Intro final Flashcards

1
Q

Respiratory physiology and structures

A

Respiratory system (Brings oxygen from the air to body, where it is delivered to the hemoglobin on the red blood cells. At the level of the cells: RBCs with bound hemoglobin deliver oxygen to the tissues within the capillaries RBC picks up carbon dioxide deoxygenated blood returned to the lungs CO2 and O2 exchanged at the level of the capillaries at the lungs CO2 exhaled into air); Respiration: diffusion of gases between the atmosphere and cells of the body (Internal/cellular: exchange between blood and cells; External - absorption of atmospheric oxygen by blood in lungs and diffusion of carbon dioxide from blood in lungs to outside air; Ventilation (intake of fresh air; Natural or assisted)
Structures - Two portions of the respiratory tract: Upper respiratory tract (URT: Nose, mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, larynx); Lower respiratory tract (LRT: trachea, lungs (bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli))

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2
Q

URT - nose

A

swine = snout) - Nas/o and rhin/o combining forms; Opening consists of nares (nostrils); Divided by wall of cartilage (nasal septum); Lined with mucous membranes & cilia; Example term: “rhinitis” – inflammation of the mucous membranes of the nasal passageways
Anatomy review - Nasal passages - Turbinates (conchae: Scroll-like structures that warm, humidify and filter air); Passageways (openings: Dorsal meatus Middle meatus Ventral meatus (nasogastric tubes are passed through here) Common meatus
Spell check - What spelling is used for the lining for the upper respiratory system? Mucous membranes; What is the spelling used for the glandular secretion that helps moisten the air and warm it as it filters into the nose? Mucus

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3
Q

URT - sinuses and pharynx

A

Sinuses - Combining form sinus/o: Example “sinusitis”; Air filled or fluid filled space in bone; Function (Provide mucus; Make bone lighter; Help produce sound); Look at table 9-1 on page 222 (Sinus location in species; All domestic species have a frontal and a maxillary sinus)
Pharynx - Combining form is pharyng/o AKA: throat; Common pathway for the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts; Extends from caudal nasal passages/mouth larynx (voice box), connects the nasal passages to the larynx and the mouth to the esophagus
—- Three divisions: Nasopharynx ; Oropharynx ; Laryngopharynx
—- What structure moves dorsally to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing food? What structure covers the larynx during swallowing?

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4
Q

**URT - larynx, laryngeal hemiplegia, laryngeal paralysis, stridor vs stertor

A

Combining form is Laryng/o AKA: “voice box”; Located between pharynx and trachea Vocal apparatus is found within the glottis Glottis is the space between the vocal cords
What disease did we talk about in dogs that causes a paralysis of one side of the larynx? We can see this in horses too!
Laryngeal hemiplegia - “Roaring” in horses; Caused by paralysis of one or both arytenoid cartilage (Left side affected 95% of time); Primarily racing Thoroughbreds (Also Warmbloods, Draft horses, Standardbreds and Quarter horses Higher prevalence in taller male horses >15 hands); Treatments (“Tie Back” ; Ventriculectomy/Cordectomy ; Arytenoidectomy (Greater risks post op; reserved for ‘Tie Back’ failures)
Laryngeal paralysis in dogs - “Lar Par”; Causes (Damage or degeneration of nerves controlling the laryngeal muscles; Age related; Trauma)
—- Pathology - Trauma, neoplasia, congenital; Acquired: Myasthenia gravis - neuromuscular junctions are diseased = muscle weakness and fatigue.; Geriatric onset laryngeal paralysis and polyneuropathy (GOLPP); Hormonal diseases (cushings, hypothyroidism)
—- Primarily dogs - Middle to older, large or giant breed dog; Common breed: Labrador
—- Tx - Mild cases: Medical management; NSAIDS; Weight loss; Limit activity; Treat underlying cause (myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, etc).
——– Moderate to severe cases: Surgical intervention ; Unilateral Arytenoid Lateralization ; “Tieback”
Stridor vs stertor - Stridor: High pitched musical tone; Example: laryngeal hemiplegia; Tracheal partial obstruction; “lower airway” disease; Stertor: sounds like snoring; “upper airway” disease

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5
Q

**bronchi and alveoli, what is surfactant

A

Bronchi - Combining form is bronch/o; Tracheal bifurcation splits into bronchi; Each bronchus leads to separate lung and divides into smaller portions, creating the “bronchial tree”; Example term: Bronchoscopy; Bronchoscope: a fiber-optic cable that is passed into the windpipe in order to view the bronchi.
—- Trachea ; Tracheal Bifurcation ; Left or Right Primary Bronchus ; Secondary/Lobar Bronchi ; Tertiary/Segmental Bronchi (aka Bronchioles) ; Terminal Bronchioles ; Respiratory Bronchioles (final branches of bronchioles that branch into alveolar ducts)
—- Dyspnea= difficulty breathing; Bronchitis= inflammation of the bronchioles or bronchi
—- Dont typically see bronchi on rads bc they are filled with air; see them when they are diseased
Alveoli - Combining form alveol/o; “Air sacs” where most of the gas exchange takes place ; Functional unit of the lung!!!; Connected to bronchiole via alveolar duct; Alveoli are surrounded by capillaries (O2 and Co2 exchange; What does O2 bind to?)
—- Surfactant - layer of fluid that allows lungs to expand

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6
Q

thorax

A

Combining form thorac/o Contains: Lung: main organ of respiration; Combining forms for lung- pulm/o and pulmon/o; Combining forms for lung or air - pneum/o, pneumon/o, and pneu ; Divided into lobes; What do you think a pneumothorax would be? Air in thorax
Thoracocentesis - Used to collect fluid or gas from the chest cavity; EMERGENCY
Mediastinum: Region between the lungs that holds the heart, aorta, lymph nodes, esophagus, trachea, bronchial tubes, nerves, thoracic duct and thymus.; Encased in pleura (membranous sac)
Parietal pleura - Outer layer lining the inner wall of the thoracic cavity
Visceral pleura - Inner layer lining the outside of the lung
Pleural space - Potential space between the parietal pleura and visceral pleura
Surfactant holds the visceral and parietal layers together
Example: pleuritis, pleural effusion
Pleural effusion - Would the name of the procedure change if we were removing fluid? No! Still thoracocentesis. HOWEVER, the position you will use to remove this air or fluid will change; Air-dorsal; Fluid- ventral

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7
Q

diaphragm

A

Combining form diaphragmat/o and phren/o; Separates thoracic and peritoneal cavities; Contraction causes air pressure in the lungs to drop below atmospheric pressure, which creates a vacuum.; Relaxation of the diaphragm stops the negative pressure and air is forced out of the lung

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8
Q

brachycephalic airway syndrome

A

“The Perfect Storm” of respiratory pathology
Brachycephalic breeds Typically exhibit: Stenotic nares; Narrowed nasal passages; Elongated soft palate; Everted laryngeal saccules; Narrow trachea
Signs and symptoms - History of noisy breathing, especially upon inspiration Retching or gagging, especially while swallowing Exercise intolerance Cyanosis

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9
Q

breathing

A

Combining form spir/o, -pnea; Inhalation/inspiration:drawing in of breath Exhalation/expiration: release of breath; Combining forms for O2 are ox/i, ox/o and ox/y; for CO2 are capn/o
Examples in anesthesia: Hyperventilation can lead to hypocapnia… what does this mean?; - hyperventilation (increased breathing…not the same as panting); -hypocapnia= decreased levels of CO2
Hypoventilation may lead to hypercapnia… what does that mean?
Hypercapnia = increased levels of CO2

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10
Q

eye structures

A

The ocular system is responsible for vision.; The combining forms for the eye or sight are opt/i, opt/o, optic/o, ocul/o, and ophthalm/o.; Extraocular = outside the eyeball; Intraocular = inside the eyeball; Periocular = around the eyeball
Accessory structures - Orbit; Eye muscles; Eyelids or palpebrae (Blepharo- is combining form; Canthus (medial and lateral); Meibomian glands (help with tear production and protective things in eye: line outer surface of lid)); Eyelashes; Conjunctiva (Lines underside of each eyelid; Contains nictitating membrane); Lacrimal apparatus- nasolacrimal duct; OS/OD
Layers of the eye - Cornea and the sclera form the fibrous or outer layer of the eye; Uvea is the vascular middle layer (Contains the iris, ciliary body and choroid; Irid/o; Uve/o; Uveitis- inflammation of the iris and ciliary body); Retina and the optic nerve form the inner layer (Retin/o)
The globe - Fibrous outer layer; Sclera is the fibrous portion that maintains eye shape (“white of the eye”); Cornea is the transparent portion of the anterior part of the sclera (Descemet’s membrane is the deepest layer of the cornea)
—- Descemets membrane - Desmetocele- deepest corneal ulcer; Test to determine depth: fluorescein stain
Cori/o = pupil size… Eg. Anisocoria; Mydriasis- dilated pupils; Miosis- constricted pupils; suffix -tic (describing one pupil)
Uveal tract (vascular middle layer) - Iris: controls amount of light entering the eye (colored portion); Ciliary body: Immediately posterior to the iris, produces aqueous humor; Choroid: thin variably pigmented vascular tissue forming the posterior uvea; Joins the ciliary body and lies between the retina and the sclera
—- Anterior chamber is in front of iris; vitreous humor is behind lens; posterior chamber is behind iris
—- Ciliary body - when it has problems we can get issues like uveitis
Choroid - Thin vascular layer in that makes up the posterior uveal tract; Tapetum lucidum is the bright, reflective portion of the choroid
Retina and Optic Nerve - Innermost/neurologic layer lining posterior chamber; Receives images of the eye via rods (react to light) and cones (react to color and fine detail); Contains optic disc and fundus (back of eye); Ophthalmoscope used to visualize (Direct (directly look at eye) and indirect (use lens and light to look at back of eye))

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11
Q

eye chambers

A

The eye is divided into parts: Anterior segment contains aqueous humor. (anterior chamber; posterior chamber); Vitreous chamber contains vitreous humor.
Fluid needs to be at a certain pressure; can have problems with fluid not draining correctly and too much fluid (leads to increased pressure which can cause glaucoma)

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12
Q

vision and glaucoma

A

Vision - Vision occurs when light rays enter the eye through the cornea, pass through the lens, and travel to the retina; The image is focused on the retina and is then transmitted to the optic nerve; Stimulations are transmitted from the optic nerve, to the optic chiasm, to the midbrain, and to the visual cortex of the occipital lobe of the cerebrum
Glaucoma - Glaucoma- increased intraocular pressure (IOP) in the eye; Can result in a larger than normal globe buphthalmos; Exophthalmos vs buphthalmos (Exophthalmos- normal eye size that is being pushed out of the orbit; Buphthalmos= enlarged globe)

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12
Q

**Fluorescein dye stain
corneal ulceration
ophthalmoscope
palpebral reflex
pupillary light reflex
indolent ulcer
anisocoria
blepharospasm
strabismus
Schirmer tear test

A

Fluorescein dye stain - dx test to detect corneal injury by placing dye on surface of cornea
corneal ulceration - surface depression on the cornea
Ophthalmoscope - instrument used for ophthalmoscopy
palpebral reflex - dx test in which the eye should blink in response to touch the medial canthus of the eye. used to make neurologic assessment of cranial nerves V and VII and to assess depth of anesthesia
pupillary light reflex - response of pupil to light; when light is show n in pupil constriction should occur
indolent ulcer - superficial noninfected chronic corneal ulcers with loose epithelial borders that fail to heal within 1 week
Anisocoria - unequal pupil size
Blepharospasm - rapid involuntary contractions of the eyelid
Strabismus - disorder in which eyes are not directed in a parallel manner; deviation of one or both eyes
schirmer tear test - dx test using a graded paper strip to measure tear production

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12
Q

outer ear

A

Pinna → External portion of the ear; AKA auricle (AS, AD); Combining form pinn/i means eternal ear; aur/i and aur/o mean ear; Example: Aural hematoma (collection of blood in outer ear)
External auditory canal - Tube that transmits sound from pinna to tympanic membrane; AKA external auditory meatus; Glands lining the external auditory canal secrete cerumen

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13
Q

**tonometry
miosis
mydriasis
entropion
buphthalmos
cataract
epiphora
nuclear sclerosis
glaucoma
hypopyon

A

Tonometry - procedure using an instrument to measure intraocular pressure
Miosis - excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye
Mydriasis - dilation of the pupil of the eye
Entropion - inversion or turning inward of eyelid
Buphthalmos - abnormal enlargement of eye
Cataract - cloudiness or opacity of the lens
Epiphora - excessive tear production
nuclear sclerosis - drying out of the lens with age
Glaucoma - group of disorders resulting from elevated intraocular pressure
Hypopyon - pus in the anterior chamber of eye

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14
Q

**keratitis
nictitating membrane
nictitating gland prolapse
nystagmus
photophobia
scleritis
uveitis
keratoconjunctivitis

A

Keratitis - inflammation of the cornea
nictitating membrane - conjunctival fold attached at medial canthus that moves across cornea when eyelids close
nictitating gland prolapse - hypertrophy and protrusion of the conjunctival fold of the medial canthus; occurs in puppies and more commonly in some breeds (cherry eye)
nystagmus - involuntary constant movement of the eye
Photophobia - fear or intolerance of light
Scleritis - inflammation of the sclera
Uveitis - inflammation of the uvea
Keratoconjunctivitis - inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva

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15
Q

**middle ear

A

Eardrum = tympanic membrane (Separates external ear from middle ear and transmits sounds to ossicles; Combining forms tympan/o and myring/o; Auditory ossicles: Three bones that transmit sound vibrations (Malleus: “hammer”; Incus: “anvil”; tapes: “stirrup”, smallest bone in the body)
Eustachian tube (Auditory tube extending from middle ear to nasopharynx); Oval window (Membrane at base of stapes that separates middle and inner ear); Round window (Membrane allowing movement of fluid through cochlea, allowing hearing to occur)

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16
Q

**mechanisms of equilibrium

A

Equilibrium is the state of balance; Combination of static and dynamic equilibrium → Static equilibrium (Maintaining position of head relative to gravity; Controlled by organs in the vestibule of the inner ear); Dynamic equilibrium (Maintaining balance in response to rotational or angular movement; Controlled by organs in the semicircular canals of the inner ear)

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16
Q

**inner ear

A

Bony labyrinth - Vestibule (Balance and position/equilibrium); Semicircular canals (Regulation of position/equilibrium); Cochlea (Organ of hearing)
Membranous labyrinth - Perilymph (Water-like fluid filling bony labyrinth); Endolymph (Membranous sac following shape of bony labyrinth filled with thicker fluid)

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17
Q

cytology
otoscope
aural hematoma
otitis interna
total ear canal ablation
otopathy
otitis externa
vertigo

A

Cytology - study of cells; ear cytology involves taking sample of exudate or cerumen and detect for bacteria, yeast, leukocytes, or abnormal cells
Otoscope - used for otoscopy (examine ear)
aural hematoma - collection or mass of blood on outer ear
otitis interna - inflammation of inner ear
total ear canal ablation (TECA) - involves the complete removal of the ear canal and tympanic bulla (middle ear), leaving only the pinna (ear flap) remaining
Otopathy - disease of ear
otitis externa - inflammation of outer ear
Vertigo - sense of dizziness

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17
Q

secondary purposes of medical records

A

Not clinically based; Includes evaluations of medical information for business, legal and research purposes → Lists all services rendered to the pet owner; Also used to assess the workloads of staff, formulate income analyses/make budgetary plans, maintain inventory, and generate a marketing strategy; Supports hospital accreditation; Used as a legal document in a court of law and is valuable during litigation. (In a court of law, the prevailing view is “not recorded, not done.”; In addition, insurance companies may require the medical record to assess whether a claim is to be paid.); Preparation of case studies and presentations for conferences, retrospective studies; Used to teach veterinary medical and veterinary technician students

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18
Q

primary purposes of a medical record

A
  1. Supports excellent medical care → Assists in correctly identifying the patient and owner; Aids in effective diagnostic and treatment plans; PE findings; Documenting response to therapy; Documents results of diagnostic tests; Supports continuity of care
  2. Documents communication - Most helpful with client communication (discharge instructions, reminder cards, financial restraints, etc); Terms: DDX (differential diagnosis), DX, TX, PE, VCPR,
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19
Q

informed consent

A

Extremely common complaint from owners (esp. euthanasias/expensive Dx tests or Tx); ALL forms of communications with clients should be recorded in the medical record, including: Face-to-face consultations; E-mail communications; Conversations on the phone (have a witness confirm)
CRITICAL for owners to sign and date a consent form after the services have been explained by an employee.; Be aware that consent for medical Tx must be given by legal adults 18 years of age or older

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20
Q

problem oriented vet med record (POVMR)

A

Organized approach to clinical veterinary care (Information grouped by problem; each problem is addressed separately); SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan; Both veterinarians and veterinary technicians write SOAP (Focus is different for DVM vs. LVT); The American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) endorses the use of problem-oriented veterinary medical record keeping and insists upon its use in practices seeking AAHA certification.
This is what we use in the NOVA vet tech program
Contains - Database (Client and patient information; Hx (current history, chief presenting complaint, and previous history); PE findings; Pertinent test results (radiography, special imaging, and laboratory reports)); Master Problem and Working Problem Lists; Initial Plan and Progress Notes (Progress forms that include SOAP notes for each problem; Treatment-related forms, medication administration/order record (MAOR) forms, surgical reports, and anesthesia forms); Case summary and discharge instructions
SOAP - Subjective: Non-measurable information ( behavior, FAS score, information from the owner, information from the previous veterinarian, etc); Objective: Measurable information (Weight, temperature, HR/RR/CRT, diagnostic test results, physical exam (some hospitals may use this as subjective, but for our purposes for vet 105 we will use this in the objective section); Assessment: Analysis of Subjective and Objective. (LVT focus: List of patient evaluations that reflect the animal’s physical, psychological, social, and environmental conditions (ex: hypertension, pruritus, tachycardia, hypovolemia, hyperthermia, anxiety, etc).); Plan: LVT develops an intervention for each of the evaluations listed in the assessment portion of the SOAP note. (ex: CE, Rx (ordered by DVM), “at home” instructions, and follow-up appointments); Surgery information, anything done to the patient in hospital; Notations: Any incoming information that is entered in the progress notes but is independent of the SOAP
Client and patient info - Name/contact information (mailing address, home, cell, office phone numbers; email address) (For Sx/Admit For Day, ideal to have client’s schedule.); Patient Identification/Signalment (WHAT IS INCLUDED IN THE SIGNALMENT? - Species, breed, age, sex, and spayed/neutered status); Patient identification (Color and markings, tattoo, microchip, name of the animal)

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20
Q

**source oriented vet med record (SOVMR)

A

Patient information is kept together by subject matter.; Most recent information is located last and the oldest information is found first.; Easy to learn; takes little time to complete; May lack detailed documentation; Complicated organization, especially if referred to another department within the hospital
Organized by subject matter; Lab reports, Physical exam findings, client communication; Difficult to follow and monitor a patient

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21
Q

MOAR

A

Medication Administration/Order Record → Ward Tx Sheet; Ensures hospitalized patients are given appropriate Tx, Rx, diet, Dx tests as requested by attending DVM; Dates, times, doses, methods of administration, cautionary notes written for each medication; Patient’s name, ID, signalment, allergies should be listed; Each MAOR should be written just as the DVM wrote it. CLARIFY IF NOT CLEAR!; Person administering Tx initials when Tx given; Mark when Tx not given (NG) and notify attending DVM; Chart when medication given with an “X,” and “Discontinued” if it is discontinued

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22
Q

pericardium

A

The pericardium is a double-walled membrane that surrounds the heart. (Peri- means around.); The pericardium has two layers: (fibrous layer; serous layer (parietal layer: serous layer that lines the pericardium; visceral layer (aka: epicardium): the serous layer that lines the heart.); Pericarditis- inflammation of the pericardium
The pericardial space is the space between the two serous layers of the pericardium. - This space contains pericardial fluid. (Pericardial fluid prevents friction between the heart and the pericardium when the heart beats.); Terminology → pericardial effusion is fluid in this sac; Cardiac tamponade- buildup of fluid in the pericardium resulting in compression of the heart

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22
Q

management of computerized MR

A

Digital records are easy to change, so it is important that a historical account of the electronic medical record be automatically collected and stored in the data management system.; Some software programs will allow the veterinary health care team to make entries into a patient record and to make changes to those entries within the first 24 to 48 hours of patient care; this is considered the primary document. (After this period of time the system records the date and time of all subsequent changes and maintains a copy of the primary document)

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23
Q

**blood supply to the heart
what does infarct mean?

A

The arteries that serve the heart are known as the coronary arteries (they resemble a crown); Coron/o is the combining form meaning crown.; The coronary veins remove waste products from the myocardium.
What happens if one of these vessels occlude? Ischemia; Coronary occlusion ischemia necrosis infarct; Infarct= a small localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply

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23
Q

electrical signals of the heart

A

Sinoatrial node (SA node) is located in the right atrial wall and initiates the heart rhythm. (Is termed the pacemaker of the heart); Atrioventricular node (AV node) is located in the interatrial septum and receives impulses from the SA node. (Sends impulses to the bundle of His); Bundle of His is located in the interventricular septum and continues through the ventricle as the ventricular Purkinje fibers (Purkinje fibers carry impulses through the ventricular muscle, causing the ventricles to contract; Bundle branch block)

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24
Q

heart sounds

A

Auscultation is listening to body sounds with a stethoscope.; When the heart is auscultated, a lub/dub sound is heard. (lub = closing of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral); dub = closing of the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic)); Murmur = abnormal sound associated with turbulent blood flow (Where the murmur is heard the loudest is the point of maximal intensity (PMI))

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25
Q

what is the only non-oxygenated artery

A

pulmonary artery

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26
Q

**systole
asystole
diastole
arrhythmia
bradycardia
tachycardia
normal sinus arrhythmia
gallop
preload
afterload

A

Systole: contraction
Asystole: without contraction
Diastole: relaxation of ventricles (filling of the ventricles)
Arrhythmia: abnormal heart rhythm (also known as dysrhythmia)
Bradycardia: abnormally slow heartbeat
Tachycardia: abnormally fast heartbeat
Normal sinus arrhythmia: irregular heart rhythm resulting from variation in vagal nerve tone as a result of respiration (a non-pathologic arrhythmia)
Gallop: low-frequency vibrations occurring during early diastole and late diastole.
Preload: Ventricular end-diastolic volume
Afterload: The pressure in the wall of the left ventricle during ejection

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27
Q

**syncope
cardiac tamponade
cardiomegaly
cardiomyopathy
dirofilariosis
embolus
embolism
endocarditis
hemangioma
hemangiosarcoma

A

Syncope - loss of consciousness for short period of time
Cardiac tamponade - fluid buildup in space around heart putting pressure on heart and preventing it from pumping well
Cardiomegaly - enlarged heart
Cardiomyopathy - disease of heart muscle
Dirofilariosis - heartworm
Embolus - Any foreign material that moves with blood flow to a different site
Embolism - The phenomenom of blockage of arterial or venous blood flow
Endocarditis - Inflammation of heart’s inner lining; Usually due to infection
Hemangioma - Benign tumor of blood vessel origin
Hemangiosarcoma - highly malignant cancer arising from cells that normally create blood vessels

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27
Q

hematoma
cyanosis
myocarditis
pericarditis
thromboembolism
vasculitis
ventricular septal defect

A

Hematoma - Blood filled swelling
Cyanosis - blue discoloration of skin
Myocarditis - inflammation of the heart muscle
Pericarditis - inflammation of the lining of the heart
Thromboembolism - obstruction of a blood vessel by a blood clot that has become dislodged from another site in the circulation.
Vasculitis - inflammation of blood vessels
Ventricular septal defect - birth defect of the heart in which there is a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the two lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart.

27
Q

ECG

A

Electrocardiography - An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is the record of electrical activity of the myocardium.; (ECG or EKG is a tracing that shows changes in voltage and polarity of the heart over time); Electrocardiography is the process of recording electrical activity of the heart
Electrical activity of the heart can be visualized as wave movements on the ECG or EKG. - P wave = depolarization (excitationcontraction) of the atria; QRS complex = depolarization (excitationcontraction) of the ventricles; T wave = repolarization (recoveryrelaxation) of the ventricles

28
Q

heart failure

A

A backflow of fluid into the lungs can occur due to failure of what side of the heart?; Terminology- congestive heart failure (CHF); pulmonary edema- fluid building up in the lungs; A backflow of fluid into the body can occur due to failure of what side?; Abdominal effusion

28
Q

**AF
ASD
AV
CHF
CPR
CVP
HR
LV
MM
MS

A

AF- atrial fibrillation
ASD – atrial septal defect
AV - atrioventicular
CHF – congestive heart failure
CPR – cardiopulmonary ressusitation
CVP – central venous pressure
HR – heart rate
LV – left ventricle
MM – mucous membranes
MS – mitral valve stenosis

29
Q

**PDA
PMI
PVC
RV
SA
VSD
VT

A

PDA – patent ductus arteriosus
PMI – point of maximum intensity
PVC – premature ventricular complex
RV – right ventricle
SA – sinoatrial node
VSD – ventricular septal defect
VT – ventricular tachycardia

29
Q

**hypertonic vs isotonic vs hypotonic

A

Hypertonic - higher solute outside; higher water inside; water moves out; cell shrinks
Isotonic - equal solute; equal water; no net movement; normal cell size
Hypotonic - higher solute inside; higher water outside; water moves in; cell swells

29
Q

**pharmacology; pharmacodynamics; pharmacokinetics; MOA

A

Pharmacology = study of the nature, uses, and effects of drugs
Prescription from a license veterinary professional; OTC (O can get without a prescription); generic (not protected by a brand name or trademark
Pharmacodynamics: Physiologic effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action (MOA)
Pharmacokinetics: Movement of drugs or chemicals (absorption, distribution, biotransformation, elimination); Important for monitoring profiles (Does it affect the liver vs kidney; Helps us to know what to look for with adverse reactions); Double check your medications and interactions of new medications
MOA = mechanism of action → This refers to the specific biochemical interaction through which a drug produces a pharmacologic effect; Target of the drug; Binding affinity

30
Q

agonists and antagonists

A

Agonists - drugs that occupy receptors and activate them
Antagonists - drugs that occupy receptors but do not activate them; antagonists block receptor activation by agonist

31
Q

efficacy
endogenous
exogenous

A

Efficacy - ability to produce desired or intended result
Endogenous - originates in the body of the living organism
Exogenous - originates outside the organism

31
Q

**antacid
anthelmintic
antibiotic
anticoagulant
anticonvulsant
antineoplastic agent

A

Antacid: neutralizing the acid in the stomach and by inhibiting pepsin
Anthelmintic: destroy parasitic worms
Antibiotic: kill bacteria
Anticoagulant: against clotting
Anticonvulsant: reduce severity of epileptic fits or other convulsions
Antineoplastic Agent - treat cancer

31
Q

miosis vs mydriasis

A

Miosis (constricting pupils) vs mydriasis (dilated pupils) - Miotic agent is a substance that is used to constrict the pupils; Mydriatric agent is one used to dilate the pupils; What is the term for two different sized pupils?

32
Q

**chronotrope and inotrope

A

Chronotrope - substance that changes HR; pos chronotrope increase HR (Atropine); neg chronotrope decrease HR (Digoxin)
Inotrope - substance that affects the muscle contraction; pos inotrope increases myocardial activity; neg inotrope decreases myocardial activity; ex (pimobendan)

32
Q

**Antipruritic
antipyretic
antitussive
emetic

A

Antipruritic: substance that decreases itching - Different classes of drugs within this; Antihistamine: Benadryl is one of the most common; against histamine release; Corticosteroids: dexamethasone, prednisone, prednisolone; Specific biologic therapy (Cytopoint (IL – 31 receptor blocker); JAK kinase inhibitor oclacitinib (apoquel))
Antipyretic: Substance that reduces fever (spelling matters!)
Antitussive: Substance that reduces cough
Emetic: substance that PRODUCES vomiting

33
Q

**plasty
pexy
rraphy
desis
ostomy
debridement
cauterization
dehiscence
evisceration
excise

A

plasty – to surgically change the shape of something
pexy – to surgically move an organ to the right place
rraphy to surgically sew something up
desis to surgically make two things stick together
ostomy – to surgically make an opening
Sterilization vs disinfection - sterilization is the process of killing all microorganisms; disinfection is the process of eliminating or reducing harmful microorganisms
Debridement- removal of tissue and foreign material to aid healing
Cauterization- destruction of tissue using electrical current, heat, or chemicals
Dehiscence - separation or splitting open of layers of a surgical wound
Evisceration - extrusion of viscera or intestine through a sx wound
Excise - to surgically remove

34
Q

**fenestration
friable
incise
inversion
laceration
lavage
ligate
lumpectomy
resect
seroma

A

Fenestration - perforation
Friable - easily crumbled
Incise - to surgically cut into
Inversion - turning inward
Laceration - act of tearing
Lavage - putting fluids in an area such as open intestinal wound will put lots of fluid to reduce amount of contaminant
Ligate - suturing
Lumpectomy - removing tumor we dont know what it is
Resect - removing portion of something like intestine
Seroma - common post op complication if the P is moving too much; serous fluid buildup below skin; usually benign and does not cause an issue; dont know that it is seroma until we do FNA to find that it is fluid

35
Q

sx approaches: ventral midline; paramedian; flank; paracostal

A

Sx approaches - Ventral midline (cut along the midsagittal plane of the abdomen); Paramedian (cut lateral and parallel to the ventral midline); Flank (cut perpendicular to the long axis of the body); Paracostal (cut oriented parallel to the last rib)

36
Q

functions of endocrine system

A

The endocrine system is composed of ductless glands that secrete chemical messengers called hormones into the bloodstream (Endo- means within; -crine means to secrete or separate.); Hormones enter the bloodstream and are carried throughout the body to affect a variety of tissues and organs. (Tissues and organs on which the hormones act are called target organs.)

37
Q

structures of the endocrine system

A

The glands of the normal endocrine system: one pituitary gland; one thyroid gland; four parathyroid glands; two adrenal glands; one pancreas; one thymus; one pineal gland; two gonads

38
Q

hypothalamus

A

The hypothalamus is responsible for the regulation of certain metabolic processes and other activities of the autonomic nervous system.; Synthesizes neurohormones called releasing hormones; These in turn stimulate or inhibit the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland.; CRH, GnRH, GHRH, PRH,

39
Q

**pituitary gland

A

(AKA hypophysis) - Located at the base of the brain ventral to the hypothalamus (Negative feedback loop with hypothalamus; Connected to the hypothalamus via infundibulum); The combining form for the pituitary gland is pituit/o. (The pituitary gland has two lobes: Anterior; Posterior.)
Neg vs pos feedback loop
Anterior pituitary AKA Adenohypophysis - Hormones released are termed “indirect-acting hormones”; Secretions of the anterior pituitary gland:
Posterior pituitary AKA neurohypophysis (Stores and secretes hormones) - Hormones released are termed “direct-acting”; Secretions of the posterior pituitary gland: (antidiuretic hormone (ADH); oxytocin)

40
Q

thyroid gland

A

Butterfly-shaped gland on either side of the larynx; Regulates → Metabolism – thyroid hormone; Iodine uptake (Limiting factor of thyroid hormone); Blood calcium – Calcitonin (Decreases blood calcium); Combining forms are thyr/o and thyroid/o
Thyroid hormones - TRH (thyroid releasing hormone); TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone); T3 (triiodothyronine hormone); T4 (thyroxine hormone)
Calcitonin (decrease Ca in blood) - from thyroid gland; inhibits CA2+ reabsorption in the kidney (excreted in urine); promotes deposition of CA2+ into bones (inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts); inhibits CA2+ absorption by the intestines; lowers CA2+ levels in blood

41
Q

**parathyroid hormone

A

Usually 4 glands; Located on the surface of the thyroid gland; Secrete Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) (Increases blood calcium; Mobilizes it from bone); Regulates phosphorus content of blood and bones (Reciprocal relationship: High Calcium/low Phosphorus; Low Calcium/High Phosphorus); The combining form for the parathyroid glands is parathyroid/o.
Calcitonin (comes from thyroid gland) also affects calcium - it decreases blood Ca while PTH (comes from parathyroid gland) increases Ca; they antagonize each other to regulate Ca levels in the body

41
Q

terminology - hyperparathyroidism; hypercalcemia; hyperphosphatemia

A

Hyperparathyroidism - Increase parathyroid hormone; High levels of calcium in the blood (hypercalcemia) (Clinical signs of PU/PD, muscle twitching, seizures; Other causes of hypercalcemia → lymphoma, anal sac tumors, multiple myeloma; Oversupplementation); Calcium and phosphorous have inverse relationships (If we have hypocalcemia this will result in hyperphosphatemia (high phosphorous levels))

42
Q

**adrenal glands

A

Two glands located cranial to each kidney; they consist of a cortex and a medulla. (Ad- means toward.; Ren/o means kidney.); Regulates electrolytes, metabolism, sexual functions and the body’s response to injury.; Adrenal cortex (outside of adrenal gland) secretes (Mineralocorticoids ; Glucocorticoids ; Androgens.)
Adrenal medulla secretes - Epinephrine ; Norepinephrine (Fight or flight response; Epi means above; Nephr means kidney); The combining forms for the adrenal glands are adren/o and adrenal/o.

43
Q

which system is fight or flight and what does the other system do

A

Sympathetic nervous system is fight of flight system; parasympathetic is rest and digest system; epinephrine is involved in the fight or flight system released from adrenal glands

43
Q

**terminology from signs and workup of Cushing’s

A

Hepatomegaly; Alopecia; Secondary UTI; Adrenolytic (break down adrenal gland); PU/PD; Pot bellied
Bloodwork terminology with Cushings disease - Increased ALP; Hyperadrenocorticism; Hypercholesterolemia; ACTH stimulation test; Low dose dexamethasone suppression test; Iatrogenic= illness caused by a medical treatment

43
Q

ACTH stim

A

Cortysn is a man-made adrenocorticotropic hormone; What does this mean? Mimacs ACTH; More commonly used to diagnose hypoadrenocorticism bc of adrenal atrophy; Terminology (“Adrenal atrophy”: producing less than normal cortisol bc smaller adrenal gland); Would the cortisol levels be high or low? Fun facts: measure blood cortisol levels, give cortysn, wait 1 hr, measure cortisol levels again

44
Q

thymus

A

Predominant in young animals (less than 1 y.o); Thym/o refers to the soul (Heart referred to as the soul ; Thymus close to the heart); Cranioventral portion of the thoracic cavity.; Thymosin (Augments maturation of T lymphocytes; The combining form for the thymus is thym/o.; Example term: Thymoma- tumor of the thymus gland)

44
Q

pancreas

A

Gland located near the proximal duodenum; Exocrine and endocrine functions.; Endocrine function: maintains blood glucose (insulin from beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in response to high blood glucose; glucagon from alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in response to low blood glucose); The combining form for the pancreas is pancreat/o.

44
Q

**pineal gland

A

Located near midline in the central portion of the brain; Secretes serotonin converted to melatonin (Controls Circadian rhythm and reproductive timing); The combining form for the pineal gland is pineal/o.; Melatonin is different than melanin!!!
Regulates day and night cycles: long and short day breeders and sleep cycles

45
Q

gonads

A

Glands that produce gametes (sex cells).; The gonads are the ovaries in females and the testes in males.; The combining form for the gonads is gonad/o
Ovaries - female gonads; Secretions of the ovaries are: (estrogen; progesterone); The ovaries are covered in more detail in the chapter on reproduction.
Testes - male gonads.; Secretion of the testes: (testosterone); The testes are covered in more detail in the chapter on reproduction.

45
Q

**TSH
ACTH
FSH
LH
hypothyroidism
T3
T4
calcitonin
hCG
adrenopathy

A

TSH - thyroid stimulating hormone
ACTH - Adrenocorticotropic hormone
FSH - follicle stimulating hormone
LH - Luteinizing hormone
Hypothyroidism - lower activity of thyroid gland
T3 - Triiodothyronine
T4 - thyroxine
Calcitonin - released by thyroid gland and decreases Ca levels
hCG - Human chorionic gonadotropin
Adrenopathy - disease of adrenal glands

46
Q

equne hx and PE

A

First Steps in evaluating patient, whether individual or herd.; Good history taking saves time, money and lives.; Good physical examination (PE) saves time, money and lives.; History taking and PE will vary depending on type of patient and type of clientele.
History - Follow same guidelines as small animal, with some variations: Husbandry, animal environments and economics are at the forefront; Keep herd health and husbandry in mind while taking Hx; Typically will not speak with the owner of the animal; Insurance status (Mortality; Surgical; Loss of Use); Signalment (Basic Age, Sex, Breed, Color, Reproductive Status and Intended Use); Individual Hx/Chief Complaint; Medication/Tx Hx; Diet/Feeding Schedule/Water Consumption; Herd Health Hx

47
Q

**hyperadrenocorticism
hypergonadism
GH
MSH
ADH
oxytocin
prolactin
PTH
thyromegaly

A

Hyperadrenocorticism - excessive adrenal cortex production of glucocorticoid resulting in PU/PD and redistribution of body fat
Hypergonadism - excessive hormone secretion by sex glands
GH - growth hormone
MSH - melanocyte stimulating hormone
ADH - antidiuretic hormone
Oxytocin - stimulates uterine contractions and milk production
Prolactin - stimulates milk letdown
PTH - parathyroid hormone
Thyromegaly - enlargement of thyroid gland

47
Q

**foal
weanling
yearling
long yearling
colt
filly
stallion
mare
gelding

A

Foal = young horse, from birth to weaning (weaning usually 4-7mo old)
Weanling - young horse, from weaning to first birthday
Yearling - 1-1.5yrs
Long yearling - 1.5yrs to second birthday
Colt - intact male from 2-3 yrs old
Filly - female from 2-3 yrs old
Stallion - intact male after 3rd birthday
Mare - female after 3rd birthday
Gelding - castrated male of any age

47
Q

routine equine PE

A

Observation; Temperature (Thermometer on a string preferably; Stand facing caudally and maintain contact with the horse; Gently move tail to the side; Normal temperature range is 99.0-101.5˚F); dont stand behind horse
Pulse - may be palpated easily over the facial artery (below jawline on ventromedial aspect: feels like cooked noodle)); This crosses the centromedial aspect of the mandible; Digital pulse (not normal: usually laminitis or inflammation of the hoof: pulse in digits): ; Pulse and HR are MUCH slower in horses; Normal PR is 28-48 bpm
Digital pulse location

Respiratory rate - Normal is 6-16 breaths per minute; HORSES ARE OBLIGATE NASAL BREATHERS!
Systems Review

47
Q

heart auscultation in horses

A

listen before getting a rate; Heart may be as large as a basketball; you may have to have horse step forward on your side to be able to hear heart to get stethoscope in axillary area; you may hear 3-4 heart sounds (S3 = vibrations resulting from ventricular filling; S4 = late diastole during atrial contraction); Landmarks for the dorsoventral portion of the heart are level of shoulder joint for heart base, olecranon for heart apex; Landmarks for craniocaudal position of the heart are cranial to the caudal border of triceps muscle and caudal to the caudal border of triceps muscle; Murmurs are not uncommon and are typically normal heart sounds (ejection murmurs); murmurs are not as common as arrhythmias (may hear ejection murmurs (filling large heart: not pathologic); more common to hear arrhythmias with pathology)

47
Q

**normal vitals in horses

A

temp (99.0-101.5F); pulse (28-48bpm); resp (6-16 breaths per min)

48
Q

**3 primary types of equine PE

A

Diagnostic/Routine (TPR, Systems Review); Insurance (TPR, Systems Review (DETAILED)); Prepurchase (TPR, Systems Review, Radiography, Labwork, Endoscopy, ECG, possibly more; DEFINITE source of lawsuits!)

48
Q

lung auscultation in horses

A

ALWAYS perform on both sides of the chest due to the nature of respiratory disease; Cranioventral and caudodorsal; Normal air sounds may be louder in foals, thin animals and after exercise; Crackles, wheezes, gurgling and absence of sound
Take your time as they have a large lung area; listen in more spots (4-6 on each side) rather than 2 on each side in small animals

48
Q

abdominal auscultation in horses

A

Auscultating gastrointestinal motility ( and passive movement of gas/liquids); Auscultate right and left flank use caution; some horses sensitive here; Four point auscultation (Upper left; Upper right; Lower left; Lower right); Left in place for at least ONE MINUTE at each auscultation point; The presence of intestinal sounds does NOT always indicate the presence of intestinal motility!; Normal motility is 1-3 borborygmi/minute/quadrant
Recorded as (0 = No motility; +1 = hypomotility (<1 borborygmus/minute); +2 = normal motility (1-3 borborygmi/minute); >3 = hypermotility (>3 borborygmi/minute))

48
Q

*MM in horses

A

Normal is light to dark pink; Brick red = septicemia (infection of blood). This is ALWAYS an emergency!!!; Toxic line = purple gum color along the margin of the teeth and gums (endotoxemia); Also evaluate for moisture (moist, tacky, dry, etc)
Hydration - Assessed via → Skin Turgor (less reliable in obese, older and underweight horses); CRT (dehydration and shock are the most common causes of prolonged CRT in horses: should be <2s)

48
Q

**anatomy of tooth

A

enamel (outer surface located in crown); cementum (outer surface located in root); dentin (connective tissue surrounding pulp); pulp (inner part of tooth that contains nerves, vessels, and loose connective tissue)
Gingiva is MM that surrounds teeth (gingiv/o); salivary glands are groups of cells that secrete saliva (named for their location; combining forms sialaden/o and sial/o); sialocele (enlargement of salivary glands: salivary glands are filled with saliva; this is benign)

48
Q

**haustra

A

(folds on cecum), or sacculations in the cecum/colon of pigs and horses, hold on to processed food longer so microbes have more time for digestion

48
Q

**BORBORYGMUS
CHOLECYSTITIS
TRICHOBEZOAR
SCOURS

A

BORBORYGMUS - gut sounds of digestion
CHOLECYSTITIS - inflammation of the gallbladder
TRICHOBEZOAR - hairball ingested
SCOURS - common term for diarrhea esp in large animals

48
Q

**Hormones that affect or are produced by the urinary system

A

Erythropoietin (EPO) (* Produced by the kidney; * Stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow); * Antidiuretic hormone (ADH: * Released by the posterior pituitary); * Suppresses urine production by resorbing more water); * Aldosterone (* Secreted by the adrenal cortex of the adrenal glands (salt, sugar, sex); * Regulates electrolyte balance through the reabsorption of sodium; disease that leads to decrease in aldosterone → hypoadrenocorticism (leads to hypovolemic shock bc cant do anything about sodium))

49
Q

**accessory sex glands in males

A

Vesicular gland ● Prostate ● Bulborethral glands (Cowper’s gland) ● These three glands make up the liquid fraction of the ejaculate known as the seminal plasma ● Ampulla is not labelled as an accessory sex gland but varies between the species
Vesicular gland ● Seminal vesicle in horses ● Vesicular gland in other species ● Paired organs high in energy substrates ● Bulk of seminal plasma in ruminants here
Prostate ○ The prostate gland secretes a thick fluid that aids in the motility of sperm.
The bulbourethral gland ○ secrete a thick mucus that acts as a lubricant for sperm. ○ Well defined in the BOAR
Not all glands are present in all species.
Dog only has prostate gland, cats have prostate and bulbourethral, all large animal have all 3

50
Q

**differences in penis in pig and ox and goats, what muscle do boars have that is different

A

The penis is the male sex organ that carries reproductive and urinary products out of the body. ○ The combining forms for the penis are pen/i and priap/o.
Pig and ox have sigmoid flexure, horse does not
Goats have pizzle (accessory section of penis and get stones there)
Boar have retractor penis muscle so they can extend it out

50
Q

**phases of estrous cycle

A

Proestrus: Period of estrous before sexual receptivity ○ Estrus: Period of estrous cycle when female is receptive to male ○ Metestrus: Short period of the estrous cycle after sexual receptivity ○ Diestrus: Period of the estrous cycle after metestrus ○ Anestrus: Period of estrous cycle when animal is sexually quiet

50
Q

**structures of the placenta

A

Amnion ○ The innermost membrane that envelops the embryo ○ Forms the amniotic cavity (aka amniotic sac or bag of waters) and protects the fetus by engulfing it in amniotic fluid
Allantois ○ The innermost layer of the placenta that forms a sac between the placenta and the amnion ○ Fetal waste products accumulate here
Chorion ○ The outermost layer of the placenta

51
Q

**types of placentas in diff spp

A

Diffuse (horses and pigs) ○ Cotyledonary (ruminants) ○ Zonary (dogs,cats,seals, bears, elephants ○ Discoid (primates and rodents)
Ruminant placenta has elevations on it that are located on the maternal and fetal surface ○ Cotyledon - on the fetal surface (aka buttons) ○ Caruncle - on the maternal placenta ○ Together they form the placentome

51
Q

**gestation periods in diff spp

A

Gestation period of the dog and cat 63 days. ○ Gestation period of the horse ~340 days. ○ Gestation period of the cow 274-283 days ○ Gestation period of ewes and does ~150 days ○ Gestation period of sows 3 months, 3 weeks and 3 days