intro to microbio Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common helminth infection in the USA and what is unique about it

A

nematodes (roundworms) [pinworm]
have a complete digestive system unlike the others

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2
Q

worm is an example of what

A

helminths

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3
Q

3 types of helminths

A

nematodes (roundworms)
cestodes (tapeworms)
trematodes (flukes)

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4
Q

virus particle is called what

A

viron

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5
Q

all prokaryotic organisms are classified as what

A

bacteria

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6
Q

what is the human microbiome

A

the total # and diversity of microbes in and on the human body

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7
Q

what are the most common sites of the body inhabited by normal microbiota

A

those in contact or in communication w the outside world

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8
Q

important place w microbiota in body

A

INTESTINAL TRACT
skin
eye
mouth and nose
urogenital tract

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9
Q

what can colonize plastic catheters

A

staphylococcus epidermidis (90% of skin aeroboes)

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10
Q

what causes skin infections

A

staphlococcus aureus

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11
Q

what is associated w acne

A

propionibacterium acnes (anaerobic)
resides in deeper layers of skin, hair follicles, sweat glands and sebaceous glands

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12
Q

what microbe is associated w mouth and nose

A

streptococcus mutans

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13
Q

where does streptococcus mutans colonize

A

teeth and gingival tissue

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14
Q

what does streptococcus mutan damage

A

colonize damaged or prosethetic heart valves

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15
Q

streptococcus mutans leads to what fatal infective thing

A

leads to fatal infective endocarditis

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16
Q

does density of microbes increase or decrease along the alimentary canal

A

density increases

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17
Q

what species constitutes a significant % in the large in

A

Bacteroides species

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18
Q

where is the greatest number of bacteria and greatest number of species

A

gut microbiota

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19
Q

most of fecal bacteria is anaerobes or aerobes

A

anaerobes

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20
Q

what bacteria species maintains the low pH of vagina

A

lactobacillus species

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21
Q

some bacteria of the bowel produce what substances

A

antimicrobial substances

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22
Q

opportunistic microbes

A

some microbes that cause disease only under certain conditions

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23
Q

subclinical infection

A

infection w no detectable symptoms

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24
Q

latent infection

A

infection w the potential to become active at some time

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25
primary infection
infection by an organism that may become latent and later cause other disease manifestations
26
secondary infection
reactivation of latent infection or second stage of an infection
27
mixed infection
2 or more bacteria infecting the same tissue
28
pyrogenic infection
pus forming
29
fulminant infection
infections that occur suddenly and intensely
30
stages of pathogenesis
-entry -adhesion -invasion -propagation -damage -progression/resolution
31
what are virulence factors
those characteristics of a bacterium that enhance its pathogenicity
32
what is infections dose ID 50
how any organisms are required to cause disease in 50% of those exposed
33
lethal dose LD 50
how many organisms kill 50% of test animals
34
virulence factors (5 of them)
-capsule -surface adhesion molecule -bacterial enzymes such as collagenase and hyaluronidase -iron-binding proteins to obtain iron for growth -bacterial toxins
35
exotoxins are proteins secreted by gram positive or gram negative
both
36
is exotoxins more toxic or endotoxins
exotoxic
37
how are endotoxins released
by bacterial lysis and are not secreted
38
endotoxins are components of outer membrane in what gram bacteria
gram negative
39
lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is endotoxin or exotoxins
endotoxin
40
tissue damage in bacterial infections is caused by what and released from what
various cytokines released from the lymphocytes, macrophages, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes at the site of infection or in the bloodstream
41
tissue damage in bacterial infections is caused by what and released from what
various cytokines released from the lymphocytes, macrophages, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes at the site of infection or in the bloodstream (inflammatory cytokines)
42
viral infections can lead to (4 things)
-cell death -transformation (normal cels into malignant cells) -cell fusion -cytopathic effect (any visible change in appearance)
43
indication of this symptom - erythema migrans (large skin lesion with bright red outer border and partially clear central area)
early localized lyme disease
44
indication of these symptoms - chills, fever, cardiovascular instability
bacteremia
45
indication of these symptoms - pulmonary consolidation (fluid in lung)
pneumonia
46
indication of these symptoms - stupor (near unconsciousness) and stiff neck
infection may have spread to the meninges therefore cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) needs to be evaluated
47
Gram Stain what color is gram positive and what color is gram negative
gram positive - purple gram negative - pink /red
48
when can microorganisms not be identified in gram staining
if they lack cell walls
49
what are the colors for the acid fast bacteria and non acid fast bacteria in acid fast stating
acid fast organisms will be pink/red after staining non acid fast staining will be blue
50
acid fast organisms contain large amounts of what
acid fast organisms contain large amounts of mycolic acids (fatty acids)
51
when is india ink useful
useful in detecting crytococcus neoformans in CSF
52
how are crytococcus identified in india ink
by their large, transparent capsules that displace India ink particles
53
how does potassium hydroxide preparation work
treatment w KOH dissolves host cells and bacteria, sparing fungi
54
how are fungi recognized in potassium hydroxide prep
recognized by their filamentous (hyphae) or round (oval) structures
55
all clinically important bacteria require what element and what does that make them
heterotrophs (requires organic carbon for growth)
56
what does a fastidious organism mean
requires either a large number of growth factors or very specific ones
57
facultative anaerobes
have the ability to grow anaerobically, but grows better w O2
58
aerotolerant anaerobes
does not use oxygen for growth but can tolerate it
59
microaerophilies
requires oxygen [ ] lower than O2 found in the air
60
when is solid medium (nutrient agar used)
isolation of bacterium
61
when is liquid medium (nutrient broth used)
to grow larger quantities of a culture of bacteria that have already been isolated as a pure culture
62
defined media
contains known quantities of all ingredients
63
undefined (complex)
contains some complex ingredients such as yeast extract w has unknown proportions
64
enriched
contains the nutrients required to support the growth of a wide variety of organisms, including some of the more fastidious ones
65
ex of enriched media
blood agar (sheep/horse) chocolate agar
66
differential media
used to differentiate one microorganism from another
67
reducing media
used for growth of obligate anaerobes
68
selecive media
used for growth of only selected microorganisms
69
catalase test how does it work
catalyzes the degradation of h2o2 to water and oxygen
70
catalse test results
catalse + will produce bubbles when exposed to a solution of h2o2
71
staphylococci catalase + or -
catalase +
72
streptococci and enterococci catalase + or -
catalase -
73
oxidase test results
cytochrome c can accept e- from artificial substances, producing a dark, oxidized product
74
how does coagulase test work
coagulase causes a clot to form when bacteria are incubated w plasma
75
staphyloccocus aureus coagulase + or -
coagulase +
76
staphylococci coagulase + or -
coagulase -
77
how does urease test work
urease hydrolzyses urea to NH3 and CO2 ammonia produced and detected w pH indicates (phenol red) that change color in response to increased alkalinity
78
metabolic pathway test what does color change indicate
color change indicates the presence or absence of the bacteria's ability to metabolize a particular substrate
79
quelling reaction result
makes bacteria w CAPSULE more visible (appears SWOLLEN [+]) when organisms are treated w serum w specific antibodies
80
latex agglutination test result
latex and other particles can be readily coated w either antibody (for antigen detection) or antigen (for antibody detection) addition of antigen to antibody-coated latex beads causes AGGLUTINATION +
81
complement fixation test result
solution turns PINK detects ability of the antibody to bind complement
82
ELISA result
enzyme converts substrate into a colored product (antigen/antibody mechanism)
83
Western blotting results
protein detection SDS PAGE w weight
84
disk diffusion method (kirby-bauer disk-diffusion method) result
disks w exact amounts of different antimicrobial agents are placed on culture dishes inoculated w the microbe to be tested SIZE OF ZONE GROWTH inhibition is influenced
85
minimal inhibitory [ ] results
dilution technique to see sensitivity to antibiotic
86
bactericidal vs bacteriostatic
bacteriostatic - drug arrest the growth and replication and limits spread while body's immune system handles the pathogen bactericidal - kills bacteria