IPC Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the privileges of a pilot with an IFR Rating?

A

Pilot in command an A/C under the IFR and or NVFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is required for circling approach?

A

Must have passed an IR Flight test or IPC in the previous 12 Months which included a Circling Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between Multi Engine IR endorsement and Single Engine IR endorsement?

A

The MEIR supersedes the SEIR; however, if MEIR has lapsed, cannot operate a ME Helicopter under the recency of the SEIR Recency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What limitations apply to IFR operations?

A

The aircraft and pilot must be adequately equipped and trained to carry out IFR operations, valid proficiency check completed, or passed the flight test for the rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the approach recency requirement?

A

3 IAP Procedures required in the previous 90 days, including 1 IAP in the aircraft category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the NVFR requirement for IFR current?

A

1 TO & LO in 6 months (3 TO/LO in 90 days for part 133 operations), Flight review 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the single pilot limitation for IFR?

A

A flight or simulated flight within the previous 6 Months of at least 1 hour duration and at least 1 IAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the validity period of an IPC?

A

The IPC is valid for a period of 12 months to the end of the month from the completion date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens if a candidate fails the IPC?

A

They can no longer exercise the privileges of the IR in the appropriate aircraft category until passing another IPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What qualifies a Multi Engine Rotorcraft for IFR?

A

Must have a Category A supplement in the RFM and be capable of maintaining terrain clearance during engine failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft?

A

Cloud ceiling that allows the aircraft to achieve Vy (80 KIAS) or Vmin IMC (50 KIAS) before entering cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the visibility requirements for take-off minima?

A

550m visibility with specific aerodrome conditions or 800m otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance for circling area CAT A?

A

300FT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is required for visual circling?

A

Maintain visibility along the intended flight path and visual contact with the landing environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must be done if visual reference is lost during circling?

A

An immediate climbing turn shall be commenced towards the runway and climb to LSALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the alternate aerodrome requirements?

A

Must be a suitable destination for the flight and must not be a helideck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What visibility and cloud requirements apply for VFR alternate planning?

A

Class G Aerodrome: 3000m visibility, cloud no more than SCT below 1000ft; Class C or D Aerodrome: 8000m visibility, cloud no more than SCT below 1500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the IFR alternate requirements regarding IAP?

A

If the destination does not have an IAP, you must provide an alternate unless specific weather conditions are met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does PROB refer to in weather forecasting?

A

Probability of conditions deteriorating below Alternate Requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the minimum fuel requirement for IFR Helicopters?

A

30 Minutes fixed reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the minimum fuel requirement for VFR Helicopters?

A

20 Minutes fixed reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the handling speeds for Category A during circling?

A

Initial: 90-150, Final: 70-120, Circling: 100, Missed: 110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the handling speed range for Category H?

A

Initial: 70-120, Final: 60-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the difference between INTER and TEMPO periods for holding fuel?
INTER requires 30 Minutes holding fuel; TEMPO requires 60 Minutes holding fuel
26
What is the buffer time required for INTER or TEMPO periods?
30 minutes buffers apply either side of the INTER or TEMPO period
27
What is TAF3?
TAF3 undergoes a scheduled review every hour and provides coverage for 18-30 hours
28
What is the maximum crosswind limitation for helicopter operations?
60 Knots maximum start up limitation
29
What must a PIC do if they commence a flight without a valid weather forecast?
The flight may continue if a forecast is received within 30 mins after departure
30
What must the pilot in command (PIC) do if they commence a flight without a valid weather forecast?
The flight may continue if a forecast is received within 30 mins after departure ## Footnote The pilot must be satisfied that a safe return to the departure aerodrome can be made within 1 hour.
31
What are the handling speeds for Category A aircraft during approach?
Initial: 90-150, Final: 70-120, Circling: 100, Missed: 110 ## Footnote Handling speeds are critical for safe operations during various phases of flight.
32
What should be done during a partial lighting failure when conducting an IAP?
Increase landing minima visibility by a factor of 1.5 ## Footnote This applies if conducting an IAP in less than VMC at a controlled aerodrome with interleaved edge lighting.
33
What are the tolerances for navigation aids for a Part 61 IPC after passing the FAF?
NDB: +-5 Degrees, CDI: Half Scale Deflection, DME: +- 2nm ## Footnote Exceeding these tolerances requires a missed approach to be commenced.
34
What is the minimum SID gradient for controlled airspace?
Minimum SID gradients are annotated in % on SID plates ## Footnote If the % Gradient is in brackets, it indicates the required climb percentage.
35
What is the minimum obstacle clearance during a missed approach?
100ft above obstacles ## Footnote This ensures safety until the completion of the missed approach.
36
What is the standard angle of bank for holding and IAP procedures?
25 degrees or rate one turn, whichever is less ## Footnote Rate 1 Turn is calculated as TAS/10 + 7.
37
What is the requirement for an aircraft under IFR to be established on track?
Must be established on Track within 5nm if not departing via a SID or radar vectors ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining safe navigation.
38
What are the minimum sector altitudes for IFR aircraft?
1000ft clearance for 25nm and 10nm sectors ## Footnote If the 25nm sector is lower than the 10nm sector, it may be used as the minimum safe height.
39
What are the requirements for initiating a missed approach?
N- Not visual at MDA/DA, U- Unable to maintain visual reference, T- Tolerance exceeded, S- Suspect Aid ## Footnote Each condition indicates a need for a missed approach.
40
What must pilots conduct before takeoff regarding altimeter checks?
Accuracy check of the aircraft altimeter(s) when an accurate QNH is available ## Footnote This ensures the altimeter is serviceable before flight.
41
What is the acceptable error for IFR altimeters with an accurate QNH set?
Must read the nominated elevation to within 60FT ## Footnote If an error exceeds ± 75FT, the altimeter is considered unserviceable.
42
What is the maximum visibility error allowed for a VFR altimeter?
100FT (110FT at test sites above 3,300FT) ## Footnote A faulty altimeter must be placarded unserviceable if it exceeds this error.
43
What are the types of QNH that pilots can set prior to passing the IAF?
* Accurate QNH from an approved source * Valid TAF QNH * Forecast Area QNH ## Footnote Area QNH is valid for 3 hours.
44
What is the minimum altitude for an IFR approach ban?
PIC must not descend below 1,000 feet AGL if RVR is continually less than landing minima ## Footnote This applies to aerodromes with ATC service and RVR reports.
45
What is the minimum LSALT for IFR operations?
1500ft ## Footnote Grid LSALT considers RNP tolerances and terrain clearance.
46
What must pilots do to avoid thunderstorm activity?
Avoid by 5-10nm depending on intensity ## Footnote Diversions are required after 2 IAPs unless conditions improve.
47
What is the required navigation performance (RNP) for GNSS?
RNP2 – 95% accurate position within 2nm & 99.9% within 4nm ## Footnote RNP for approaches is more stringent at 0.3nm and 0.6nm.
48
What does RAIM stand for?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring ## Footnote RAIM is essential for ensuring the integrity of GNSS signals.
49
What must pilots do if there is a loss of RAIM during enroute operations?
Notify ATC if loss exceeds 5 minutes ## Footnote For terminal RNP 1, notify ATC immediately upon loss.
50
What are the transponder codes for IFR Class G operations?
* 2000 - IFR Class G * 7500 - Unlawful Interference * 7600 - Communications Failure * 7700 - In Flight Emergency ## Footnote These codes are critical for emergency and communication situations.
51
What are the landing minima for an RNP APCH-LNAV/VNAV?
Must not be below the highest of: * DA or DH on IAP * Relevant minima in AFM * Relevant minima in operations manual ## Footnote This ensures safety during the approach.
52
What is the minimum visibility for landing minima if TDZ RVR report is not available?
800 m ## Footnote This applies when the approach lighting system beyond 420 m is inoperative.
53
What does HIAL stand for?
High Intensity Approach Lighting system
54
What is the maximum operational distance of HIAL?
900 meters
55
What visibility is required when using HIAL with a precision approach?
550 meters
56
What is RVR and what does it report?
Runway Visual Range; reports visibility from each runway threshold
57
What happens if the approach lighting system is inoperative beyond 210 meters?
Visibility requirement increases to 1500 meters
58
If RVR is not available, what is the required visibility if the approach lighting is only available to 420 meters?
800 meters
59
What minimum altitude must not be below for RNP APCH-LNAV or RNP APCH-LP?
The highest of MDA, MDH, AFM minima, or operator's exposition minima
60
What visibility must not be below for RNP APCH-LNAV or RNP APCH-LP?
The highest of visibility specified on the instrument approach chart, AFM minima, or operator's exposition minima
61
What is the effect of a lighting failure at a controlled aerodrome?
Doubled spacing of runway edge lights from 60m to 120m
62
What is the minimum visibility if conducting a circling maneuver?
The highest circling minimum visibility specified on the instrument approach chart, AFM minima, or operator's exposition minima
63
True or False: The minimum altitude for an aerodrome without an authorized IAP must comply with visual approach requirements.
True
64
Fill in the blank: If the approach lighting system is inoperative, the visibility requirement is the visibility specified on the instrument approach chart, plus a value equivalent to the _______.
published length of the approach lighting system
65
What should the required visibility be when the runway edge lighting is U/S?
1200 meters
66
What is the visibility requirement if the approach cannot be executed coupled to the FD or autopilot?
1200 meters
67
What is the impact of interleaved lighting on visibility requirements?
Required visibility must be factored by 1.5
68
What does AFM stand for in the context of minima specifications?
Aircraft Flight Manual
69
What visibility is required if the approach lighting system normally available for the runway is inoperative?
Visibility specified on the instrument approach chart, plus approach lighting system length