will illuminate

A

AOA prob

123
Q

when their are faulty inputs from the Flap or spoilers to the AOA logic the __________ lt will annunciate

In this cases the stick shaker will will _______ between 0.715 - 0.825 as a fail safe

the AOA gauge, indexer and fast slow indicator will be _____

A

Flaps/Speedbrake

Activate

Off

124
Q

both AOA probes have failed when the following light are illuminated

A
  • Probe and Stall warn Lt
125
Q

During an emergency descent with the AP engaged above 34,275 and bare above 13,500 feet the AP will?

_
_
_

Turn _____ the AP to cancel the Emergency descent mode

A
  • Pitch to maintain Vmo/Mmo
  • 35 deg bank left for approx 48 sec
  • Level at 15,000

OFF

CE-650 FSI GS (32 decks)

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