IRC MQF - 13 Feb 2015 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in IRC MQF - 13 Feb 2015 Deck (307):
1

1. Control instruments:
a. Display attitude and power.
b. Are calibrated to permit definite adjustments to attitude and (or) power.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Measure aircraft performance.

c. Both A and B above.

2

2. Performance instruments:
a. Indicate the results of pilot control input.
b. Include the altimeter; airspeed indicator; attitude indicator and turn and slip.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Indicate aircraft relative position.

a. Indicate the results of pilot control input.

3

3. Pilots or other crewmembers who can modify the cockpit display configuration must ensure primary flight instrumentation is always present. Primary flight instrumentation must provide:
a. An immediately discernible attitude recognition capability and an unusual attitude recovery capability.
b. Full-time attitude; altitude and airspeed information.
c. Complete fault indications.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

4

4. Which statement concerning unusual attitudes is correct?
a. The primary attitude indicator would be considered the most reliable instrument unless a warning flag is displayed.
b. If the attitude indicator is inoperative; rolling “toward” the turn needle will bring the aircraft to an upright attitude.
c. Prior to initiating unusual attitude recovery on the attitude indicator; verify that an unusual attitude exists.
d. To minimize the altitude loss; the power should be at idle during a nose-low unusual attitude recovery.

c. Prior to initiating unusual attitude recovery on the attitude indicator; verify that an unusual attitude exists.

5

5. The TO-FROM indicator on the course indicator:
a. Depends on aircraft heading relative to the selected course.
b. Is not affected by the aircraft heading.
c. Is of no value when flying VOR or TACAN.
d. Always indicates TO when the heading pointer or course arrow is in the top half of the instrument case.

b. Is not affected by the aircraft heading.

6

6. You are inbound on the back course of a localizer approach. The published inbound front course is 030 degrees (figure 6). To intercept course (no wind); you should:
a. Turn right.
b. Turn left.
c. Maintain present heading.
d. Insufficient information is available.

a. Turn right.

7

7. If there is a malfunction of the compass system or compass card; the VOR or TACAN bearing pointers:
a. must be considered unreliable until verified.
b. will indicate relative bearing only.
c. point to the station.
d. will indicate magnetic bearing only.

a. must be considered unreliable until verified.

8

8. You have selected VOR or TACAN and have the indications shown in figure 1; What is your position in figure 2?
a. Insufficient information is given.
b. Position 10.
c. Position 9.
d. Position 8.

d. Position 8.

9

9. You have selected VOR or TACAN and have the indications shown in figure 3; What is your position in figure 2?
a. Position 5.
b. Position 7.
c. Position 9.
d. Insufficient information is given.

c. Position 9

10

10. In figure 4; your position is:
a. SW of the VORTAC; heading 360 degrees.
b. SE of the VORTAC; heading 045 degrees.
c. NW of the VORTAC; heading 045 degrees.
d. NE of the VORTAC; heading 360 degrees.

d. NE of the VORTAC; heading 360 degrees.

11

11. You are flying a back course localizer; the published ILS front course is 300 degrees. Using figure 5; which statement is correct?
a. If you continue the present heading; you will intercept the localizer back course inbound.
b. To center the CDI; you should make an immediate right turn.
c. Your aircraft is heading 255 degrees and headed toward the localizer course.
d. Both a and c are correct.

c. Your aircraft is heading 255 degrees and headed toward the localizer course.

12

12. Using information provided in figure 5 to complete a course intercept; which of the following is/are true?
a. A lead-point must be calculated to complete the intercept.
b. This intercept heading will take the aircraft toward the NAVAId.
c. The aircraft is on a 45 intercept to the desired course.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

13

13. Using figure 7; in which direction and to what heading should you turn to intercept the 180 degrees radial inbound in a no-wind situation?
a. Right turn to a heading of 260 degrees.
b. Left turn to a heading of 300 degrees.
c. Right turn to a heading of 300 degrees.
d. Left turn to a heading between 270 degrees and 330 degrees.

c. Right turn to a heading of 300 degrees.

14

14. Using the cockpit indications shown in figure 8; you want to intercept the 300 degrees magnetic course outbound from the selected NAVAId. You should:
a. maintain your present heading.
b. turn right to a heading greater than 300 degrees.
c. turn 90 degrees to the left to place the bearing pointer on the 45 degrees index marker.
d. insufficient information is given.

a. maintain your present heading.

15

15. VOR and VOR/ DME station passage occurs:
a. when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.
b. with the first positive FROM indication for VOR and when range stops decreasing for VOR/ DME.
c. when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course.
d. all of the above.

a. when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.

16

16. Which statement is correct concerning station passage?
a. With VOR and VOR/DME; station passage occurs when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.
b. With TACAN; station passage is determined when the range indicator stops decreasing.
c. When established in the VOR or TACAN holding patterns; station passage is determined when the bearing pointer first moves through the wingtip position.
d. Both a and b are correct.

d. Both a and b are correct.

17

17. Your aircraft is positioned relative to the Boomer TACAN as indicated in figure 9. You are cleared direct to the 35 mile DME fix; Boomer TACAN 090 degrees radial. Your initial no-wind heading should be:
a. 060 degrees.
b. 120 degrees.
c. 210 degrees.
d. 300 degrees.

b. 120 degrees.

18

18. Required Navigation Performance Type (RNP Type) is a value stating the actual position of the aircraft for at least 95 percent of the total flying time from the intended position of that aircraft. This must remain within value is typically expressed in:
a. kilometers.
b. nautical miles.
c. thousands of feet.
d. degrees of deviation from desired track.

b. nautical miles.

19

19. After setting the reported altimeter setting; the maximum error allowed when comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known ground checkpoint is:
a. 25 feet.
b. 50 feet.
c. 75 feet.
d. none of the above.

c. 75 feet.

20

20. Cold weather altimeter corrections are designed to adjust published instrument approach procedure altitudes to ensure adequate obstacle clearance. This adjustment becomes important in temperatures lower than standard since:
a. the aircraft’s altitude is above the figure indicated by the altimeter.
b. the aircraft’s higher true airspeed decreases the required obstruction clearance radius.
c. the aircraft’s altitude is below the figure indicated by the altimeter.
d. both a and b above.

c. the aircraft’s altitude is below the figure indicated by the altimeter.

21

21. MAJCOMs allowing aircraft to fly an instrument approach procedure using a lower category must publish procedures to ensure that aircraft do not exceed _______________________.
a. TERPS airspace for the IAP being flown to include circling and missed approach.
b. 260 KTAS during a missed approach from an IAP flown to category C minimums.
c. minimum maneuvering airspeeds throughout the procedure.
d. all of the above.

a. TERPS airspace for the IAP being flown to include circling and missed approach.

22

22. An aircraft can fly an IAP:
a. only for its own category.
b. only for its own category or lower.
c. only for its own category or higher unless authorized by MAJCOM directives.
d. none of the above.

c. only for its own category or higher unless authorized by MAJCOM directives.

23

23. You are on radar vectors to the ILS shown in figure 39. Your TACAN fails; but your VOR is still operating normally. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Alternate missed approach instructions are needed prior to accepting clearance for the approach.
b. The approach is no longer available without the DME available.
c. Diversion to the alternate airfield is necessary.
d. None of the above.

a. Alternate missed approach instructions are needed prior to accepting clearance for the approach.

24

24. The NAVAIDs which appear in the name of an IAP:
a. indicate all navigational equipment required to execute the approach.
b. provide guidance from the IAF to the MAP.
c. provide course guidance from the FAF through completion of the missed approach.
d. are those that provide the final approach guidance.

d. are those that provide the final approach guidance.

25

25. If an IAF is displayed on an IAP by name only (no defining NAVAID and radial/DME):
a. refer to the appropriate airport facility in the enroute supplement for this information.
b. the IAF can only be defined by radar.
c. refer to the appropriate enroute and terminal charts for the area for this information.
d. the IAF can only be defined using GPS.

c. refer to the appropriate enroute and terminal charts for the area for this information.

26

26. The Minimum Safe Altitude depicted in figure 10 provides altitude clearance based on being within 25 NM of which NAVAID?
a. I-BAD Localizer.
b. BELCHER VORTAc.
c. BARKSDALE TACAN.
d. ELM GROVE VORTAc.

c. BARKSDALE TACAN.

27

27. If you are required to fly a circling approach which does not have a published ceiling; you can determine the required ceiling using which of the following methods:
a. round up the HAA to the next one hundred foot value.
b. add 100 feet to the HAA and then round up to the next one hundred foot value.
c. round up the HAA to the next even one hundred foot value.
d. add 200 feet to the HAa.

b. add 100 feet to the HAA and then round up to the next one hundred foot value.

28

28. You are planning to fly into MacDill AFB; Florida. You are filing Lakeland Linder Regional airport shown in figure 40 as your alternate. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Only the ILS Rwy 5 would qualify the airfield as the alternate.
b. You must use the weather minimums listed (CAT AB; 900-2; CAT C; 900-2½; CAT D; 900-2¾) to qualify the airfield as your alternate.
c. You may not plan on using any of the approaches listed to qualify the airfield as your alternate if the control tower would be closed during your arrival time.
d. None of the above.

c. You may not plan on using any of the approaches listed to qualify the airfield as your alternate if the control tower would be closed during your arrival time.

29

29. The maximum allowable CDI error when checking the VOR or TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint is:
a. + or - 2 degrees.
b. + or - 4 degrees.
c. + or - 6 degrees.
d. not specified.

b. + or - 4 degrees.

30

30. When checking the TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint; the allowable error is:
a. 1/2 mile or 3 percent of the distance to the facility; whichever is greater.
b. + or - 4 degrees.
c. + or - 6 degrees.
d. Both a and b above.

d. Both a and b above.

31

31. If the aircraft is equipped with dual VOR or dual TACAN receivers; the systems are considered reliable:
a. if each checks within + or - 4 degrees of the designated ground checkpoint.
b. if they check within + or - 4 degrees of each other.
c. both a and b above.
d. none of the above.

c. both a and b above.

32

32. Which of the following statements concerning IFR departure procedures is/are correct?
a. USAF aircraft are authorized to use non-standard takeoff weather minimums to “see-and-avoid” obstacles only if specific MAJCOM authorization exists.
b. USAF aircraft are not authorized to flight plan using “see-and-avoid” operations in lieu of meeting the required minimum climb gradient unless authorized by MAJCOM/A3.
c. both A and B above.
d. “See-and-avoid” weather minimums are mandatory for all civil pilots.

c. both A and B above.

33

33. TERPS specialists are not allowed to publish climb gradients to heights of 200 feet or less. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding these low; close-in obstacles?
a. TERPS specialists will publish the height and location of the applicable low close in obstacles. (this information can also appear in Notams).
b. You must ensure you can clear any obstacles published in this type of NOTE.
c. You do not need to consider these obstacles in climbout planning because there is no minimum climb gradient published for them.
d. Both a and b above are true.

d. Both a and b above are true.

34

34. While flying any type of IFR departure procedure; USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed a climb gradient of at least _______________.
a. 200 feet per NM
b. 200 feet per NM unless a higher gradient is published
c. 200 feet per minute unless a higher gradient is published
d. 152 feet per NM

b. 200 feet per NM unless a higher gradient is published

35

35. Unless a higher gradient is published; USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed _______ on all IFR departures.
a. Applicable “see-and-avoid” weather minima
b. A crossing height of 35 feet AGL at the end of the runway
c. 200 feet per nautical mile
d. All of the above

c. 200 feet per nautical mile

36

36. You are planning your mission to the Alexander Municipal County airport shown in figure 42. Which of the following is/are correct concerning your IFR departure?
a. If the weather is at or above 2300-3; the VCOA is authorized.
b. When using the VCOA; cross the Alexander Municipal Airport at or above 7500.
c. Use standard departure weather if able to meet or exceed 326’ per NM to 11700.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

37

37. Air Force pilots departing from an airfield other than USAF or USN not-joint-use bases will:
a. Plan to cross the DER at or above 35 feet; if the screen height is not published in the ODP or other reliable source.
b. Contact appropriate TERPS authority for the airfield if in doubt; or the 35 foot restriction limits mission capability.
c. Adhere to the published takeoff minimums listed on the SId.
d. Both A and B above.

d. Both A and B above.

38

38. Basic rules for all IFR departures include which of the following statements?
a. Delay all turns until at least 400 feet above the runway end elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.
b. Climb at a minimum of 200 feet per nautical mile unless a higher gradient is published.
c. USAF pilots operating under IFR must comply with applicable IFR climb gradients.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

39

39. You are performing a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) at a military field. Which statement is true?
a. Climb to at least 400 feet above the departure end of the runway (DER) elevation before initiating a turn unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.
b. Climb to at least 400 feet above the airport elevation before initiating a turn unless otherwise instructed.
c. After takeoff; ATC cannot cancel clearance for the SId.
d. All of the above are correct.

a. Climb to at least 400 feet above the departure end of the runway (DER) elevation before initiating a turn unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.

40

40. While flying a SID; you are given a clearance to maintain a specific altitude. You must:
a. Comply with intermediate altitude restrictions until reaching the assigned altitude.
b. Consider the SID cancelled.
c. Climb unrestricted to assigned altitude while following the SID routing.
d. Not accept the clearance unless the controller includes “SID cancelled” in the altitude clearance.

c. Climb unrestricted to assigned altitude while following the SID routing.

41

41. You are planning your mission to the Grant County airport shown in figure 41. Which of the following is/are correct concerning your IFR departure?
a. When departing runway 8; standard weather applies if the aircraft can maintain a minimum climb gradient of 354’ per nautical mile to 9200.
b. When departing runway 8; you may fly a VCOA if the weather is at least 3800-3.
c. When departing runway 3; a crane is identified as a low; close-in obstacle.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

42

42. Unless otherwise instructed; you are expected to hold in a standard holding pattern. A standard holding pattern (no wind) consists of:
a. Left turns; 1 1/2 minutes inbound when holding at or below 14;000 feet and 2 minutes when holding above 14;000 feet.
b. Right turns; 1 1/2 minutes inbound when holding below 14;000 feet and 2 minutes when holding above 14;000 feet.
c. Left turns; 1 minute inbound when holding at or below 14;000 feet and 1 1/2 minutes when holding above 14;000 feet.
d. Right turns; 1 minute inbound when holding at or below 14;000 feet and 1 1/2 minutes when holding above 14;000 feet.

d. Right turns; 1 minute inbound when holding at or below 14;000 feet and 1 1/2 minutes when holding above 14;000 feet.

43

43. The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern is:
a. 1 minute below 14;000 feet MSL and 1 1/2 minutes at or above 14;000 feet MSL.
b. Expressed in DME.
c. 1 minute at or below 14;000 MSL and 1 1/2 minutes above 14;000 feet MSL.
d. Determined by using timing for VOR and ADF and expressed in DME for TACAN.

c. 1 minute at or below 14;000 MSL and 1 1/2 minutes above 14;000 feet MSL.

44

44. In US airspace; do not exceed which of the maximum holding airspeeds shown below unless ATC has approved holding speeds in excess of these maximums?
a. 200 KIAS in holding patterns from 0 to 6000 feet MSL.
b. 230 KIAS in holding patterns from above 6000 feet to 14;000 feet MSL.
c. 265 KIAS in holding patterns above 14;000 feet MSL.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

45

45. teardrop holding pattern entry at your own discretion when on a heading conveniently aligned with the teardrop course. Excluding procedure turns; the teardrop course is defined as an outbound track with an angular difference of _____ from the outbound course on the holding side.
a. 30 degrees or less
b. 45 degrees or less
c. between 30 degrees and 45 degrees
d. at least 45 degrees

b. 45 degrees or less

46

46. The “AIM Method” is a holding technique which includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Parallel entry.
b. Teardrop entry.
c. Direct entry.
d. In lieu of entry.

d. In lieu of entry.

47

47. Begin outbound timing in the holding pattern when:
a. Over or abeam the fix.
b. Wings level outbound; if unable to determine the abeam position.
c. First positive “from” indication.
d. Either a or b above.

d. Either a or b above.

48

48. You are established in a holding pattern that has a published minimum holding altitude and are assigned an altitude above the minimum. In this situation; which statement is correct?
a. Commence the approach from your assigned altitude at the expiration of your EFc.
b. You may descend to the minimum holding altitude when cleared for approach; unless otherwise instructed by ATc.
c. Either a or b above is correct.
d. When cleared for the approach; request clearance to maneuver prior to beginning the descent.

b. You may descend to the minimum holding altitude when cleared for approach; unless otherwise instructed by ATc.

49

49. You are planning an en route descent and radar vectors to the ILS shown in figure 39. Your TACAN fails; but your VOR is still operative. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Coordinate lost communication instructions as Radar is required to fly the approach
b. The approach is no longer available without the DME available.
c. Diversion to the alternate airfield is necessary.
d. None of the above.

a. Coordinate lost communication instructions as Radar is required to fly the approach

50

50. Prior to starting an en route descent; you should:
a. Review the IAP for the type of final planned.
b. Recheck weather and coordinate lost communication procedures; if required.
c. Check heading and attitude systems.
d. All of the above are correct.

d. All of the above are correct.

51

51. You are en route to a holding fix; not collocated with the IAF; and subsequently cleared for approach. Which statement is correct?
a. You are expected to proceed to the IAF via the holding fix.
b. You may proceed directly to the IAF if specifically cleared to do so.
c. If the IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix; you are expected to begin the approach at the IAF.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

52

52. Which statement is correct concerning routing to an IAF once cleared for an approach?
a. While en route to a holding fix which is not collocated with the IAF; you are expected to proceed to the IAF via the holding fix.
b. While en route to a holding fix that is not collocated with the IAF; if the IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix; you are expected to begin the approach at the IAF.
c. Clearance for the approach does not include clearance to use holding airspace.
d. All of the above are correct.

d. All of the above are correct.

53

53. While being radar vectored; you should:
a. Repeat all headings.
b. Repeat all altitudes (departing and assigned).
c. Repeat all altimeter settings.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

54

54. When being radar vectored for the final approach portion of the IAP; you should remain oriented in relation to the FAF. Once cleared for the approach:
a. Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the published routing or IAP.
b. Maneuver the aircraft as necessary to intercept the final approach course.
c. You may descend to the FAF altitude when on a parallel or intercept heading to final approach course.
d. Do not descend below the last assigned altitude until you receive specific clearance from ATc.

a. Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the published routing or IAP.

55

55. You are receiving radar vectors to an ILS final approach and are subsequently cleared for the approach. You should:
a. Immediately descend to glide slope intercept altitude.
b. Not accept the clearance unless established on the localizer.
c. Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the published approach.
d. Immediately establish final approach configuration.

c. Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the published approach.

56

56. If you are cleared to “Descend Via” a published standard terminal arrival (STAR) you:
a. Must refuse this clearance if not in radar contact.
b. Must continue your descent as soon as each crossing restriction is met.
c. Must adhere to published altitude crossing restrictions and speeds unless otherwise cleared.
d. Must adhere to published altitude crossing restrictions; but speeds are advisory only.

c. Must adhere to published altitude crossing restrictions and speeds unless otherwise cleared.

57

57. Before filing or accepting a clearance for a STAR; ensure you can comply with any altitude and/or airspeed restrictions associated with the procedure.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

58

58. You’ve crossed the SIDON VORTAC at 10;000 and are cleared for the approach in figure 36. When are you allowed to descend from 10;000 MSL?
a. 4 DME or beyond.
b. Outbound abeam the VORTAC
c. On the 300 course outbound.
d. Both a and c above

d. Both a and c above

59

59. You’ve crossed the SIDON VORTAC at 10;000 and are cleared for the approach in figure 36. When you start your descent; what descent gradient will you maintain?
a. 500-800 feet per NM
b. 500-800 feet per minute
c. 800-1000 feet per NM
d. 800-1000 feet per minute

c. 800-1000 feet per NM

60

60. When the IAP depicts Dead Reckoning (DR) courses; you should:
a. Fly the heading depicted on the IAP and disregard wind corrections.
b. Attempt to fly the depicted ground track as closely as possible by applying wind corrections.
c. Use lead points onto and off of DR legs.
d. Both b and c above.

d. Both b and c above.

61

61. Your destination is Greater Peoria. On the DD Form 175; Military Flight Plan; you list the PIA VORTAC as your intended IAF and plan to fly the VOR or TACAN RWY 13 approach shown in figure 12. You will continue inbound on the final approach course without making the procedure turn if:
a. Issued an ATC clearance for a “straight-in” approach.
b. You were established in an assigned holding pattern on R-273.
c. ATC radar vectors to a final approach position have been provided.
d. Any of the above situations occur.

d. Any of the above situations occur.

62

62. A procedure turn will not be flown when:
a. You were issued clearance for a straight-in.
b. You are flying the approach via a NO PT routing.
c. You are established in holding; subsequently cleared the approach; and the holding course and procedure turn course are the same.
d. All the above.

d. All the above.

63

63. You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC from the Belcher VORTAC at 4;000 feet MSL. You are cleared for the ILS RWY 33 approach shown in figure 10. You are planning a teardrop entry to the procedure turn. Which of the following is an acceptable teardrop course?
a. 183 degrees.
b. 143 degrees.
c. 113 degrees.
d. 098 degrees.

c. 113 degrees.

64

64. You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC at 12;000 feet MSL when you are cleared for the ILS RWY 33 approach shown in figure 11. Upon reaching the VORTAC; the earliest you may descend from 4;000 feet MSL is:
a. Outbound abeam the Elm Grove VORTAC on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedural track course.
b. When the aircraft is established on the 327 radial inbound.
c. Once the aircraft is established on the terminal routing from Elm Grove to the IAF.
d. None of the above.

a. Outbound abeam the Elm Grove VORTAC on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedural track course.

65

65. The 80 /260 course reversal maneuver consists of intercepting and maintaining the procedure turn course outbound; an 80 turn away from the outbound track toward the maneuvering side followed by an immediate 260 turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

66

66. You are proceeding direct to the Janesville VOR at 4;000 feet MSL. You are cleared for the VOR RWY 4 approach shown in figure 13. Using the 45/180 degrees method to fly the approach; the earliest you may descend from 4;000 feet MSL is:
a. Outbound abeam the Janesville VOR.
b. When the aircraft is established on the outbound procedure turn course.
c. Once the aircraft is on a parallel or intercept heading to the outbound course.
d. A and C above.

d. A and C above

67

67. You have been cleared for the approach shown in figure 13. If you are established on the JVL 8 DME arc at 3;100 feet MSL; the earliest you may descend to 2;100 feet MSL is:
a. Once established on the 034 degrees course.
b. Once you have begun the turn to intercept the 034 degrees course.
c. Crossing JAVEK inbound.
d. Both a and c above.

b. Once you have begun the turn to intercept the 034 degrees course.

68

68. You are flying the VOR approach depicted in figure 14 in your category C aircraft which is equipped with a single VOR/DME receiver. If the TACAN is inoperative; to which MDA may you descend?
a. There is no way to identify the FAF so the approach is not authorized.
b. 520 feet MSL.
c. 644 feet MSL.
d. 680 feet MSL.

d. 680 feet MSL.

69

69. Descent below MDA is not authorized until sufficient reference has been established with the runway environment and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing. Which of the following is considered to be part of the runway environment?
a. The visual approach slope indicator.
b. The approach light system.
c. The threshold; threshold markings; or threshold lights.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

70

70. You are enroute to Alamosa/San Luis Valley Regional-Bergman Field shown in figure 45. During your NOTAMS update via Flight Service Station; you learn that the LOM is out of service. Which statement below is correct?
a. The approach is no longer authorized due to the LOM being OTS
b. The approach is still authorized as you may have Denver Center identify the FAF.
c. The approach is still authorized as you may cross-tune to identify the FAF via the ALS 260 radial.
d. The approach is not for civil aircraft.

c. The approach is still authorized as you may cross-tune to identify the FAF via the ALS 260 radial.

71

71. In the US; the glideslope; the localizer and the outer marker are required components for an ILS. If the outer marker is not available; it may be replaced by substitutes depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM. These substitutes include:
a. DME.
b. A crossing radial or another NAVAId.
c. Radar.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

72

72. The VDP is:
a. The point along the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent from MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced.
b. Normally identified by DME.
c. Not a mandatory part of the procedure.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

73

73. The VDP depicted on the IAP shown in figure 10 is for which approaches?
a. ILS 33.
b. LOC 33.
c. VOR 33.
d. Both b and c above.

b. LOC 33.

74

74. Which of the following statements concerning descent on an ILS approach is true?
a. When the glideslope intercept altitude is a recommended altitude; you must only comply with other IAP altitudes until established on the glideslope.
b. On some ILS approaches a “Glide slope Altitude at Outer Marker/FAF” will be published to allow the pilot to verify proper position on the glideslope when crossing the Outer Marker/FAF.
c. Do not descend below a descent restrictive altitude (minimum or mandatory) unless established on final approach course.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

75

75. You are flying the ILS approach shown in figure 15 in your category C aircraft. You inadvertently get more than 1 dot low on the glideslope. Which of the following applies?
a. Descend to 880 MDA on the localizer only after passing the CIRIS fix.
b. Continue the ILS to DH if the glideslope is recaptured above localizer minimums.
c. Do not descend below 1080 MDA on the localizer unless you can identify the CIRIS fix.
d. All the above.

d. All the above.

76

76. You are executing an ILS approach and; after intercepting the glide slope; your GSI indicates two dots above the glide slope. Which statement is correct?
a. You must execute an immediate missed approach.
b. Do not descend below localizer minima.
c. If the glide slope is recaptured; descent may be continued to DH.
d. Both b and c are correct.

d. Both b and c are correct.

77

77. The circling MDA for ASR approaches are found:
a. In the FLIP IFR Enroute Supplement.
b. In the FLIP IFR Enroute Supplement and in the front of the FLIP Terminal book.
c. In front of the FLIP Terminal book.
d. In none of the above.

c. In front of the FLIP Terminal book.

78

78. The circling MDA found on the individual IAP:
a. Refers to all circling approach procedures at the airfield.
b. Refers only to non-RADAR approaches.
c. Applies to the PAR where PAR minimums are listed on the IAP.
d. Should be used only when radar monitor is available.

b. Refers only to non-RADAR approaches.

79

79. If a straight-in approach is being flown; which statement concerning ASR approaches is correct?
a. The controller must inform the pilot of the straight-in MDa.
b. Descent rate should be sufficient to allow the aircraft to arrive at the MDA in time to see the runway environment and make a normal descent to landing.
c. Fly at the MDA until arrival at the MAP or until visual contact is made with the runway environment.
d. All of the above are correct.

d. All of the above are correct.

80

80. Which statement concerning PAR approaches is correct?
a. If the runway environment is not in sight at DA/DH; execute the appropriate missed approach procedure.
b. PAR controllers will advise when you pass adjusted DH required by MAJCOM; if appropriate.
c. A rate of descent that will ensure reaching MDA prior to MAP should be used.
d. All of the above are correct.

a. If the runway environment is not in sight at DA/DH; execute the appropriate missed approach procedure.

81

81. You are on an IFR flight plan operating in VMc. ATC clears you for a visual approach. ATC expects you to:
a. Execute a straight-in unless otherwise requested.
b. Cancel your IFR clearance.
c. Refuse a visual approach since you are on an IFR flight plan.
d. None of the above.

a. Execute a straight-in unless otherwise requested.

82

82. A visual approach is an approach where an aircraft on an IFR flight plan; operating under the control and authorization of an ATC facility; may proceed to the destination airport visually and clear of clouds. When cleared for a visual approach; you should:
a. Proceed direct to the airport; contact tower and execute a VFR traffic pattern.
b. Cancel the IFR clearance once clearance for the visual approach is issued.
c. Be aware that radar service is automatically terminated when instructed to change to advisory frequency.
d. Reject this clearance if in-flight visibility is less than 5 miles.

c. Be aware that radar service is automatically terminated when instructed to change to advisory frequency.

83

83. The contact approach:
a. Is another term describing a VFR traffic pattern.
b. Must be accomplished when directed by ATc.
c. Is a procedure that may be used by a pilot in lieu of conducting a standard or special instrument approach procedure to an airport.
d. Both b and c above.

c. Is a procedure that may be used by a pilot in lieu of conducting a standard or special instrument approach procedure to an airport.

84

84. You are on an IFR flight plan operating clear of clouds. You request and receive clearance for a contact approach. You should:
a. Proceed to the destination airport and execute a 360 degrees overhead traffic pattern.
b. Ensure flight visibility and reported ground visibility at the destination are at least 1 statute mile and proceed to destination airport via visual reference to the surface.
c. Maintain AFI 11-202; Volume 3; ceiling and visibility criteria and proceed to destination airport visually.
d. Expect radar vectors to the VDP.

b. Ensure flight visibility and reported ground visibility at the destination are at least 1 statute mile and proceed to destination airport via visual reference to the surface.

85

85. You are planning your mission to Rifle/Garfield County Regional airport shown in figure 46. While reviewing the ILS RWY 26 prior to departure; you notice the “Fly Visual 261º 3.9 NM” statement in the profile view. What does this statement tell you about this approach?
a. The TERPS specialist provides obstacle clearance beyond the MAP and provides the pilot with obstacle clearance during the visual fly-off.
b. While executing the visual segment; you must remain clear of clouds and proceed to the airport maintaining visual contact with the ground.
c. USAF aircraft are never allowed to fly any approach that has a visual fly-off beyond the MAP.
d. None of the above.

b. While executing the visual segment; you must remain clear of clouds and proceed to the airport maintaining visual contact with the ground.

86

86. You are flying an approach to an airfield which has a reported partial obscuration due to fog. Which of the following statements concerning “shallow fog” is false?
a. Runway visual range may not be representative of actual conditions in this situation.
b. You may see the approach lighting system and possibly even some of the runway during the early stages of the approach.
c. Instrument flight references should be dropped out of your crosscheck as soon as you have the runway environment in sight.
d. As the fog level is entered; most or all visual cues become confused and disoriented.

c. Instrument flight references should be dropped out of your crosscheck as soon as you have the runway environment in sight.

87

87. The circling approach is:
a. A visual flight maneuver.
b. Performed after the instrument approach is complete.
c. Used to align the aircraft with the landing runway.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

88

88. Concerning the sidestep maneuver; which statement is correct?
a. Pilots should not begin the sidestep maneuver prior to the FAF.
b. The sidestep MDA will be maintained until reaching a point where a normal descent to land on the sidestep runway can be started.
c. Do not begin the sidestep maneuver until the sidestep runway or runway environment is in sight.
d. All of the above are correct.

d. All of the above are correct.

89

89. You are flying the approach shown in figure 15 in your category C aircraft. Your ATC clearance is “cleared for ILS runway 36L approach. Sidestep to runway 36R.” On final approach; inside the FAF; the pilot:
a. May begin the sidestep maneuver to runway 36R when the runway environment for 36L is in sight.
b. May begin the sidestep maneuver when runway 36R is in sight.
c. Must maintain 1;080 feet MSL or above until reaching the point at which a normal descent to land on runway 36R may be started.
d. Both b and c above.

d. Both b and c above.

90

90. The MAP for the localizer approach shown in figure 16 is located:
a. 5.5 NM from the FAF (the MM).
b. At I-BFL 1.7 DME.
c. 6.0 NM from the FAF.
d. Both a and b above.

c. 6.0 NM from the FAF.

91

91. You are flying the localizer approach shown in figure 15. Where is the missed approach point for the localizer?
a. CIRIS Fix
b. I-BXN 1.2 DME
c. 5.2 NM from the FAF
d. a and b above.

c. 5.2 NM from the FAF

92

92. You may safely delay executing the missed approach beyond the MAP because approach designers consider this possibility when constructing approaches.
a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

93

93. If you initiate the missed approach prior to the MAP; you must:
a. Start an immediate climb to the minimum safe altitude as depicted on the IAP.
b. Immediately execute the published missed approach procedure because the approach designers have considered this situation and have provided necessary obstacle clearance.
c. Fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the MAP at or above the DA/DH before executing a turning maneuver.
d. Query the controller for further clearance and instructions.

c. Fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the MAP at or above the DA/DH before executing a turning maneuver.

94

94. Perform the missed approach from the DH or MAP if:
a. The runway environment is not in sight.
b. You are unable to make a safe landing.
c. You are directed by the controlling agency.
d. Any of the above.

d. Any of the above.

95

95. You lose visual reference while circling to land. You must:
a. Query the tower for appropriate missed approach instructions.
b. Initiate a turn toward the landing runway to ensure the aircraft remains within the obstruction clearance area.
c. Begin an immediate climb to ensure climb gradient requirements are met.
d. Both b and c above.

d. Both b and c above.

96

96. The PANS-OPS “Omni-directional Departure” is somewhat similar to the FAA’s “Diverse Departure” because no track guidance is provided. Departure restrictions; which may be published singly or in any combination; for this departure include:
a. A minimum climb gradient of more than 3.3% to an altitude before turns are permitted.
b. Sectors for which either a minimum turn altitude or a minimum climb gradient is specified.
c. Both A and B above.
d. A minimum in-flight visibility required to turn toward a specified sector.

c. Both A and B above.

97

97. You must comply with the speed limit published on an ICAO turning departure (SID) to remain within protected airspace on that procedure. If the departure is limited to specific aircraft categories; the applicable maximum speeds for aircraft categories A through E are:
a. 110 KIAS; 140 KIAS; 240 KIAS; 250 KIAS and 250 KIAS.
b. 120 KIAS; 165 KIAS; 265 KIAS; 290 KIAS and 300 KIAS.
c. 220 KIAS; 230 KIAS; 240 KIAS; 260 KIAS and 310 KIAS.
d. 150 KIAS for category A and 250 KIAS for all other categories.

b. 120 KIAS; 165 KIAS; 265 KIAS; 290 KIAS and 300 KIAS.

98

98. Like the FAA 45/180 procedure turn maneuver; timing for the 45 straight leg of the ICAO 45/180 Procedure Turn for category C; D and E aircraft is:
a. 1 minute and 15 seconds from the start of the turn.
b. 1 minute from the start of the turn.
c. 1 minute starting from wings level outbound on 45 course reversal track.
d. 45 seconds starting from wings level outbound on 45 course reversal track.

a. 1 minute and 15 seconds from the start of the turn.

99

99. The ICAO base turn procedure is optional. You may fly the 45/180 or 80/260 “reversal procedures” in lieu of the published base turn procedure.
a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

100

100. Unless the ICAO procedure specifies particular entry restrictions; the 45/180; 80/260 and base turn reversal procedures must be entered from:
a. A track within + or - 45 of the outbound reversal track.
b. An entry sector expanded to include the reciprocal of the inbound track for base turns where the + or -30o entry sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track.
c. A track within + or -30o of the outbound reversal track.
d. Both B and C above.

d. Both B and C above.

101

101. You must enter a published ICAO holding pattern based on your heading (+ or -5 degrees) relative to three entry sectors. If the published pattern has an inbound holding course of 270o (right turns); which of the following entry procedures is acceptable for a 020o entry heading?
a. An offset entry turning right to intercept an offset track of 060 degrees.
b. A direct entry turning right to an initial outbound heading of 090 degrees.
c. A parallel entry turning left to an initial outbound heading of 090 degrees.
d. Either a or b at the pilot’s discretion.

d. Either a or b at the pilot’s discretion.

102

251. Regardless of an individual aircraft’s performance capability; pilots who fly aircraft with short wing spans must always remain vigilant and respect the wake turbulence hazard produced by larger and heavier aircraft.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

103

252. Since the acceleration characteristics and maneuverability associated with high performance aircraft negate the hazards of wake turbulence; pilots operating such aircraft can disregard the wake turbulence distance and/or timing criteria presented in AFMAN 11-217 V3; Chapter
a. True.
b. False.

b. False

104

253. With regards to wake turbulence; the vortices of a departing large aircraft will tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of:
a. 1 to 2 knots
b. 2 to 3 knots
c. 4 to 5 knots
d. More than 10 knots

b. 2 to 3 knots

105

254. When operating in RVSM airspace; you experience an aircraft equipment failure that makes the aircraft non-RVSM compliant. If ATC allows you to remain in RVSM airspace; you are now required to state “negative RVSM” each time you check in with a new controller.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True

106

255. When flying in (or prior to entering) RVSM airspace; should any of the required equipment needed to operate in RVSM airspace fail; you should notify the controlling agency as soon as possible.
a. True
b. False.

a. True

107

256. Prior to entering RVSM airspace; you experience a failure of the autopilot. You should:
a. Continue into RVSM airspace. ATC or the controlling agency does not need to be notified since the autopilot is not required to be operational in RVSM airspace.
b. Continue into RVSM airspace without the working autopilot; however; notify the controlling agency or ATC if further degradation of aircraft systems is experienced.
c. Notify controlling agency or ATC as soon as possible since an operational autopilot is required in RVSM airspace. ATC may or may not allow access into RVSM airspace or not.
d. Notify controlling agency or ATC only if you experience the loss of both the autopilot and the redundancy capability associated with the dual independent altitude measuring systems.

c. Notify controlling agency or ATC as soon as possible since an operational autopilot is required in RVSM airspace. ATC may or may not allow access into RVSM airspace or not.

108

257. The TCAS system has determined that a potential collision between you and another Mode C equipped aircraft is imminent. How much warning will the system normally give?
a. Up to 20 seconds
b. 10 to 15 seconds
c. 15 to 35 seconds
d. 25 to 45 seconds

c. 15 to 35 seconds

109

258. To warn pilots of a potential collision hazard; the TCAS system first generates a “traffic advisory” or Ta. How far in advance of the “resolution advisory” does the TCAS system normally generate the TA?
a. Up to 20 seconds
b. Up to 30 seconds
c. Up to 40 seconds
d. Approximately 1 min

a. Up to 20 seconds

110

259. For the TCAS to provide safe vertical separation; the pilot flying is expected to initiate the Resolution Advisory (RA) maneuver within ___ seconds of when the RA is first displayed.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

c. 5

111

260. When a traffic avoidance instruction is received from ATC that is contrary to or conflicts with the guidance being directed by the Resolution Advisory (RA) provided by your TCAS; always follow the RA (the RA takes precedence).
a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

112

261. When taking into account TCAS operations during a climb or descent; when within 1;000 feet of the assigned altitude; as a recommended practice; pilots should limit vertical speeds to _____ feet per minute or less to reduce unnecessary Resolution Advisories (RAs).
a. 2000
b. 1500
c. 1000
d. 500

b. 1500

113

262. When the TERPS specialist develops an instrument procedure; required obstacle clearance (ROC) is added to the obstacle clearance surface (OCS) and is designed to afford a certain level of vertical protection. The amount of protection the ROC provides is based on:
a. The aircraft meets the required performance standards (defined in the certification process) and all aircraft systems are functioning normally.
b. The pilot is operating the aircraft in accordance with procedures outlined in both the Technical Order and as defined in instrument flight directives.
c. Required NAVAIDs used in the procedure are functioning and operating within flight inspection parameters
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

114

263. (T/F) Depending on whether DME is available; location of the FAF; and other such factors; when level at the MDA on a non-precision approach; the clearance between the aircraft and the ground/obstruction may be as little as 250 feet.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

115

264. According to AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1; an aircraft may begin a descent to the next lower altitude upon reaching a published or pre-calculated lead turn point (e.g. arc to radial). According to 11-217 V3; the aircraft will always remain within TERPS protected airspace regardless whether an immediate or rapid descent is made to the next lower altitude.
a. True.
b. False.

b. False.

116

265. Concerning obstacle clearance; when making a turn from the initial to the intermediate phase on an instrument approach (e.g. arc to radial); as long as you have positive course guidance (“case break”); you may immediately initiate a descent to the next lower altitude as rapidly as you feel comfortable since you are guaranteed to remain within TERPS protected airspace.
a. True.
b. False.

b. False

117

266. When conducting an instrument approach; depending on where the NAVAID providing course guidance is located; there are instances where the aircraft may exceed TERPS protected airspace (safe obstruction clearance) if you make an immediate or rapid descent to the next lower altitude even though you have reached a pre-calculated lead point or are receiving positive course guidance (“case break”).
a. True.
b. False.

a. True

118

267. During a circling maneuver; as long as the aircraft remains within the circling approach area for their category of aircraft (based on aircraft speed upon which the maneuver is flown) a minimum of ____ feet of obstruction clearance is provided.
a. 500 feet
b. 400 feet
c. 300 feet
d. None of the above

c. 300 feet

119

268. When designing a holding pattern; along with 1;000 ft of obstacle clearance provided in the primary area; the TERPs specialist takes into account pilot technique and average wind velocities at holding altitude. Holding pattern design criteria is based on:
a. 30 degrees of bank and a 3 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage
b. 30 degrees of bank and a 6 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage
c. 25 degrees of bank and a 3 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage
d. 25 degrees of bank and a 6 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage

d. 25 degrees of bank and a 6 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage

120

269. According to AFMAN 11-217 V3; the reason why a commercial vender (e.g. Jeppesen) or host nation procedure must have an appropriate TERPS review prior to use is because unlike DoD or NACO procedures; commercial/host nation procedures are not flight checked or verified against a standard set of criteria and cannot guarantee proper obstruction clearance even if properly flown.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True.

121

270. Referencing AFMAN 11-217 V3; why is it important for a commercial (e.g. Jeppesen) or host nation procedure be reviewed or validated by a MAJCOM TERPS specialist IAW 11-202 Vol 3 prior to their use?
a. Commercial vendors or specially accredited host nation procedures do not need a review prior to their use.
b. Until reviewed by a TERPS specialist; a commercial or host nation procedures cannot guarantee standard obstruction clearance even if properly flown.
c. Commercial or host nation procedures are normally not flight checked or verified against a standard set of criteria.
d. Both b. and c.

d. Both b. and c

122

271. In Oceanic Airspace Operations; which of the following is a Gross Navigational Error?
a. Greater than 25 NM from assigned route
b. ETA difference of 3 minutes or more
c. Altitude Deviation of + or - 300 feet
d. All of the Above

d. All of the Above

123

272. Where does international airspace begin?
a. 5 NM off a nation’s coastline
b. 10 NM off a nation’s coastline
c. 12 NM off a nation’s coastline
d. 15 NM off a nation’s coastline

c. 12 NM off a nation’s coastline

124

273. During oceanic flight; when are position reports typically required?
a. Compulsory reporting points
b. Every 1 hour in the Atlantic Ocean
c. Every 1 hour and 20 minutes in the Pacific Ocean
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

125

274. Which of the following is an Organized Track System (OTS)?
a. PACOTS
b. NOPAC
c. NAT
d. A and C

d. A and C

126

276. What is the dividing line between Gander and Shanwick Oceanic?
a. 10W
b. 20W
c. 30W
d. 40W

c. 30W

127

277. Which of the following is true regarding the North Atlantic Tracks (NAT):
a. Eastbound Tracks are labeled A though K
b. Eastbound Tracks are labeled U through Z
c. Westbound Tracks are labeled U through Z
d. Westbound Tracks are labeled 5 through 9

b. Eastbound Tracks are labeled U through Z

128

278. Altitude Reservations (ALTRVs) are normally employed for the mass movement of aircraft or special missions that cannot be accomplished otherwise using standard air traffic control (ATC) separation. ALTRVs are designated as:
a. Moving or Stationary
b. Simple or Complex
c. Minor or Major
d. Dynamic or Static

a. Moving or Stationary

129

279. _____ minutes after oceanic entry; crews should squawk 2000; if applicable.
a. 0
b. 10
c. 30
d. 60

c. 30

130

280. Approximately ____ minutes after passing an oceanic waypoint; crews should plot the latitude; longitude and time on the plotting chart.
a. 0
b. 10
c. 30
d. 60

b. 10

131

301. According to AFI 11-202V3; if a circumstance arises that is not addressed in USAF flight guidance; the PIC is expected to:
a. Remain VFR and land.
b. Divert to the nearest USAF field
c. Use their best judgment to safely conduct the flight.
d. Perform an ORM assessment during the mission debrief.

c. Use their best judgment to safely conduct the flight.

132

302. The MAJCOM/CC (delegable no lower than MAJCOM/A3) will approve ______ waivers.
a. Tier 0
b. Tier 1
c. Tier 2
d. Tier 3

c. Tier 2

133

303. The pilot in command will ensure compliance with which of the following:
a. AFI 11-202; Volume 3; and MAJCOM guidance.
b. MDS-Specific instructions and supplements.
c. FLIP; FCG
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

134

304. According to AFI 11-202V3; the PIC will ensure compliance with the following:
a. Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) and Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
b. AF; MAJCOM; and MDS-specific instructions
c. FLIP; FCG; ATC; NOTAMS; Combatant Commander’s instructions
d. B and C only

d. B and C only

135

305. Air Force pilots have an operational prerogative to conduct flight operations with due regard for the safety of navigation of civil traffic:
a. In international airspace; when operationally necessary
b. When operating over a hostile foreign battlefield
c. When operating in the US National Airspace System
d. All of the above

a. In international airspace; when operationally necessary

136

306. Pilots may exercise the military prerogative of “due regard” only when:
a. In international airspace.
b. Only when operationally necessary.
c. IAW FLIP GP.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

137

307. Deviations from the provisions of AFI 11-202; Volume 3; are authorized only when:
a. An ATC clearance is issued to do so.
b. The OG or Commander with operational control of the mission approves the deviation.
c. An in-flight emergency requires immediate action.
d. Both A and c.

c. An in-flight emergency requires immediate action.

138

308. As PIC; you just deviated from your Air Traffic Control clearance. You must:
a. Notify ATC as soon as possible
b. Verbally report the incident to a supervisor and commander within 24 hours
c. Make a detailed written record of the incident
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

139

309. USAF aircraft cockpits and UAS control stations must always provide full-time attitude; altitude; and airspeed information and the capability to recognize; confirm; and recover from unusual attitudes in all pilot positions.
a. True
b. False

a. True

140

310. In actual instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) or when there is no discernible visual horizon; an HQ USAF/A3O-endorsed PFR shall be displayed in the pilot flying position.
a. True
b. False

a. True

141

311. Prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations; Air Force aircrew members must have a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period (FDP) beings. This time must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.
a. True
b. False

a. True

142

312. The maximum FDP for a tanker/transport aircraft with sleeping provisions and an augmented crew is:
a. 12 hours
b. 14 hours
c. 16 hours
d. 24 hours

d. 24 hours

143

313. The maximum flying time which may logged per 30 consecutive days is:
a. 35 hours
b. 56 hours
c. 125 hours
d. 330 hours

c. 125 hours

144

314. All of the following limits a person’s readiness for flight duty except:
a. Within 72 hours after donating blood; plasma; or bone marrow.
b. If impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance; to include the effects or after-effects.
c. Anytime physical or psychological condition is suspect or known to be detrimental to the safe performance of flight duty.
d. If the crewmember has obtained the appropriate crew rest IAW AFI 11-202V3 Chapter 2.

d. If the crewmember has obtained the appropriate crew rest IAW AFI 11-202V3 Chapter 2.

145

315. While performing aircrew duties; crewmembers must use only Air Force provided spectacles (if required).
a. True
b. False

a. True

146

316. A pressurized Air Force aircraft is cruising at FL 270. Cabin altitude is being maintained at 8;000 feet. Which of the following oxygen requirements apply to passengers onboard this aircraft?
a. Oxygen Immediately Available: Must wear helmets with an oxygen mask attached to one side; or have available an approved quick-don style mask properly adjusted and positioned
b. Oxygen Available: Carry or place portable oxygen units or extra oxygen outlets with masks throughout the cabin/cargo area so that any person has quick access to oxygen should a loss of pressurization occur
c. Oxygen Readily Available: A functioning system and mask shall be located within arm’s reach; and the regulator must be set to 100 percent and ON (when regulator is adjustable)
d. Oxygen requirements do not apply since the cabin altitude is below 12;500’

b. Oxygen Available: Carry or place portable oxygen units or extra oxygen outlets with masks throughout the cabin/cargo area so that any person has quick access to oxygen should a loss of pressurization occur

147

317. In the absence of MAJCOM guidance; the PIC may authorize the use of transmitting PEDs at or above 10;000 ft. MSL with the transmitter OFF (e.g. Airplane Mode).
a. True
b. False

a. True

148

318. Crewmembers must occupy their assigned duty station from takeoff to landing unless:
a. In the opinion of the pilot in command; no compromise of safety is anticipated.
b. An appropriate recall (alert) system is installed in the aircraft.
c. Absence is normal in the performance of crew duties.
d. A prolonged over-water flight is planned.

c. Absence is normal in the performance of crew duties.

149

319. Inflight Reporting. The pilot in command will report to ATC:
a. Hazardous laser activity
b. Hazardous weather conditions
c. Large concentrations of birds near the airfield
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

150

320. During cruise at FL 270; your aircraft loses total cabin pressurization. If passengers are on board:
a. You may remain at FL 270 if all occupants are using oxygen
b. You must descend to the lowest practical altitude (preferably below 18;000 feet); but do not allow the cabin altitude to remain above 25;000 feet unless occupants are wearing functional pressure suits
c. You may descend to and cruise at 15;000 feet MSL and only the pilot at the controls must use oxygen
d. You must descend so the aircraft's cruising altitude does not exceed 10;000 feet MSL; regardless of cabin altitude

b. You must descend to the lowest practical altitude (preferably below 18;000 feet); but do not allow the cabin altitude to remain above 25;000 feet unless occupants are wearing functional pressure suits

151

321. When you observe or suspect an occupant of your aircraft is suffering the effects of decompression sickness; you should:
a. Descend as soon as possible and land at the nearest USAF installation.
b. Descend as soon as practical and land at the nearest military installation.
c. Administer 100 percent oxygen to the occupant.
d. Continue your flight to destination as planned; seek medical assistance at your destination.

c. Administer 100 percent oxygen to the occupant

152

322. Aircraft equipped with anti-collision or strobe lights must be illuminated:
a. From takeoff to landing
b. Just prior to engine start until engine shutdown
c. May be turned off or reduced in intensity if they affect performance of duties
d. B and C

d. B and C

153

323. If equipped; landing lights should be turned on when:
a. Anti-collision lights are “off” and position lights are on “flash”
b. when operating below 10;000 ft. MSL within normal MDS-specific operating procedures
c. Strobe lights are turned “off” if all other lighting is operational
d. Both B and C above

b. when operating below 10;000 ft. MSL within normal MDS-specific operating procedures

154

324. At night; fixed-wing aircraft must not operate from a runway unless:
a. The runway has operable center-line lighting
b. The runway is paved
c. The aircraft filed an IFR flight plan
d. It is outlined with operable lighting or high-intensity runway reflective markers and is clearly discernible

d. It is outlined with operable lighting or high-intensity runway reflective markers and is clearly discernible

155

325. When operating under visual flight rules (VFR); pilots are responsible for avoiding traffic; terrain/obstacles; and environmental hazards. Air Traffic Control only provides:
a. Standard separation between IFR aircraft and VFR aircraft operating within Class E airspace
b. Standard IFR separation between aircraft operating under IFR in controlled airspace
c. Separation between VFR aircraft if terminal radar service is available
d. Both A and B above

b. Standard IFR separation between aircraft operating under IFR in controlled airspace

156

326. The following are examples of Communication; Navigation; and Surveillance Equipment except:
a. TCAS
b. TAWS/GPWS
c. Weather Radar
d. Carry-On Equipment

c. Weather Radar

157

327. When responding to Traffic Alerting and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) alerts:
a. Pilots shall respond to all Resolution Advisories (RAs) as directed by the TCAS system; unless doing so would jeopardize the safe operation of the aircraft (e.g.; descent into obstacles).
b. Pilots who deviate from an ATC clearance in response to an RA shall notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practical and promptly return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved or obtain a new clearance.
c. Do not deviate from an assigned ATC clearance based solely on Traffic Alert (TA) information.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

158

328. Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) includes:
a. Aircraft GPS Equipment
b. Standard Position Service (SPS) and Precise Position Service (PPS)
c. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
d. All of the above

a. Aircraft GPS Equipment

159

329. In order to practice simulated emergency flight procedures; you must:
a. Be in a MOA or at a military airfield.
b. Ensure passengers are thoroughly briefed on the maneuvers to be flown.
c. Ensure passengers are not on board the aircraft.
d. Ensure the tower and RSU are advised that all emergency procedures are simulated.

c. Ensure passengers are not on board the aircraft.

160

330. MAJCOMs must provide guidance for Simulated Flameout (SFO)/Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP) when:
a. The aircraft technical orders (T.O.s) do not provide specific guidance.
b. SFO/ELP approaches do not conform to T.O. guidance.
c. The approaches have not been coordinate with ATC responsible for the airspace
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

161

332. The PIC will ensure the mission is planned to the maximum extent possible; and that current and relevant information is obtained at all possible opportunities.
a . True
b. False

a . True

162

333. Plan missions to the maximum extent possible. Obtain current and relevant information at all possible opportunities; including:
a. NOTAMs and Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs)
b. FLIP; to include appropriate navigational and plotting charts with current vertical obstructions
c. P-RAIM; Space Based Augmentation System (SBAS) coverage and NOTAMs (as applicable)
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

163

334. The PIC shall execute off-station training flights to:
a. Achieve valid training requirements
b. Present a positive view of the Air Force
c. Ensure no appearance of government waste or abuse occurs
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

164

335. Air Force fighter-type aircraft may file to or land at US civil public airports (P-coded) airports when:
a. In an emergency
b. Necessary in the recovery of active air defense interceptor aircraft
c. The wing commander or higher authority approves the flight and the airport manager grants permission in advance
d. All the above

d. All the above

165

336. Aircrew may file to or land USAF aircraft at US civil public airports when:
a. Flying an helicopter or C-coded aircraft (e.g. C-130; C-12; C-40)
b. A US Government tenant unit (e.g. ANG; USCG) is listed for the airport of intended landing and airport facilities or ground support equipment can support the aircraft concerned
c. An alternate is required and no other suitable airport is available
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

166

337. Except for divert or emergency situations; MAJCOMs shall approve all airfields authorized for use by UAS. Operations may require an approved Certificate of Authorization (COA) and appropriate LOA between the employing unit; ATC; and airfield management.
a. True
b. False

a. True

167

338. The PIC should choose refueling stop fields in the following order:
a. Military installations then any civil field
b. “P” coded fields then military installations
c. Military installations; contract FBOs; then non-contract FBOs
d. Military installations first; “P” fields; then civil fields

c. Military installations; contract FBOs; then non-contract FBOs

168

340. Aircrew members may use any FLIP product issued to them regardless of date; completeness; legibility; familiarity of procedures; or language.
a. True
b. False

b. False

169

341. Formats which are rendered from a database or which do not maintain the original size; scale; format; or color may be authorized by your:
a. Squadron
b. Wing
c. MAJCOM
d. HQ AFFSA

b. Wing

170

342. According to AFI 11-202V3; from where may a navigator or combat systems officer obtain FLIP and aeronautical navigation data?
a. Any internet source; as long as it is a secure site (https://)
b. From US Government Sources
c. Any source; as long as it’s current with the latest DAFIF and E-CHUM
d. Only from USAF Base Operations

b. From US Government Sources

171

343. Aircrew may obtain FLIP and aeronautical data from:
a. From any internet source
b. From US Government sources
c. From non-US Government sources with appropriate TERPS review
d. Either B and C

d. Either B and C

172

344. The onboard navigation database should be current for the region of intended operation?
a. True
b. False

a. True

173

345. USAF pilots shall fly under IFR if:
a. Operating fixed-wing aircraft at night; unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR
b. Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
c. Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways
d. Any of the conditions stated above exist

d. Any of the conditions stated above exist

174

346. Pilots conducting flights under IFR to a destination not served by a published approach may:
a. File to the nearest non-RADAR facility and requesting radar vector service regardless of forecast weather
b. File to a point served by a published approach where forecast weather at ETA 1 hour allows the pilot to continue on a composite IFR/VFR flight plan to the destination
c. File to such destination only if the weather is forecast to be at least 5;000 feet ceiling and 5 miles visibility
d. File IFR to such a destination by entering the airfield identifier in lieu of the IAF on the flight plan if an alternate airfield is designated

b. File to a point served by a published approach where forecast weather at ETA 1 hour allows the pilot to continue on a composite IFR/VFR flight plan to the destination

175

348. A fixed-wing IFR flight is planned to a destination at which compatible RNAV (GPS) approach (published minimums 400 - 2) is the only compatible approach. Forecast weather for ETA + or - 1 hr includes a TEMPO condition of a 2;000 foot ceiling and 4 miles visibility. Which of the following is true?
a. The pilot must designate an alternate because of the forecast TEMPO condition
b. The pilot is not required to designate an alternate under these conditions
c. The pilot is required to designate an alternate because the required NAVAID is GPS
d. An alternate is required because only one compatible approach exists at the field

b. The pilot is not required to designate an alternate under these conditions

176

349. Regardless of weather; pilots must designate an alternate airport on all IFR flight plans when filing to a destination where:
a. The point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach minimums are greater than or equal to 1;500 ft. ceiling or 3SM visibility
b. Required NAVAIDs are unmonitored
c. The destination has no weather reporting capability.
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

177

350. Fly aircraft under VFR only when required for mission accomplishment.
a. True
b. False

a. True

178

351. The pilot in command flying under VFR will:
a. Ensure VFR operations are authorized and properly planned
b. Utilize radar advisory and monitoring or control services when practical to ensure flight following by any available means
c. Both A and B above
d. None of the above; I’m flying VFR

c. Both A and B above

179

352. When conditions prevent completing the mission under VFR:
a. Alter the route of flight and continue under VFR
b. Maintain VFR until obtaining an IFR clearance
c. Maintain VFR and land at a suitable location
d. Any of the above

d. Any of the above

180

353. The PIC will ensure a flight plan is filed IAW MAJCOM guidance for any flight.
a. True
b. False

a. True

181

354. The signature (or act of filing) of the pilot in command signifies:
a. The flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy.
b. The flight will be conducted IAW all governing directives.
c. Responsibility for the safety of the aircraft; the formation; and its occupants.
d. All the above.

d. All the above

182

355. When unscheduled changes in crew or passenger lists occur; you must:
a. Notify C2 prior to departure if there is a passenger manifest (or crew list) change.
b. Process crew and manifest changes with the original processing facility; if able.
c. Leave the changes with a responsible agency at the location where the change is made.
d. Any of the above is acceptable

d. Any of the above is acceptable

183

356. You are operating in the NAS on an IFR flight plan into an airport with a functioning control tower. Which of the following statements is true:
a. You must call the servicing FSS or ATC agency to close the flight plan in this case
b. The flight plan should close automatically
c. You must use your government travel card to ensure your flight plan is closed
d. You may place a collect call to the FSS or ATC agency

b. The flight plan should close automatically

184

357. If operating in the National Airspace System (NAS) on an IFR flight plan into an airport with no functioning control tower; the flight plan:
a. Must be closed with the originating base operations.
b. Is automatically closed upon landing.
c. Must be closed by the pilot through an FSS or ATC facility.
d. Closure is not the responsibility of the pilot.

c. Must be closed by the pilot through an FSS or ATC facility.

185

358. Which of the following statements concerning fuel requirements is correct?
a. Before takeoff or immediately after in-flight refueling; the aircraft must have enough usable fuel to complete the flight to a final landing; either at the destination airport or alternate airport (if one is required); plus fuel reserves
b. When an alternate is required; the weather conditions at the selected alternate destination govern the preflight fuel computation
c. Fuel required for an approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel when visibility-only weather criteria are used to determine the suitability of the original destination
d. No fuel reserve is required if both ceiling and visibility weather criteria are used to determine suitability of the original destination

a. Before takeoff or immediately after in-flight refueling; the aircraft must have enough usable fuel to complete the flight to a final landing; either at the destination airport or alternate airport (if one is required); plus fuel reserves

186

359. The minimum fuel reserve to be carried by an USAF aircraft is usable fuel on each flight to increase the total flight planned time:
a. A variable amount depending on fuel consumption rates at 10;000 feet
b. By 20 minutes
c. Between air refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed-wing or 30 minutes for helicopters)
d. B and C (whichever is greater)

d. B and C (whichever is greater)

187

360. In the absence of MDS-specific guidance; PICs of USAF multi-engine aircraft without the ability to in-flight refuel; operated for extended periods over large bodies of water or desolate land areas (outside gliding distance to a suitable landing site) shall:
a. Calculate and plot an ETP
b. Plan contingency fuel requirements
c. Perform a VHF radio check prior to entering the desolate or over-water area
d. A and B only

d. A and B only

188

361. Pilots shall not takeoff when the existing weather is below the landing minimums for the specific aircraft unless specifically authorized by the applicable MAJCOM.
a. True
b. False

a. True

189

362. During your pre-departure weather briefing; you are advised that thunderstorms are active in the vicinity of the airfield. You will:
a. Depart only if your aircraft is weather-radar equipped and certified to penetrate thunderstorms
b. Not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail; strong winds; gust fronts; heavy rain; lightning; wind shear; or microbursts
c. Only depart with the aid of a Night Vision Device
d. B and C above

b. Not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail; strong winds; gust fronts; heavy rain; lightning; wind shear; or microbursts

190

363. After accelerating to a safe airspeed after a touch-and-go; when can you legally turn prior to reaching the departure end of the runway (DER); if visible; and climbing to at least 400 feet above the DER elevation?
a. When specifically required by a published procedure
b. When specifically cleared by the controlling agency
c. When specifically cleared for a closed traffic pattern
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

191

364. You are departing on an IFR flight plan from RWY 19 at Stevens Field in Pagosa Springs; Colorado. The Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedure (Trouble T) for the field are listed in Figure 48. According to AFI 11-202V3; as PIC of a USAF fixed-wing multi-engine aircraft; the published minimum IFR takeoff climb gradient is:
a. 437’/NM to 9600’ MSL.
b. Not applicable to USAF aircraft since this is a civil field.
c. 296’/NM to 9300’ MSL.
d. 200’/NM if following the 194 degree heading to intercept the DRO 075R.

c. 296’/NM to 9300’ MSL

192

365. You intend to depart Pagosa Springs / Stevens Field (KPSO) under IFR in your multi-engine fixed-wing aircraft (refer to figure 48). Which statement is true concerning non-standard takeoff minimums and required climb gradients when departing KPSO under IFR?
a. A departure under IFR is not authorized on runways 1 or 19 since 1900-3 weather minimums are required
b. A departure under IFR is authorized on runway 19 if the aircraft; with one engine inoperative; can meet or exceed a climb gradient of 296’ / NM to 9300’ MSL
c. A departure under IFR is authorized on runway 1 only if the weather is at least 1900-3 and the aircraft; with one engine inoperative; can meet or exceed a climb gradient of 437’/NM to 9600’ MSL
d. A departure under IFR is authorized on either runway if the aircraft; with one engine inoperative; is capable of being at or above 400’ AGL prior to crossing the departure end of the runway and then continues to climb with at least 152’ / NM

b. A departure under IFR is authorized on runway 19 if the aircraft; with one engine inoperative; can meet or exceed a climb gradient of 296’ / NM to 9300’ MSL

193

366. You are flying a single-engine CAT B fixed-wing aircraft that is equipped to with ILS; VOR and DME. You intend to depart IFR from RWY 29 at Grand Junction; Colorado (KGJT) using the MONUMENT 1 ODP in Figure 49. Before takeoff; you calculate your minimum IFR climb gradient to be:
a. Not applicable since I’m flying a single engine aircraft.
b. 200’/NM.
c. 220’/NM.
d. 390’/NM.

c. 220’/NM.

194

367. Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) and/or Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) should be flown to the maximum extent possible.
a. True
b. False

a. True

195

368. Which of the following is/are true concerning RTRL procedures?
a. Pilots flying the RTRL shall ensure their aircraft can attain a safe liftoff speed and rotate prior to the distance remaining specified in the procedure
b. RTRL procedures are not applicable to USAF aircraft
c. RTRL procedures may be flown from an intersection takeoff; as long as liftoff occurs before the DER
d. Pilots can compute their own RTRL procedures; if one is not published

a. Pilots flying the RTRL shall ensure their aircraft can attain a safe liftoff speed and rotate prior to the distance remaining specified in the procedure

196

369. The pilot of a fixed-wing aircraft is proceeding under VFR in Class E airspace at an altitude of 11;500 feet MSL (1900’ AGL). What are the cloud-clearance and visibility requirements the PIC must maintain during the night portion of his flight?
a. 500 feet vertically below; 1;000 feet vertically above; 2;000 feet horizontally from clouds and 3 miles flight visibility
b. 1;500 feet vertically and 3 miles flight visibility
c. 1;000 feet vertically above and below; 1 mile horizontally from clouds and 5 miles flight visibility
d. 1;000 feet vertically; 1;500 feet horizontally from clouds and 3 miles flight visibility

c. 1;000 feet vertically above and below; 1 mile horizontally from clouds and 5 miles flight visibility

197

370. The PIC is the clearance authority for IFR or VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace.
a. True
b. False

a. True

198

371. The PIC may not clear his own aircraft for IFR flight in controlled airspace.
a. True
b. False

a. True

199

372. In the NAS; the PIC of a USAF aircraft shall not exceed 250 KIAS below 10;000’ MSL; or 200 KIAS in Class D airspace; unless:
a. Required to maintain the minimum operating airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
b. A higher speed is required by the AFTTP 3-3 manual or the AFI 11-2MDSV3
c. A higher speed is requested by the pilot
d. All of the above

a. Required to maintain the minimum operating airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O .

200

373. Unless required to maintain the minimum operating airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.; aircraft operating in the airspace underlying Class B airspace or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace will not exceed:
a. 156 KIAS
b. 200 KIAS
c. 230 KIAS
d. 250 KIAS

b. 200 KIAS

201

374. You are operating an Air Force aircraft outside US sovereign airspace. Do not allow your aircraft to exceed 250 KIAS below 10;000 feet MSL unless:
a. Operating in international airspace and mission requirements dictate
b. Permitted by ICAO or host nation rules
c. Necessary to maintain the minimum safe airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

202

375. Unless conducting rescue operations; do not operate within 50 NM of known or reported hazardous volcanic ash.
a. True
b. False

a. True

203

376. Upon arrival at a civil or foreign field; you hear: “Caution; numerous birds in the vicinity of runway 35” from ATc. You should:
a. Ignore the advisory since you are at a civil field
b. Heed the advisory and immediately divert
c. Follow BWC MODERATE procedures
d. Both B and C above

c. Follow BWC MODERATE procedures

204

377. An Emergency Frequency:
a. Must be monitored only by the ATC agency
b. Must be monitored at all times (as mission and operational conditions permit)
c. Must be turned off during tactical operations
d. Must be monitored by the aircraft commander at all time

b. Must be monitored at all times (as mission and operational conditions permit)

205

378. You intend to use your properly certified aircraft navigation system to perform RNAV and RNP operations. In addition to meeting required specifications listed in AFI 11-202 Volume 3; the following restrictions apply:
a. Do not modify database waypoints or insert user-defined waypoints
b. Crosscheck the cleared flight plan against current FLIP; the navigation system textual display; and aircraft map display (if applicable)
c. Radar monitoring is required of all unpublished (random) RNAV routes in the NAS
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

206

379. Suitable RNAV systems may be used as a substitute or alternate means of navigation on conventional routes and procedures. The terms substitute and alternate are interchangeable.
a. True
b. False

b. False

207

380. Either substitute or alternate means of navigation may be used as follows:
a. Substitute for the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach.\
b. Navigation on LOC-based courses (including LOC back-course guidance) without monitoring the raw LOC data
c. Use a procedure identified as “NA” without exception by a NOTAM
d. None of the above

d. None of the above

208

381. Your aircraft RNAV system is MAJCOM-approved for IFR flight. As the pilot in command; you may apply RNAV substitution or alternate means to:
a. Navigate to/from a VOR/TACAN/NDB
b. Hold over a TACAN
c. Fly an arc based upon DME
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

209

382. Pilots will not execute performance-based operations (airspace/routes/procedures) unless:
a. Required for mission accomplishment
b. Specific approval is received from MAJCOM
c. Fuel planning requires transiting RNP airspace
d. On a humanitarian mission

b. Specific approval is received from MAJCOM

210

383. Before transition from IFR to VFR; establish appropriate visibility and cloud clearances IAW Table 6.1 or 6.2.
a. True
b. False

a. True

211

384. You’re being vectored for an approach when ATC reports wind shear in association with a nearby thunderstorm; at the airport of intended landing. You should:
a. Not fly an approach or land at an airport where thunderstorms are producing wind shear
b. File a wind shear report with base operations
c. Transmit “escape; escape; escape” on guard
d. Obtain an ATC clearance to perform an escape maneuver

a. Not fly an approach or land at an airport where thunderstorms are producing wind shear

212

385. In your suitably-equipped CAT D aircraft (ILS; LOC; DME; TACAN; VOR); you are planning an IFR flight to Durango; Colorado (KDRO) using the IAP shown in figure 47.
The TAF for ETA + or - 1 hr is:
KDRO 101140Z 1012/1112 34005KT P3SM SCT020 BKN030.
The NOTAMs indicate:
10/031 - RWY 3 ALS OTS. WIE UNTIL UFN.
10/030 - NAV RWY 3 ILS GP OTS. WIE UNTIL UFN.
For filing purposes; the PIC:
a. Must file an alternate due to forecast weather of 3;000’ ceiling and 3 miles visibility
b. Must file an alternate since the ILS is out of service
c. Must file an alternate since the ALS is out of service
d. Raise the LOC/DME approach minimum visibility by ½ SM since the ALS is OTS

d. Raise the LOC/DME approach minimum visibility by ½ SM since the ALS is OTS

213

386. As the pilot of a retractable landing gear aircraft; you are required to:
a. Report “gear down” prior to landing at Air Force bases only
b. Check “gear down” and confirm indicators with the RSU or tower
c. Advise “gear down” to the ATC agency or RSU for touch-and-go and full-stop landings
d. Report “gear down” before crossing the runway threshold during any approach

d. Report “gear down” before crossing the runway threshold during any approach

214

387. Which of the following statements is true regarding Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
a. USAF fixed wing pilots are prohibited from accepting LAHSO clearances.
b. USAF pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance).
c. The PIC is the final authority whether to take-off; land; or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

215

388. MAJCOM approval is required to practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which restriction apply?
a. Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities IAW Table 6.1 and 6.2
b. Use terminal radar service when available
c. Request ATC clearance to fly the published missed approach
d. All the above

d. All the above

216

389. You are flying a multi-engine CAT C fixed-wing aircraft that is equipped to with ILS; VOR and DME. You intend to depart IFR from RWY 29 at Grand Junction; Colorado (KGJT) using the MONUMENT 1 ODP in Figure 49. After liftoff from RWY 29; you should initially:
a. Climb to 400’ above the airport elevation and turn west to the VOR
b. Climb on heading 292 degrees to 7000’ MSL; then continue the climbing left turn to heading 240 until receiving JNC VOR; then proceed direct to the VOR
c. Climb to 6600‘ MSL; then turn west direct to the VOR and plan to climb in holding
d. Climb to and maintain 7000’ MSL via the 292 degree heading; then turn west to a 240 degree heading until reaching the VOR; then climb in holding

b. Climb on heading 292 degrees to 7000’ MSL; then continue the climbing left turn to heading 240 until receiving JNC VOR; then proceed direct to the VOR

217

390. On arrival at HKMO (Mombasa/Moi International) in your category C aircraft; you wish to fly the published VOR 21 approach; circle and land on runway 3 (See Figure 50) (HKMO VOR 21). The field is below minimums for this maneuver when:
a. The RVR is less than 1;600 meters
b. The reported ceiling is below 1060 meters
c. The prevailing visibility is less than 4000 meters
d. Either A or B

c. The prevailing visibility is less than 4000 meters

218

391. The minimum RVR required to fly the CAT D Straight-in VOR RWY 21 approach at Mombasa (HKMO) in Figure 50 is:
a. No RVR minimum is published
b. 660 meters
c. 2400 meters
d. 4400 meters

a. No RVR minimum is published

219

392. According to AFI 11-202V3; where is mountainous terrain located?
a. Within the CONUS; Alaska; Hawaii and Puerto Rico: as defined in 14 CFR §95.11
b. Anytime the surface elevation exceeds 2;000 ft. MSL
c. For other areas of operation; when the terrain includes a 500 ft. surface elevation change over a ½ NM distance
d. A and C only

d. A and C only

220

393. MAJCOMS may authorize the use of SDPs and aircrew must be trained before use of any SDP. Pilots must understand the SDP delivers as little as 10ft of obstruction clearance?
a. True
b. False

b. False

221

394. The term “Minimum Fuel” indicates:
a. An emergency situation that requires traffic priority to complete a safe landing
b. The remaining usable fuel will be exhausted in less than 20 minutes
c. The aircraft is not in an emergency situation; but can accept little or no delay
d. Immediate descent is required in order to complete a safe landing

c. The aircraft is not in an emergency situation; but can accept little or no delay

222

395. According to AFI 11-202; Volume 3; when is it “night?”
a. The period from sunset to sunrise; converted to local time
b. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight; as published in the Air Almanac
c. The time between the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight; as published in the American Air Almanac; converted to local time
d. When ambient sunlight does not allow an unlit obstacle to been seen at a distance no greater than 3 miles; it is “night”

b. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight; as published in the Air Almanac

223

396. The term “Fuel Reserve” as used in AFI 11-202V3 means:
a. All “identified extra” fuel as computed by the pilot
b. The amount of usable fuel that must be carried on each aircraft; beyond that required to complete the flight as planned
c. The unusable fuel planned to be carried
d. The fuel a pilot must plan to use if the air-refueling is unsuccessful

b. The amount of usable fuel that must be carried on each aircraft; beyond that required to complete the flight as planned

224

451. In which FLIP publication can you find information concerning customs availability?
a. FLIP AP/1;2;3 and 4
b. Foreign Clearance Guide and FLIP Enroute IFR Supplement
c. Flight Information Handbook
d. FLIP Enroute High Altitude Charts

b. Foreign Clearance Guide and FLIP Enroute IFR Supplement

225

452. In which FLIP document can you find information concerning two-way radio failure?
a. Enroute Supplement; IFR or VFR
b. FIH
c. General Planning; Chapter 5
d. Area Planning (AP) 2

b. FIH

226

453. A portion of your ATC clearance received prior to takeoff included the phrase “cleared as filed.” This phrase implies:
a. Clearance to fly as filed except for minor departure changes
b. Both the route and altitude filed are identical to the ATC cleared route and altitude
c. Clearance for route only. It does not include approval of the altitude; DP; or DP Transition filed in the flight plan
d. The filed SID is cancelled; but the filed route and altitude are approved

c. Clearance for route only. It does not include approval of the altitude; DP; or DP Transition filed in the flight plan

227

454. Which statement concerning visual approaches in the U.S. National Airspace System is correct?
a. Aircraft on an IFR flight plan will not be cleared “visual approach”
b. Aircraft receiving a visual approach clearance must be under the control of an ATC facility
c. Pilots receiving a visual approach clearance may operate under special VFR rules; using weather conditions less than basic VFR weather minimums
d. Aircraft may not deviate from the prescribed IAPs being flown

b. Aircraft receiving a visual approach clearance must be under the control of an ATC facility

228

455. Which statement concerning “visual holding” is correct?
a. The pilot holds with reference to selected; prominent geographic fixes
b. The holding aircraft must maintain visual separation between each preceding aircraft
c. Only visual approaches can be flown from visual holding
d. All of the above are correct

a. The pilot holds with reference to selected; prominent geographic fixes

229

456. The US Low Altitude Charts:
a. Are published on a 1:1;000;000 scale
b. Are published every 6 weeks
c. Portray the airways and related information for IFR flight below 18;000 feet MSL
d. All of the above

c. Portray the airways and related information for IFR flight below 18;000 feet MSL

230

457. You wish to file a DD Form 175 flight plan from McChord AFB; WA to Vancouver International Airport; British Columbia (Canada). McChord base operations will:
a. Process the flight plan
b. Require you to refile a DD Form 1801 flight plan
c. Provide you with appropriate survival equipment as required by Canadian flight rules
d. Reject this flight plan; Canadian flight plans will be used when entering Canada

b. Require you to refile a DD Form 1801 flight plan

231

458. You are filing a flight plan for a one-time flight to position an aircraft without DME for required maintenance. The transponder has been removed and no suitable replacement is available. In this situation; which statement is correct?
a. You may not fly below 12;500 feet MSL
b. The TD suffix for the aircraft designator/transponder code on the DD Form 175 should be “X”
c. “No transponder” should be entered in the remarks section of the DD Form 175
d. You may file with no restrictions if you file an IFR flight plan

b. The TD suffix for the aircraft designator/transponder code on the DD Form 175 should be “X”

232

459. You wish to fly a STAR at your destination. You must:
a. Indicate the STAR identifier in the remarks section of the DD Form 175
b. Indicate the STAR identifier before the IAF on the DD Form 175
c. Use the STAR identifier as the last fix entered on the route of flight
d. Notify ARTCC of your intention on becoming airborne

c. Use the STAR identifier as the last fix entered on the route of flight

233

460. The ETE block on the DD Form 175 includes:
a. VFR--the time from takeoff to a position over the destination airfield including known or preplanned enroute delays
b. VFR--the time from takeoff to a position over the destination airfield excluding known or preplanned enroute delays
c. IFR--the time from takeoff to landing including known or preplanned enroute delays
d. IFR--the time from takeoff to landing including time extended by air refueling

a. VFR--the time from takeoff to a position over the destination airfield including known or preplanned enroute delays

234

461. The ETE to alternate block on the DD Form 175 indicates the time to the alternate based on flight at:
a. 10;000 feet
b. Last assigned altitude
c. Last cruising altitude
d. Maximum range altitude

c. Last cruising altitude

235

462. Which of the following statements concerning the DoD Internet NOTAM Distribution System (DINS) is not correct?
a. The primary DINS website contains all NOTAMs validated by the U.S. NOTAM system
b. Aircrews using DINS must consult FLIP to determine if some locations have NOTAM support
c. Primary DINS website NOTAMs include domestic; international; military and FDC NOTAMs
d. DINS will provide a plain language notice; highlighted in red; when a requested location is not in the U.S. NOTAM system

b. Aircrews using DINS must consult FLIP to determine if some locations have NOTAM support

236

463. Your flight will terminate at a civil airport. Complete NOTAM information concerning this airport:
a. Is available at all DoD airfields
b. Can be obtained by contacting the Air Force Central NOTAM facility
c. Includes FAA “D” and “L” series NOTAMs
d. Includes FAA “D” and “L” series NOTAMs and the FAA Notices to Airmen publication (NTAP)

d. Includes FAA “D” and “L” series NOTAMs and the FAA Notices to Airmen publication (NTAP)

237

464. ATC has issued a clearance short of the destination airport. When any portion of the route beyond the short-range clearance limit differs from that specified in the original flight plan; the clearance must include:
a. Holding instructions at the clearance limit
b. Proposed altitude beyond the clearance limit
c. Proposed time delay at the clearance limit
d. Proposed routing beyond the clearance limit

d. Proposed routing beyond the clearance limit

238

465. While executing a SID; you are radar vectored off the depicted track. You should:
a. Expect to resume the SID as soon as traffic permits
b. Not accept the vector since ATC can't issue vectors off the SID once you are cleared for it
c. Consider the SID cancelled
d. Both a and c above

c. Consider the SID cancelled

239

466. An immediate deviation from an approved route is necessary because of thunderstorm conditions. You:
a. Must request approval to deviate and indicate the extent of the detour.
b. May exercise your emergency authority to immediately deviate without clearance if thunderstorm conditions are of such severity that time does not permit ATC approval.
c. Must request emergency authority to reroute the flight and provide the proposed route to ATc.
d. Record the details and retain them for a minimum of 30 days.

b. May exercise your emergency authority to immediately deviate without clearance if thunderstorm conditions are of such severity that time does not permit ATC approval.

240

467. En route to Tinker AFB; you receive the following clearance from ATC; “Linda 01; descend to FL 210; for radar vectors to Oklahoma City; turn right to 210 degrees.” You should:
a. Read back the clearance only if any portion is not clearly understood.
b. Comply with the clearance; but there is no requirement to read back ATC clearances.
c. Verify a routing that alters your filed route.
d. Read back those parts of an ATC clearance that contain altitude assignments; altitude restrictions or radar vectors as a means of mutual verification.

d. Read back those parts of an ATC clearance that contain altitude assignments; altitude restrictions or radar vectors as a means of mutual verification.

241

468. You are cruising in level flight and ARTCC has just approved your request for an altitude change from FL 250 to FL 310. You will:
a. Report “level at FL 310”.
b. Report “leaving FL 250 for FL 310”.
c. Report “departing FL 250”.
d. Report “level at FL 310” and change the Mode C squawk to reflect FL 310.

b. Report “leaving FL 250 for FL 310”.

242

469. Which statement about holding airspeed is correct?
a. Maximum holding airspeed for prop-driven aircraft is 230 KIAS.
b. Turbojet aircraft may always hold above 14;000 feet MSL at 310 KIAS.
c. Max holding speed at USAF airfields is 310 KIAS unless depicted otherwise.
d. Both a and b are correct.

c. Max holding speed at USAF airfields is 310 KIAS unless depicted otherwise.

243

470. On arrival at a clearance limit; without further clearance and without holding instructions; you should request further clearance and:
a. Hold in a standard holding pattern on the course on which the aircraft approached the fix (if no holding pattern is charted).
b. Hold in the charted holding pattern at the clearance limit fix.
c. Continue the filed route of flight while awaiting clearance.
d. Either a or b above.

d. Either a or b above.

244

471. You have requested; and been told to expect; an enroute descent to your destination. Which statement is correct?
a. When an enroute descent is authorized; the controller may not terminate it without the consent of the pilot; except as required by a Radar outage or other emergency situations.
b. Single-piloted turbojets may expect to receive clearance for a high altitude IAP.
c. Aircraft other than single-piloted turbojets may expect to receive clearance for a low-altitude IAP.
d. All of the above are correct.

a. When an enroute descent is authorized; the controller may not terminate it without the consent of the pilot; except as required by a Radar outage or other emergency situations.

245

472. Which statement concerning enroute descents is correct?
a. Enroute descents can only be initiated by a request from the pilot.
b. It is the pilot's responsibility to request a high altitude approach if an enroute descent is not desired.
c. Prior to entering IFR conditions; the pilot should coordinate the type of final to be flown.
d. Enroute descents can only be issued in a radar environment.

b. It is the pilot's responsibility to request a high altitude approach if an enroute descent is not desired.

246

473. You intend to fly a coupled ILS approach. Prior to reaching the FAF; you must:
a. Ensure the airfield does not have a charted ILS critical area.
b. Advise the ATC agency only if an auto-land approach is planned.
c. Ensure the weather is reported above an 800-foot ceiling and/or visibility 2 miles.
d. Advise the ATC agency when a coupled or auto-land approach is being conducted.

d. Advise the ATC agency when a coupled or auto-land approach is being conducted.

247

474. According to ICAO procedures; which of the following require that you be IFR?
a. Cruise at FL 180.
b. Flight between sunset and sunrise.
c. Supersonic flight.
d. Both b and c.

d. Both b and c.

248

475. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding IFR flights within ICAO controlled airspace?
a. Position reports are not required when you are in radar contact with an ATC facility.
b. Air Traffic Control clearance to enter Controlled Airspace is not required before entry if the route and altitudes are the same as those you filed on your flight plan.
c. Clearance for a VOR or ILS approach does not constitute waiver from FM immunity requirements.
d. All of the above.

c. Clearance for a VOR or ILS approach does not constitute waiver from FM immunity requirements.

249

501. Unless specifically requested by a US military service; US airports listed in the Airport/Facility Directory of the IFR Enroute Supplement must have:
a. A minimum of 5;000 feet of hard-surfaced runway.
b. An appropriate procedure set up to handle and service military aircraft.
c. A published DoD Instrument Approach Procedure and/or radar approach minimums.
d. An operational control tower.

c. A published DoD Instrument Approach Procedure and/or radar approach minimums.

250

502. Which statement is true concerning the airfield in figure 37?
a. There are barriers on all the runways for military aircraft.
b. Fuel is provided by LinderAir Fuel Services.
c. The airfield is listed as a “P” field.
d. The field elevation is 124’.

c. The airfield is listed as a “P” field.

251

503. Which statement is true concerning the airfield in figure 38?
a. Transient aircraft may expect extensive delays for servicing.
b. Reduced separation between USAF and USN/USMC aircraft is in effect.
c. A tethered Aerostat Radar system is nearby and may extend to as high as 12;000 MSL.
d. None of the above.

a. Transient aircraft may expect extensive delays for servicing.

252

504. If an airfield listing in the IFR Enroute Supplement is noted as Official Business Only (OFFL BUS ONLY); which restriction/statement applies?
a. You may stop there if you have official government business which you must conduct on or near the field and PRIOR PERMISSION is received from the airfield manager.
b. You are precluded from using this airfield as an alternate for IFR flights.
c. Both a and b above apply.
d. Routine transient service is available; but the aircraft may not remain overnight (RON).

a. You may stop there if you have official government business which you must conduct on or near the field and PRIOR PERMISSION is received from the airfield manager.

253

505. You desire to list a US military base as an IFR alternate; however; in the IFR Enroute Supplement; the base is listed PPR. You may:
a. List the base as an alternate.
b. Not list the base as an alternate.
c. List the base as an alternate only if you have official business at the base.
d. List the base as an alternate if you have prior permission.

a. List the base as an alternate.

254

506. Departing the airfield listed on figure 22; you plan to use the clearance delivery service; monitor the ATIS and then contact the tie-in FSS after departure. On which frequencies can you do this?
a. 123.0; 132.65; 126.55
b. 128.25; 132.65; 122.0
c. 128.25; 119.1; 122.0
d. 122.95; 121.7; 108.2

b. 128.25; 132.65; 122.0

255

507. When planning an IFR flight off published routes at FL 290; what is the maximum length of a leg between two (HA) class VORTACs?
a. 130 NM.
b. 230 NM.
c. 260 NM.
d. In positive control; any distance is acceptable.

c. 260 NM

256

508. You are planning an IFR flight at 14;000 feet MSL; off airways; between an (HA) class and an (L) class radio NAVAId. Assuming your aircraft is non-RNAV capable; what is the maximum leg length between those aids?
a. 170 NM.
b. 80 NM.
c. 140 NM.
d. 100 NM.

b. 80 NM.

257

509. Which statement is true concerning the airfield in figure 38?
a. The Morse code identification of the Key West TACAN is removed daily from 0300-1200Z.
b. A tethered Aerostat Radar system is nearby and may extend to as high as 12;000 MSL.
c. Reduced separation between USAF and USN/USMC aircraft is in effect.
d. None of the above.

a. The Morse code identification of the Key West TACAN is removed daily from 0300-1200Z

258

510. Which statement is true concerning the airfield in figure 37?
a. The Localizer is unmonitored.
b. The airfield closes at 9:00 PM daily.
c. The airfield is closed to all fixed-wing military aircraft.
d. The airfield is closed to all aircraft with more than 24 passengers.

a. The Localizer is unmonitored

259

511. While on an IFR flight you are unable to contact Boston Center on a newly assigned frequency. You return to your previously assigned frequency and are unable to contact the center. You are cruising at FL 290 and determine you are in “Lake George” sector. According to figure 23; you should attempt contact on:
a. 307.0 UHF or 134.95 VHF
b. 243.0 UHF or 121.5 VHF
c. 291.6 UHF or 119.25 VHF
d. 348.7 UHF or 128.325 VHF

d. 348.7 UHF or 128.325 VHF

260

551. Your reported destination altimeter setting is 29.85. You should change from the en route altimeter setting of 29.92 to the local altimeter setting prior to descent through:
a. FL 180.
b. FL 185.
c. FL 190.
d. FL 195.

b. FL 185

261

552. In areas under FAA control; with ATC radar contact; which additional report(s) must be made without request?
a. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
b. When leaving FAF inbound on final approach.
c. When an approach has been missed.
d. Both a and c above.

d. Both a and c above

262

553. You are flying in controlled airspace on an IFR flight plan. It becomes apparent that your localizer receiver is inoperative. You must:
a. Re-file to a destination not requiring localizer information for an approach.
b. Take no action unless localizer is required for navigation.
c. Immediately notify ATC or FSS of the loss.
d. Land at the nearest suitable airfield where repairs can be made as soon as possible.

c. Immediately notify ATC or FSS of the loss.

263

554. Prior to landing at an Army airfield; you are advised the preceding aircraft reported the braking action as “poor.” According to the Flight Information Handbook; you can expect braking action similar to an RCR of:
a. 19 or greater.
b. 13 to 18.
c. 5 or less.
d. 6 to 11.

d. 6 to 11

264

555. Using the airfield diagram shown in figure 24; what types of lighting are associated with runway 27R?
a. MALSR; VASI and HIRL.
b. MALSR; sequenced flashing lights and VASI.
c. MALSR; sequenced flashing lights; PAPI and HIRL.
d. MALSR; sequenced flashing lights; HIRL; RAIL and PAPI.

d. MALSR; sequenced flashing lights; HIRL; RAIL and PAPI

265

556. Destination MET watch is a joint responsibility of the pilot and destination operations. Who must watch enroute and alternate airport weather?
a. The pilot in command.
b. Both the pilot and operations personnel at the alternate airport.
c. PMSV.
d. The approach control at the alternate airport.

a. The pilot in command

266

557. When the pilot acknowledges to the controller the receipt of the ATIS broadcast; the controller:
a. May omit those items contained in the broadcast if they are current.
b. Will repeat the ATIS letter designation back to the pilot.
c. Understands the pilot is requesting the ATIS information for that letter designation.
d. Will read the pilot all current information.

a. May omit those items contained in the broadcast if they are current

267

558. You are expected to monitor ATIS; where available; to obtain essential routine terminal information. If the ATIS broadcast does not mention sky condition or visibility; the minimum ceiling and visibility existing at the terminal:
a. Is being broadcast continuously over the local VOR station.
b. Is at least a 5;000 foot ceiling with 5 miles or more visibility.
c. Is changing rapidly and will be broadcast at a later time.
d. Cannot be determined from this broadcast.

b. Is at least a 5;000 foot ceiling with 5 miles or more visibility.

268

559. What does the following METAR observation tell you?
EDAD 0401Z 25007KT 8000 -RA BR SCT008 BKN010 BKN022 BKN040 09/08 A3026 RMK WR// GRN:
a. The ceiling is 1000 feet.
b. The RVR is 8000 feet.
c. Visibility is restricted by light rain and mist.
d. Both a and c.

d. Both a and c

269

560. What does the following METAR observation tell you?
EDAR 1455Z 31010KT 9999 SCT010 BKN022 14/11 A3026 RMK WR// GRN:
a. The temperature is 3 degrees above the dew point.
b. The runway is wet.
c. Both a and b.
d. The ceiling is 2;000 feet.

c. Both a and b

270

561. Which is true about the amended forecast for NTU?
NTU 1109 AMD VRB05KT 9999 SCT012 BKN040 OVC080 QNH3013INS CIG020 VCTS
TEMPO 1114 1600 -SHRA BR
FM15 07007KT 9999 NSW SCT020 BKN080 BKN250 QNH3012INS CIG030 VCTSSHRA
TEMPO 1801 3200 TS SHRA BR BKN010 OVC015 CIG010
FM03 16010KT 9999 SCT025 BKN040 BKN080 OVC250 QNH3015INS
CIG040 VCSHRA WND 18008KT AFT 06 AMD 1116:
a. The intermittent conditions at 1300 Zulu calls for about 1 mile visibility.
b. The ceiling at 1500 Zulu is broken at 25;000 feet.
c. The wind at 0500 Zulu will be 160 at 10 kts.
d. Both a and c.

c. The wind at 0500 Zulu will be 160 at 10 kts.

271

562. Which is TRUE about the forecast for KFAF?
KFAF 1616 10010KT 9999 SCT030 BKN120 OVC200 QNH3012INS CIG120
BECMG 2223 13010KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 OVC150 QNH3005INS CIG080 VCSHRA
BECMG 0506 16008KT 8000 -RA BR SCT020 BKN030 OVC080 QNH3000INS CIG030
BECMG 1112 17010G15KT 6000 -SHRA SCT015 OVC030 QNH2995INS CIG030
a. There will be rain-showers after 1200 Zulu.
b. The visibility from 0600 Zulu to 1100 Zulu is 8000 ft.
c. At 1800 Zulu; the ceiling will be 12;000 ft.
d. Both a and c.

d. Both a and c

272

601. You wish to use an alternate airport shown on an Enroute High Altitude - US Chart in green. Which of the following does the airport have?
a. DoD FLIP terminal high altitude approach.
b. Common ground control frequency.
c. Minimum of 5;000 feet hard-surfaced runway.
d. Military landing rights.

c. Minimum of 5;000 feet hard-surfaced runway

273

602. On the Enroute High Altitude – US Charts; what do the symbols in figure 25 indicate?
a. Class A airspace from 18;000 feet MSL to FL 600; minimum reception altitude; MEA change and mileage breakdown.
b. Unusable route segment; MEA or MAA change; minimum reception altitude and mileage breakdown.
c. Class A airspace from FL 180 to FL 600; MEA or MOCA change; minimum crossing altitude and mandatory report point.
d. Unusable route segment; beginning of route segment; minimum reception altitude and control zone in which special VFR is authorized.

b. Unusable route segment; MEA or MAA change; minimum reception altitude and mileage breakdown

274

603. On Enroute Low Altitude - US Charts; airfields shown in brown:
a. Use an LF/MF NAVAID for the published IAP.
b. Have other than a hard-surfaced runway.
c. Do not have a control tower.
d. Do not have a published IAP.

d. Do not have a published IAP

275

604. What kind of altitude is indicated by the following symbol: ?
a. A maximum altitude.
b. A mandatory altitude.
c. A minimum sector altitude.
d. An emergency safe altitude.

a. A maximum altitude

276

605. You are reviewing the approach procedure for your destination and notice the symbols shown in figure 26. These symbols indicate:
a. VFR checkpoint; glide slope intercept and touchdown zone.
b. Doubtful accuracy; glide slope intercept and threshold crossing height.
c. Doubtful accuracy; group lighted and terminal control height.
d. VFR checkpoint; unidirectional arresting gear and touchdown surface level.

b. Doubtful accuracy; glide slope intercept and threshold crossing height

277

606. You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC at 12;000 feet MSL. You are cleared for the HI-ILS Y RWY 33 approach shown in figure 11. Your aircraft is equipped with a single VOR/DME. What DME frequency would you select to use the VDP identified for the localizer?
a. I BAD (109.9).
b. EMG (Ch 49).
c. BAD (Ch 105).
d. EIC (Ch 121).

b. EMG (Ch 49)

278

607. You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC at 12;000 feet MSL. You are cleared for the HI-ILS Y RWY 33 approach shown in figure 11. Your aircraft is equipped with a single VOR/DME. When would you transition to the I-BAD localizer?
a. Within 15 DME of the Elm Grove VORTAc.
b. Within 15 DME of the Barksdale TACAN.
c. When established on the 327 course.
d. Turning inbound to the 327 course.

b. Within 15 DME of the Barksdale TACAN

279

608. You are proceeding direct to the PIA VORTAC (figure 12) via the 180 radial at 4;000 feet. What approach frequency would you expect to use to contact Peoria Approach Control?
a. 125.8 or 269.2
b. 124.675 or 326.2
c. 119.1 or 252.9
d. 115.2 or 282.2

b. 124.675 or 326.2

280

609. You have been cleared for the approach shown in Figure 13 via the DAVIS feeder fix. Approach control informs you that the Janesville Tower is closed and gives you the following weather: “Call sign 11; Janesville is currently showing 600 broken; 1000 overcast; 1 mile visibility. Winds are 360 at 10 knots. Rockford altimeter is 29.89.” Which of the following statements is true?
a. Increase all MDAs by 80 feet when using the Rockford altimeter setting.
b. The published VDP is not authorized when using the Rockford altimeter setting.
c. Obtain the local altimeter via UNICOM; if able; then fly the approach to depicted minimums.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

281

610. You are flying the localizer approach shown in figure 15. Your DME fails prior to initiating the approach. Which of the following is correct?
a. Timing is required to identify the MAP.
b. DME or Radar is required to fly the localizer approach.
c. Descend to 1080 MDA after passing the FAF
d. All the above.

d. All the above

282

611. How is the highest spot elevation indicated in figure 16?
a. Looking at the MSA and subtracting 1;000 feet.
b. Looking in the “T” pages at the front of the IAP book.
c. The largest dot next to the elevation with the largest numbers.
d. None of the above.

c. The largest dot next to the elevation with the largest numbers

283

612. You are enroute to the Elko Regional via the VOR/DME-B shown in figure 44. You are level at 13;000 MSL. Salt Lake City Approach Control clears you for the approach via the Bullion VOR/DME IAF. Select the correct statement.
a. Descend in holding to 11;000 before commencing the procedure turn.
b. Coordinate for the approach via OLGAA or MUNGO and descend as depicted on the arcs.
c. Continue to the VOR and commence the procedure turn immediately upon arrival at the IAF.
d. A or B above.

d. A or B above

284

613. Use the radar landing minimum chart in figure 27. You are flying a category C aircraft. Approach control advises you to expect an ASR approach to RWY 35; circle to land RWY 17. What ceiling and visibility are required to start approach and what MDA applies?
a. (600-1); 1820.
b. (600-1 1/2); 1820.
c. (600-1 1/4); 1860.
d. (700-1 1/2); 1860.

b. (600-1 1/2); 1820

285

801. While clouds are usually present to warn aircrews of mountain wave activity; it is possible for wave action to take place when air is too dry to form clouds.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True

286

802. When anticipating or encountering Clear Air Turbulence (CAT):
a. Fly recommended turbulence penetration airspeed.
b. Climb; descend; and/or change course to exit the turbulent zone.
c. Make very gradual climbs; descents; and turns to minimize additional stress on the aircraft.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

287

803. Wake turbulence may be avoided by:
a. Ensuring adequate distance exists when landing behind heavies.
b. Landing or rotating prior to a heavy aircraft's rotation point.
c. Flying at or above a preceding aircraft's flight path.
d. All the above are correct.

d. All the above are correct

288

804. Which statement(s) concerning wind shear is/are correct?
a. One indication that the aircraft is encountering wind shear is an airspeed change greater than 15 knots and/or vertical speed change greater than 500 ft/min.
b. Although windshear occurs at all altitudes; it is particularly hazardous when it happens within 2000 feet of the ground (known as low-level windshear).
c. Wind shears do not need to be reported if the airspeed change is less than 20 knots.
d. Both A and B are correct.

d. Both A and B are correct

289

805. Low-level wind shear is caused by which of the following weather phenomena?
a. Thunderstorms; microbursts; fronts; sea breezes.
b. Low level jets at the top of a radiation inversion.
c. Topographic conditions and mountain waves.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

290

806. Which statement is correct for icing?
a. Icing will disrupt the flow of air over the airfoils increasing weight and stalling speed.
b. Icing reduces drag.
c. Icing increases your visibility.
d. Icing increases your lift.

a. Icing will disrupt the flow of air over the airfoils increasing weight and stalling speed

291

807. Icing effects include loss of proper operation of control surfaces; brakes; and landing gear; reduction or loss of aircrew’s outside vision; false flight instrument indications; and loss of radio communications.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True

292

808. Which procedure must be used to avoid or minimize the effects of aircraft icing?
a. Use anti-ice and de-ice equipment.
b. Avoid clouds when the temperature is between 0 degreesC and -20 degreesc.
c. If icing is encountered; climb or descend to an altitude where the temperature is warmer than 0 degreesC or colder than -20 degreesc.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

293

809. Which statement about rime icing is correct?
a. Rime ice is a milky; opaque; and granular deposit with a rough surface.
b. Rime ice forms by the instantaneous freezing of small; supercooled water droplets as they strike the aircraft.
c. Rime ice is lighter in weight than clear ice and its weight is of little significance.
d. All the above.

d. All the above

294

810. Induction icing may occur with clear skies and above freezing temperatures. While taxiing; and on departure reduced pressures exist in the intake system; this lowers temperatures to the point where condensation or sublimation takes place.
a. True.
b. False.

a. True

295

811. Which statement(s) about weather hazards associated with thunderstorms is/are correct?
a. Shear turbulence has been encountered several thousand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.
b. Hail has been encountered as high as 45;000 feet in completely clear air and may be carried up to 20 miles downwind from the storm core.
c. A thunderstorm gust front may extend up to 20 miles ahead of a mature storm.
d. All of the above are correct.

d. All of the above are correct

296

812. Research indicates that most lightning strikes occur in which of the following conditions?
a. Within 8 degrees C of the freezing level.
b. Within 5;000 feet of the freezing level.
c. In light precipitation (including snow); in clouds (including debris clouds); in light or negligible turbulence.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

297

813. Which statement(s) concerning volcanic ash is correct?
a. Volcanic ash is highly abrasive and may cause serious damage to the engines; leading edge; windshield; and landing lights.
b. Even a thin layer of volcanic ash on the runway can be detrimental to braking action.
c. Volcanic ash contains large amounts of silicone which glazes hot turbine components.
d. All the above.

d. All the above

298

814. Which of the following is/are true about clouds and cloud layers?
a. Cumulonimbus clouds are thunderstorms.
b. Altocumulus standing lenticular clouds are a good indicator of turbulence.
c. The ceiling is the lowest layer that is reported as broken or overcast; or the vertical visibility into a surface-based obscuration.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above

299

815. The weather symbols shown in figure 28 represent:
a. Occluded front; clear icing; low pressure and rain.
b. Stationary front; moderate turbulence; light clear ice and rain showers.
c. Stationary front; rime ice; low pressure and drizzle.
d. Stationary front; freezing rain; low pressure and drizzle.

d. Stationary front; freezing rain; low pressure and drizzle

300

816. Which statement is correct concerning the following METAR report?
KRND 202356Z 34008KT 2SM -RA BR SCT005 BKN010 OVC040 14/13 A2998 RMK SLP126
a. The ceiling is 500 feet AGL.
b. The ceiling is 1000 feet AGL.
c. Runway 12 visual range is 600 meters.
d. The sky is totally obscured.

b. The ceiling is 1000 feet AGL

301

817. Which statement is correct concerning the following METAR report? (reference AFH11-203v2 Attachment 2 for Statute Miles to Meters Conversion Chart)
KMIB 150255Z 20005KT 3/4SM R17/M0600FT BR BKN002 30/29 A2984 RMK SLP102
a. The weather obscuration is blowing rain.
b. The visibility is more than 1;000 meters.
c. The prevailing visibility is 3/4 statute mile.
d. Both B and c.

d. Both B and C

302

818. All the winds below are given to the aircrew in true direction except:
a. Locally reported (not transmitted long-line) surface winds from on-field observation resources.
b. Forecasted winds.
c. Climb winds.
d. Surface winds for remote locations.

a. Locally reported (not transmitted long-line) surface winds from on-field observation resources

303

819. Coded groups in military forecast may include:
a. Icing forecasts from surface to 10000 ft identified by the designator “I.”
b. Turbulence forecasts from surface to 10000 ft identified by the designator “5.”
c. Volcanic ash forecasts from surface to 10000 ft identified by the designator “V.”
d. Bird Strike Hazard (BASH) forecasts from surface to 10;000 ft identified by the designator “b.”

b. Turbulence forecasts from surface to 10000 ft identified by the designator “5.”

304

820. Which statement concerning SIGMET advisories is correct?
a. SIGMETs are issued for light icing.
b. SlGMETs are issued for volcanic eruption.
c. SlGMETs are issued for light turbulence.
d. SIGMETs are issued for widespread areas of dense fog.

b. SlGMETs are issued for volcanic eruption

305

821. You are checking the radar summary data. This data may be displayed as a chart which:
a. Identifies weather system movements and can predict areas of low visibilities.
b. Shows areas of icing and clear air turbulence above 10000 feet MSL.
c. May include movement; intensity and tops of echoes (precipitation); or other significant data.
d. Provides an overall forecast of weather conditions below 24000 feet MSL.

c. May include movement; intensity and tops of echoes (precipitation); or other significant data

306

822. Sources transmitting weather data to aircraft include:
a. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS).
b. Certain VHF Omnidirectional Ranges (VORs).
c. Integrated Weather Environmental Aid (IWEDA).
d. both A and B.

d. both A and B

307

823. When requesting a weather briefing; the crew should provide:
a. Name; aircraft identification and type.
b. Departure point; destination and alternate.
c. Proposed altitude; ETD and ETE.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above