Into to networks Flashcards
1
Q
- What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
A
neighbor solicitations* echo requests neighbor advertisements* echo replies router solicitations router advertisements
2
Q
- Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
A
FEC0::/10 FDEE::/7 FE80::/10* FF00::/8 Explanation: Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8
3
Q
- What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?
A
0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8*
C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
4
Q
n organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?
A
256*
512
1024
4096
5
Q
- When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?
A
cut-through
store-and-forward*
fast-forward
fragment-free
6
Q
- Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)
A
Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.*
Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.
Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.*
A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
7
Q
- What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
A
It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.*
It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.
8
Q
- What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
A
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.*
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.*
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.*
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
9
Q
- What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)
A
error detection frame delimiting accessing the media* data encapsulation* logical addressing
10
Q
- Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
A
netstat -s route print* show ip route netstat –r* tracert
11
Q
- What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)
A
directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks*
placing data on the network medium
carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts
providing dedicated end-to-end connections
providing end devices with a unique network identifier*
12
Q
- Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
A
Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S.
If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.*
The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.
The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.
If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S.*
13
Q
- How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?
A
It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.*
It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.
Explanation: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.
14
Q
- Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
A
to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
to enable the switch to be managed remotely*
to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.
15
Q
- What characteristic describes identity theft?
A
the use of stolen credentials to access private data*
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
16
Q
- A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?
A
the network domain of the destination host
the IP address of the default gateway
the MAC address of the destination host
the MAC address of the default gateway*
17
Q
- Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
A
The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.*
The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.*
The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.*
TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.
18
Q
What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
A
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240*
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
Explanation:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.
19
Q
- What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
A
IP addresses* interface descriptions MAC addresses next-hop addresses Layer 1 statuses* speed and duplex settings Explanation: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.
20
Q
- A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?
A
ping
nslookup
tracert*
ipconfig /displaydns
21
Q
- A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)
A
Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.*
Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.*
22
Q
- What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?
A
wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
twisting the wires together into pairs*
terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.
23
Q
- A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
A
extensive cabling mobility options packet collision interference* security* coverage área* Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.
24
Q
- Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?
A
virus worm* phishing spam Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.
25
32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
Explanation:
The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.
26
34. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
strengthening of a signal by a networking device
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
time for a signal to reach its destination
loss of signal strength as distance increases*
27
An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*
The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
28
36. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)
```
TCP
IP
UDP
POP*
DNS*
Ethernet
```
29
37. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?
```
automation
accounting
authentication
authorization*
Explanation:
After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.
```
30
39. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection*
operates independently of the network media*
retransmits packets if errors occur
re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
guarantees delivery of packets
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.
31
40. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees. What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)
```
security*
quality of service*
scalability
powerline networking
integrity
fault tolerance*
```
32
41. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
```
improper termination*
low-quality shielding in cable
installing cables in conduit
low-quality cable or connectors*
loss of light over long distances
```
33
42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26*
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.64/29
Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
34
On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
Explanation:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.
35
44. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)
Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.*
Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
Perform the capture on different network segments.*
Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.
Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.
36
45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.*
Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.
It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.
37
46. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
```
Application*
network
data link
sesión*
presentation*
transport
Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
```
38
50. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255. 255.255.128*
255. 255.255.240
255. 255.255.248
255. 255.255.224
39
49. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*
40
48. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
41
51. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)
```
Neighbor Solicitation*
Destination Unreachable
Host Confirmation
Time Exceeded
Router Advertisement*
Route Redirection
```
42
52. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?
DHCP
SMTP
DNS
HTTP*
43
53. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.*
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.
44
54. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?
```
tracert
ipconfig
netstat
nslookup*
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.
```
45
55. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium*
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame*
Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers:
+ Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. It places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.
+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media access processes performed by the hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and delimiting of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium and the type of data link layer protocol in use.
46
56. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?
The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.*
The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway .
47
57. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.*
The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.
Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.
48
59. A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?
DoS
access
reconnaissance*
Trojan horse
49
60. What service is provided by HTTP?
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.*
50
61. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?
FTP
DHCP*
Telnet
SSH
51
62. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.
The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.*
The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.
A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.*
All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.
52
63. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)
```
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
arp -a
tracert
ping*
ipconfig*
nslookup*
telnet
```
53
64. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?
analyze the destination IP address
switch the packet to the directly connected interface*
look up the next-hop address for the packet
discard the traffic after consulting the route table
54
65. What characteristic describes antispyware?
applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software*
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
55
66. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
AUX
SSH*
Console
56
67. What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)
Implement a VPN.
Implement network firewalls.
Implement RAID.
Implement strong passwords.
Update the operating system and other application software.*
Install and update antivirus software.*
Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.
57
68. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?
```
brute-force attack
Trojan horse*
DoS
buffer overflow
Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.
```
58
70. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?
```
User Datagram Protocol field
transport layer error check field
flow control field
frame check sequence field*
error correction process field
```
59
71. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255. 255.255.248*
255. 255.255.0
255. 255.255.128
255. 255.255.192
60
72. What service is provided by POP3?
etrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.*
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
61
73. What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)
```
antispyware
virtual private networks*
intrusion prevention systems*
strong passwords
antivirus software
```
62
74. What characteristic describes antivirus software?
applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software*
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
63
75. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.*
It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.
64
76. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?
DNS
DHCP
SMTP
TFTP*
65
77. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)
```
Configure DNS on the router.
Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
Configure the IP domain name on the router.*
Generate the SSH keys.*
Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.*
Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.
```
66
78. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame*
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection*
67
79. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?
all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link
all IPv6 DHCP servers
all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link*
68
80. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
```
subnet ID*
subnet mask
broadcast address
global routing prefix*
interface ID*
```
69
81. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.*
70
82. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?
Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
Exit global configuration mode.
Power cycle the device.
Reboot the device.
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.*
71
83. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
token passing
CSMA/CA*
priority ordering
CSMA/CD
72
84. What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media*
73
85. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
to end communication when data transmission is complete
to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data*
74
86. What characteristic describes spyware?
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user*
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
75
87. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
store-and-forward switching*
borderless switching
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
76
88. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?
The default gateway is not operational.
The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.*
The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.
77
89. What service is provided by FTP?
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.*
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
78
90. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
```
DNS server*
source port number
HTTP server
source MAC address
default Gateway*
```
79
91. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)
NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.
NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.*
NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.*
NAT improves packet handling.
NAT causes routing tables to include more information.
80
92. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?
255. 255.255.0
255. 255.255.240
255. 255.255.128
255. 255.255.192*
255. 255.255.224
81
94. What service is provided by BOOTP?
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.*
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
82
95. What characteristic describes adware?
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user*
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
83
96. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.*
End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
84
98. Which information does the show startup-config command display?
the IOS image copied into RAM
the bootstrap program in the ROM
the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM*
Explanation:
The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in RAM.
85
What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)
Two physical interfaces have been configured.
The switch can be remotely managed.*
One device is attached to a physical interface.*
Passwords have been configured on the switch.
Two devices are attached to the switch.
The default SVI has been configured.*
Explanation:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.
86
103. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
syslog records and messages
the network performance baseline*
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files
87
104. What characteristic describes a VPN?
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization*
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
88
105. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.*
The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.*
