Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Y. Strabismus > Introduction/Evaluation > Flashcards

Introduction/Evaluation Flashcards

1
Q

___% of strabismus patients develop amblyopia

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of patients whose chief complaint is an eye turn actually have strabismus?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Incidence of strab in children

A

3-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What magnitude of deviation is found in infantile ET?

A

35-40 ∆

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Age of onset for Infantile ET

A

Birth to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Age of onset for Accommodative ET?

A

2-3 yrs

when toddler begins exploring near world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the first few months of life, infants come exhibit variables amount of strab.

What magnitude and at what age is this finding normal and thought to resolve over time 25% of the time?

A

< 30 ET between 3-6 months will resolve 25% of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Characteristics of an eye turn

A

FLORIDA

Frequency
Location
Onset
Relieving Factors
Intensity
Direction
Associations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A premature baby is born before ____

A

37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a low birth weight?

A

< 1500 g or 3.3 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an abnormal APGAR score?

A

≤ 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

APGAR score is based on

A
  1. Skin color
  2. Pulse rate
  3. Reflex response
  4. Muscle tone
  5. Breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Birth History pertinent to Strab/Amblyopia (6)

A
  1. Premature birth
  2. Low birth weight
  3. Low APGAR score
  4. Prenatal morbidity
  5. Substance abuse/smoking
  6. Older maternal age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is considered an older maternal age?

A

> 30 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Developmental Hx pertinent to Strab/Amblyopia

A
  1. Craniofacial anomalies
  2. Neurodevelopmental impairment
  3. Down Syndrome
  4. ROP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 Ways to Assess Amblyopia Treatment Prognosis

A
  1. 2.0x Telescope
  2. Neutral Density Filter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amblyogenic Factor: Isometropia Astigmatism

A

> 2.5 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Amblyogenic Factor: Isometropia Hyperopia

A

> 5 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amblyogenic Factor: Isometropia Myopia

A

> 8 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Amblyogenic Factor: Anisometropic Astigmatism

A

> 1.5 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Amblyogenic Factor: Anisometropic Hyperopia

A

> 1 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Amblyogenic Factor: Anisometropic Myopia

A

3 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

UCT determines

A

Presence/absence of strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ACT determines

A

Direction and magnitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Testing distance for Hirschberg/Krimsky
50-100 cm
26
Testing Distance for Bruckner
75-100 cm
27
3 reasons for false positives in Bruckner
1. Anisocoria 2. Significant Anisometropia 3. Unilateral media opacity
28
4 Tests to assess Ocular Alignment
1. CT 2. Hirschberg/Krimsy 3. Bruckner 4. 4 BO Test
29
Why are objective tests more appropriate to test ocular alignment than subjective tests?
Pt may have developed *anomalous correspondence*
30
4 BO Test: Prism placed in front of the left eye and there is no movement. What is the result? Does this confirm a microET?
(+) 4 BO Test OS No, 4 BO Test does not confirm the presence of a strab; it only confirms presence of suppression.
31
4 BO Test: Prism placed in front of right eye Both eyes move the the left Left eye then moves to the right What is the result? What happens if you switch the prism to the other eye?
(-) 4 BO Test OD, OS Same results; a version followed by a duction confirms suppression in neither eye
32
**RECTUS** muscles insert at a ___º angle and ____ the equator
20º In front of
33
**OBLIQUE** muscles insert at a ___º angle and ____ the equator
50º Behind
34
Hering’s Law are in reference to ____ (synergists/antagonists)
Synergists
35
Sherrington’s Law are in reference to ____ (synergists/antagonists)
Antagonists
36
In a palsy of ____ onset, secondary deviation is larger than primary. Why?
RECENT; Hering’s
37
Primary deviation is measured when which eye is fixating? (Affected/Unaffected)
Unaffected
38
Secondary deviation is measured when which eye is fixating? (Affected/Unaffected)
Affected
39
3 Reasons for EOM underaction/overaction
1. **Innervation deficiency** (CN 3, 4, or 6) 2. **Mechanical reasons** (faulty muscle insertion restricting movement) 3. **Paretic EOM** (e.g. trauma)
40
What is the difference between an ocular torticollis and congenital torticollis?
Ocular torticollis — head tilt due to visual issue (resolves w/ correction) Congenital torticollis — abnormal head/shoulder mm.
41
(+) Forced Duction Test means…
The eye did **NOT** move —> mechanical (e.g. muscle entrapment)
42
(-) Forced Duction Test means…
Muscle was **able to move** —> innervational issue
43
3 Tests to test Comitancy
1. Hess Lancaster 2. CT in 9 Gazes 3. Red Lens Test in 9 Gazes
44
Parks 3 Step must *always* be conducted when ___
Presence of vertical deviation
45
What are the 3 steps in Parks Three Step?
1. Which is hyper in primary gaze 2. Which gaze makes the deviation worse? 3. Which head tilt makes the deviation worse?
46
Why must you perform retinoscopy monocularly?
An eye turn will cause a pt to appear more myopic
47
TRUE/FALSE: unsteady fixation is seen in *both* CF and EF
TRUE
48
Rank these in order from Best VA to Worst VA: 1. Steady CF 2. Unsteady CF 3. Steady EF 4. Unsteady EF
Best VA | 1. Steady CF 2. Unsteady CF 3. Unsteady EF 4. Steady EF | Worst VA
49
3 tests to assess Fixation
1. Brock After Image 2. MIT 3. Visuoscopy
50
Formula for determine approximate VA for EF
**VA = 20 / [20(1+PD)]** Example: 3 PD EF 20 ( 1+3 ) = 80 Estimated VA: 20/80
51
What (in the retina) causes Haidinger’s Brush?
Xanthophyl in Henle’s Layer (around the fovea)
52
MIT: OD is occluded OS is open OS views brush 2 cm left of fixation What is the EF?
2 PD temporal EF
53
Which eye is *flashed* during Brock After Image?
NON-amblyopic eye
54
TRUE/FALSE: Patients will *mild* amblyopia may still have stereopsis
TRUE
55
First Degree Fusion
Superimposition — can perceive two dissimilar targets as occupying same visual direction
56
Second Degree Fusion
Flat Fusion — fusion w/o stereopsis
57
Third Degree Fusion
Stereopsis
58
Horror Fusionis
Inability to fuse two images — Approaching targets seem to slide of jump without apparent fusion or suppression
59
W4D: Why might a patient that suppresses OS (sees 2 red dots only) at a distance of 6 m, perceive fusion when retested at 33 cm?
At 6m, suppression zone is larger than target angle At 33 cm, the target angle is larger than the suppression zone
60
TRUE/FALSE: size of suppression zone is independent of room lighting
FALSE
61
TRUE/FALSE: pts often develop **both** suppression *and* AC
TRUE
62
Name 2 tests of *motor* fusion
1. BI/BO range 2. NPC

Y. Strabismus (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions