Introduction to Pathology Flashcards
(109 cards)
1
Q
A disease process caused by physicians or their treatment is
A
Iatrogenic
2
Q
A basic reaction of the body to some form of injury is a
A
disease process
3
Q
What term is used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown?
A
Idiopathic
4
Q
Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells, is called
A
Neoplasia
5
Q
The initial response of body tissues to local injury is
A
Inflammation
6
Q
Heat and redness associated with inflammation is produded by
A
Hyperemia
7
Q
In an injury, the destroyed tissue is replaced with
A
granulation tissue
*Granulation tissue referdeveloping cappillaries and actively proliferating fibroblasts, which produce connective tissue fibers (collagen) that replaced the dead tissue.
8
Q
Of the five clinical signs of acute inflammation, the medical term for swelling is
A
edema
9
Q
Some bacterial organisms produce substances that cause damageto the tissue and incite the inflammatory process konwn as
A
toxins
10
Q
Chronic inflammation in a localized area, which often has centralized necrosis is called
A
granuloma
11
Q
In acute inflmmation, the localized heat and redness are a result of the
A
increased blood flow and vascular permeability
12
Q
In pyogenic infections, the body responds by producing a thick, yellow fluid called
A
pus
13
Q
All pyogens have the ability to enter the blood circulation causing
A
bacteremia
14
Q
Connective tissue fibers replacing dead tissue and then contracting in the abdomen are known as
A
fibrous adhesions
15
Q
An accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue throughout the body is called
A
anasarca
16
Q
Localized _______ is produced in an inflammatory reaction as a result of fluid accumulation
A
edema
17
Q
An inflammation associated with pus formation
A
suppurative inflammation
18
Q
The protein-rich fluid associated with swelling on an inflammatory process is
A
exudate
19
Q
________ of the diaphragm is a rare congenital abnormality in which one hemidiaphragm (very rarely both) is poorly developed and too weak to permit the upward movement of abdominal contents into the thoracic cage. The condition is usually asymptomatic and occurs more frequently on the left.
A
Eventration
20
Q
Refers to the presence of infected liquid or frank pus in the pleural space.
A
Empyema
21
Q
Pleural fluid that collects below the inferior surface of the lung and gives the radiographic appearance of an elevated hemidiaphragm
A
subpulmonic effusion
22
Q
Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
A
pleural effusion
23
Q
Is caused by penetrating or blunt injuries that disrupt the lung and parietal pleura and force air into the tissues of the chest wall.
A
Subcutaneous emphysema
24
Q
Air within the mediastinal space
A
Mediastinal emphysema or pneumomediastinum
25
This syndrome describes a clinical picture of severe, unexpected and life threatening acute respiratory distresss that develops in patients who have a variety of medical and surgical disorders but no major underlying lung disease
Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) "shock lung"
26
What is a common nickname for adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Shock Lung
27
Is a shower of bacteria that enter the pulmonary circulation and remain trapped within the lung. Many patients have a clinical history of intravenous drug abuse.
Septic Embolism
28
The least common type of lung tumor
bronchiolar (alveolar cell) carcinoma
29
What is the most common type of lung cancer?
Squamous carcinoma
30
What is the most common primary malignant lung neoplasm?
Bronchogenic Carcinoma
31
(True or False) Bronchial adenomas are neoplasms of high grade malignancy.
False: low grade malignancy
32
Anthracite particles change the lung tissue to a dark color, leading to the nickname:
black lung
33
What type of pneumoconiosis is typically referred to coal worker's disease?
Anthracosis
34
What is the major complication of asbestosis?
Mesothelioma (a highly malignant pleural tumor)
35
Is the most common and best-known work-realted lung disease?
Silicosis
36
What are the 3 most common types of pneumoconiosis?
Silicosis
Asbestosis
Anthracosis
37
This disease is caused by occupational exposure to certain irritating particulates that can cause chronic interstitial inflammation that leads to pulmonary fibrosis and diffuse nonspecific radiographic pattern of linear streaks and nodules throughout the lungs
Pneumoconiosis
38
This is a multisystem granulomatous disease unknown origin that most often is detected in young adults. It is more prevalent in African Americans. It can cause skeletal lesions primarily in the small bones of the hands and feet - looks like punched out areas of lucency.
Sarcoidosis
39
Refers to the permanent abnormal dilation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall.
Bronchiectasis
40
Asthma cause by exercise, heat or cold, emotional upset
Intrinsic Asthma
41
Comon allergens: pollen, molds, animal dander, house dust
Extrinsic asthma
42
Is a cripping and debilitating condition in which obtructive and destructive changes in small airways (the acini or terminal bronchioles) lead to a dramatic increase in the volume or air in the lungs.
Emphysema
43
The most common radiographic abnormality in ________ ________ is a generalized increase in bronchovascular markings "dirty chest" especially in the lower lungs. Also, thickening of the bronchial walls and peribronchial inflammation can cause parallel or slightly tapered tubular line shadows "tram lines"?
Chronic Bronchitis
44
Hyperplastic means:
increase in number of cells
45
A chronic inflammation of the bronchi that leads to severe coughing with production of sputum. It may be a complication of respiratory infection or the result of long-term exposure to air pollution or cigarette smoking:
chronic bronchitis
46
The disease includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult.
COPD
47
This relatively new virus is a coronavirus of unknown etiology. It may survive in the environment for many days. person-to-person or droplet contact causes upper and lower respiratory infections that begin with a nonproductive cough and progress to hypoxemia.
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
48
The virus that primarily affects children and it attacks the lower respiratory tract, causing necrosis of the respiratory epithelium of the bronchi and bronchioles, which lead to brocholitis. The necrotic material and edema from the infection cause bronchial obstruction. Bronchiolitis produces bronchial spasm, and instertial pneumonia accurs as a result of obstruction
Respiratory Syncitial Virus
49
(True or False) Respiratory syncitial virus (RSV) is estimated to affect almost all children by age 2
True
50
Pulmonary mycosis means what?
Fungal infection of the lung
51
A ______ is a sharply circumscribed parenchymal nodule, often containing viable tuberculosis bacilli, that can develop in either primary or secondary disease.
Tuberculoma
52
(True or False) Secondary TB most commonly affects the upper lobes, especially the apical and posterior segments
True
53
________ tuberculosis refers to dissemination of the disease by way of the bloodstream.
Miliary
54
_______TB has traditionally been considered a disease of children and adults.
Primary
55
The tuberculin skin test does not become positive until ___ to ___ weeks after infection
2-10 weeks
56
TB has a ___ to ___ week incubation period.
3-6 weeks
57
What is hemoptysis?
coughing of blood
58
(True or False) in the lung, TB scars are commonly found in the posterior apical segments.
True
59
(True or False) Tuberculosis is only affects the lungs
False: It is a primary disease of lungs, however, it can spread to involve gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and skelteal system as well
60
What is the most common cause of lung abscesses?
Aspiration
61
A lung _____ is a necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma containing purulent (pus like) material
abscess
62
This disorder is caused by inhilation of bacillus anthracis; it germinates in the lung tissue and lymph nodes producing deadly toxins that cause cellualar edema and disruption of normal cell function. Early signs are similar to influenza, when progressed it may cause labored breathing, shock, and death.
Anthrax
63
What are the three ways of contacting anthrax?
cutaneous (through an opening in the skin)
inhalation (lungs)
gastrointestinal
64
This type of pneumonia is caused by aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung; due to the effects of gravity, the posterior segments of the upper and lower lobes are most commonly affected.
Aspiration Pneumonia
65
When left untreated, this type of pneumonia may cause "honeycomb lung" which is demonstrated in CT as cytic like spaces and dense fibrotic walls
Instertitial Pneumonia
66
This type of pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and pycoplasmal infections. The inflammatory process predominantly involves the walls and lining of the alveoli and the instertial supporting structures of the lung, the alveoli septa
Instertitial pneumonia
67
_________ is of staphylococcal origin. It is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi of bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli; tends to cause small patches of consolidation.
Bronchopneumonia
68
__________ pneumonia is of pneumococcal origin. It causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung is no longer air containing - appears radiopaque; spread from one alveolus to another; may involve segment or an entire lobe
Alveolar (air-space) pneumonia
69
Acute ______ is an inflammation of the lung that can be caused by a variety of organisms, most commonly bacteria or viruses
Pneumonia
70
_________ shows on a lateral projection of the neck using soft tissue techniques. it looks like a rounded thickened epiglottic shadow about the size of the adult's thumb.
Epiglottitis
71
This is an acute infection of the epiglottis, most comonly caused by Haemophilus influenza in children, it causes thickening of the epiglottic tissue and surrounding pharyngeal structure
Epiglottitis
72
_______ is demonstrated as a tappered narrowing (hourglass shape) of the subglottic airway on a frontal radiograph of the lower neck - caused by edema.
Croup
73
_______ is primarily a viral infection of young children that produces inflammatory obstructive swelling localized to the subglottic portion of the trachea
Croup
74
This mixture of lipids, proteins and carbohydrates create high surface tension in the lungs, requiring les force to inflate and maintain the alveoli - too little of this substance can cause hyaline membrane disease in infants.
Surfactant
75
The progressive underaeration of the lungs in hyaline membrane disease results from a lack of ______ and immature lungs.
Surfactant
76
The respiratory disease is one of the most common causes of respiratory distress in the newborn. It occurs primarily in premature infants, especially those who have diabetic mothers or who have been delivered by cesarean section
Hyaline Membrane Disease aka Idiophatic Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)
77
What chest projection is needed to demonstrate whether or not a cardiac pacemaker is placed correctly in the right ventricle.
Lateral Chest, because only the lateral projection will demonstrate if the pacemaker has been mislaced in the coronary sinus
78
Ideally, the tip of pacemaker should be positioned at the apex of the ______ ventricle
right
79
Transvenous _______ ________ is the method of choice for maintaining cardiac rhythm in patients with heart block or bradyarrythmias.
endocardiac pacing
80
(True or False) The most common complication associated with the use of Swan-Ganz catheter is pulmonary infarction distal to the catheter tip.
True
81
Ideally, the Swan-Ganz catheter is positioned so that it lies within the right or left main _______ artery.
Pulmonary
82
What type of catheter is flow-directed and consists of a central channel for measuring pulmonary capillary wedge (PCW) pressure and a second, smaller channel connected to an inflatable balloon at the catheter tip. Cardiac output and CVP can also be measured.
Swan-Ganz Catheter
83
What type of catheter has become the long term venous access device used for home therapy and for patients undergoing chemotherapy.
PICC (Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter)
84
Where should a CVC be located?
within the true venous central system, where the brachiocephalic veins join to form the superior vena cava or within the svc itself (should be medial to the anterior border of the first rib on chest radiographs)
85
This type of catheter is inserted into the subclavian vein or more peripheral vein in the upper extremity. It is useful foe measuring central venous pressure (CVP) and providing a condult for rapid infusion of fluid or chronic hyperalimentation.
CVC (Central Venous Catheter)
86
When the head and neck are in neutral position, the endotrachealntube tip ideally should be about __ to __ cm above the carina.
5-7 cm
87
What are the two different blood supplies tot he lungs?
Pulmonary Circulation - low pressure, low resistance system through which oxygen enters and CO2 exits the circulatory system
Bronchial Circulation - high pressure system that supplies oxygenated blood to nourish the lung tissue itself
88
The _______ and the ______ between the ribs are the muscles of respiration.
diapragm and intercostal muscles
89
Respiration is controlled by a center in the _____ at the base of the brain. the level of CO2 in the blood regulates this respiratory center.
medulla
90
A cluster of alveoli is called what?
acinus
91
_______-________Precations: the need for additional protective equipment to prevent the spread of highly infectious pathogens through contact, droplet, or airborne transmission.
Transmission-Based
92
______________ - gowns, gloves, masks, shoe covers and eye protection, used to prevent transmission of potential infectious agent
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
93
Protection utilized when delivering healthcare services to any person.
Standard Precautions
94
A hypersensitive reaction rsulting in a histamine release
anaphylactic reaction
95
Treated toxin with antigenic power to produce immunity by creating antibodies
toxoid
96
Contact with dead or deactivated microorganisms to form antibodies:
vaccine
97
Forming antibodies to counteract an antigen by way of vaccine or toxoid:
active immunity
98
A person is protected against antigens; antibodies bind with antigens to make them harmless:
immune
99
immunoglobulins responding to the antigens to make them harmless
antibodies
100
Foreign substance that evokes an immune response
antigen
101
A ______ is an alteration in the DNA structures that may become a permanent hereditary change
mutation
102
A ______ gene only manifestss itself when a person is homozygous for the trait.
recessive
103
A ______ gene always produces an effect
dominant
104
Each human cell contains ____ chromosomes divided into ____ pairs
46 - (44 autosomes, 2 X for females)
| 23 - (1 X, 1 Y for males)
105
What is the most common hereditary abnormality?
enzyme dificiency
106
Malignant neoplasms disseminate to distant sites by one of three pathways:
1. seeding within body cavities
2. lymphatic spread
3. hematogenous spread
107
How are benign tumors generally named?
Adding the cell type from which the tumor rose
| (i.e - fibrous tissue) to the suffix 'oma', Fibroma
108
The ______ of a neoplasm largely determines its biologic behavior and is the component that determines how the tumor is named.
parenchyma
109
What are the two basic componentss of all tumors?
1. parenchyma (organ tissue)
| 2. supporting stroma (supporting tissue)
