intro Flashcards

lab math, qc, lab safety, blood collection and spx considerations, instrumentation (98 cards)

1
Q

error where there is continual difference between test & comparative methods values

A

constant error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

error where difference between test & comparative method values are proportional to analyte concentration

A

proportional error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

deterioration of reagents is a problem encountered in what phase of clinical analysis

A

analytical phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ratio of warning to mandatory Westgard rules

A

3:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

QC chart that demonstrates the Westgard multirules

A

Levey-Jennings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most widely used QC chart in the clinical laboratory

A

Levey-Jennings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

QC chart that is used to compare results of different laboratories

A

Youden twin plot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

plot that gives the earliest indication of a trend

A

CuSum graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

closeness of measured values to the true value

A

accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

an ability to give repeated results on the same sample that agree with one another

A

precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Scientists made same experiment with same method & specimen; all had consistent results. This is?

A

reproducibility (precision)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

these are measures of the diagnostic accuracy of a test

A

sensitivity and specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

it relates to the lowest concentration of a substance that can be detected in a test system

A

analytical sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the ability to detect only the chemical desired with no interference from other chemicals

A

analytical specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ability to detect the presence of disease

A

diagnostic sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

indicate the ability of the test to generate more true (+) & few false (-) results

A

diagnostic sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

reflects the ability of the method to detect true (-) with very few false (+)

A

diagnostic specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ability to relate results to a known reference standard through unbroken chain of comparisons

A

traceability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

indicates the number of patients with an abnormal test result who have the disease

A

positive predictive value (PPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the formula for PPV?

A

TP / (TP + FP) * 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

indicates the number of patients with a normal test result who do not have the disease

A

negative predictive value (NPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the formula for NPV?

A

TN / (TN + FN) * 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

part(s) of descriptive statistics

A

central tendency, dispersion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

measures of dispersion

A

variance, SD, CV, range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
it is a percentile expression of the mean
coefficient of variation (CV)
26
the lower the CV, the _ the precision
higher
27
the average of a given set of values
mean
28
middle or midpoint of a distribution
median
29
most frequent observation in a set of data
mode
30
these are important criteria in evaluating instruments
sensitivity and specificity
31
what is a good standard curve?
1. line is straight 2. line connects all points 3. line goes through the origin of x & y axes
32
there is perfect correlation of values in linear regression if value falls on _
1
33
it refers to any clinical lab testing done at the patient's bedside
point-of-care-testing (POCT)
34
test performed usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, RTs, etc.)
POCT
35
nonlaboratory personnel are responsible for _% errors with regard to lab results
29%
36
what to do when POCT-QA issues arise?
train non-laboratory personnel
37
specimen used for point-of-care testing (POCT)
capillary blood
38
QC of POCT instruments should be done _
once each day of use
39
usual cause of random error in the clinical laboratory
clerical error
40
vapor & osmotic pressure, boiling & freezing points are examples of _
colligative properties
41
used to measure osmolality (2)
freezing point depression vapor pressure depression
42
specimen(s) used for osmolality determination
serum or urine
43
how would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal place?
15.6
44
it is the relative concentration of a solution
dilution
45
how much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?
3.8 mL
46
it is the amount of 1 substance relative to the amount of other substance in the solution
concentration
47
instrument that uses diffraction gratings (as commonly used monochromators)
spectrophotometer
48
Beer's law mathematically establishes relationship between concentration and _
absorbance
49
a solution that has a transmittance of 1.0% T would have an absorbance of _
2.0 (formula: absorbance = 2 - log(%T))
50
formula for concentration of the unknown sample (using spectrophotometer)
(Au / As) * Cs
51
visible region
400-700nm
52
UV region
<400nm very short wavelength
53
IR region
>700nm
54
light source in the visible region
tungsten lamp
55
light sources in the UV region
Mercury arc Deuterium Hydrogen lamp Xenon lamp
56
light sources in the IR region (2)
Merst glower Glober (silicone carbide)
57
what does LASER stands for
Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
58
part of spectrophotometer that selects specific wavelength of light
monochromator
59
monochromator specification to measure true absorbance of compound with absorbance bandwidth of 30nm
5-nm bandpass
60
zeroing the spectrophotometer before testing is done usually using _
reagent blank
61
it is used to correct for absorbance caused by the color of reagents
reagent blank
62
most commonly used photodetector, and the most sensitive to low levels of light
photomultiplier tube
63
gold standard for drug testing
GC-MS
64
non-destructive technique for detecting structure of organic compound (lipoprotein particle)
Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (NMRS)
65
effect of quenching on fluorescence
decreased
66
support media for zone electrophoresis include
agarose cellulose acetate polyacrylamide
67
most commonly used stain for serum protein electrophoresis
Ponceau S
68
a type of chemistry analyzer that uses reagents from different manufacturers / suppliers
open system analyzer
69
most basic or simplest pipette
Pasteur pipette (glass/plastic)
70
parts of positive displacement pipette (3)
piston piston seal capillary
71
glassware resistant to heat, corrosion & thermal shock
borosilicate
72
water that has passed through resin with charged particles is known as _
deionized water
73
purpose of desiccators/desiccant
absorbs moisture
74
in general, oxidizers should never be placed with chemicals that are _
reducing agents
75
laboratory hazard prevention strategies include (4)
work practice controls engineering controls PPE emergency equipment
76
hierarchy of hazard controls (most to least effective)
elimination substitution engineering controls administrative controls PPE
77
equipment used to contain & expel noxious & hazardous fumes from chemical reagents
fume hood
78
first step in pre-analytical phase
test order
79
instructing the patient to undergo fasting is part of _
patient preparation
80
disinfectant for ethanol analysis blood collection
benzalkonium chloride
81
preferred site for venipuncture
antecubital veins (median > cephalic > basilic)
82
light source used by vein finders
infrared
83
most commonly used area for adult skin puncture
(2nd), 3rd & 4th finger
84
type of blood specimen for newborns
blood spot
85
ideal site of capillary blood collection in infants
medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel
86
shelf-life (expiration date) of an evacuated tube is defined by
vacuum retention & stability of the additive
87
draw volume of an evacuated tube when stored in low temperature
increased, due to decreased gas pressure inside the evacuated tube
88
draw volume of an evacuated tube when stored in high temperature
decreased, due to increased gas pressure inside the evacuated tube
89
draw volume of an evacuated tube when blood is drawn at high altitude (>5000ft)
lower
90
EDTA anticoagulant elevates what electrolytes
sodium & potassium
91
EDTA anticoagulant decreases what
calcium & iron
92
preferred anticoagulant for electrolyte testing
heparin
93
anticoagulant for lipoprotein assay and preservation
EDTA
94
CTAD anticoagulant is used for?
coagulation testing
95
temperature for lyophilization
-40°C or less
96
blood specimens on serum separator gel tubes must be processed within _
30 minutes
97
how long must a blood sample stand before being centrifuged?
30 minutes
98
normal color of serum
straw / pale yellow