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ISBB Flashcards

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1
Q

Substances that re considered foreign to a host

A

Antigens

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2
Q

What are the 2 components of immunity?

A

Cellular Immunity
Humoral Immunity

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3
Q

The component of immunity that are made up by cells

A

Cellular Immunity

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4
Q

These are non-cellular / soluble substances that promote immunity.

A

Humoral Immunity

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5
Q

Considered as natural or non-specific immunity

A

Innate Immunity

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6
Q

Considered as acquired or specific immunity

A

Adaptive Immunity

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7
Q

Modified true or false: Magnitude or kinetics of innate immune response is altered by subsequent encounter with a foreign agent.

A

False; unaltered

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8
Q

What type of antigen has no carrier?

A

Soluble antigen

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9
Q

What type of antigen is attached to a carrier?

A

Particulate antigen

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10
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

RBC, WBC, Bacteria, Charcoal, Latex, Beads, Bentonite

A

WBC

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11
Q

Autoantibody present in: Grave’s Disease

A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

A

C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

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12
Q

Autoantibody present in: Rheumatoid arthritis

A) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith
B) Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG
C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-SSa and Anti-SSb

A

B) Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG

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13
Q

Autoantibody present in: Myasthenia gravis

A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

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14
Q

Autoantibody present in: Primary biliary cirrhosis

A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-beta cells
D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

A

B) Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

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15
Q

Autoantibody present in: Chronic Active Hepatitis

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies

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16
Q

Autoantibody present in: Goodpasture syndrome

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

D) Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

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17
Q

Autoantibody present in: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

A) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith

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18
Q

Autoantibody present in: Pernicious Anemia

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

A

D) Anti-parietal cell antibodies

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19
Q

Autoantibody present in: Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-microsomal antibodies
C) Anti-parietal cell antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

B) Anti-microsomal antibodies

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20
Q

Autoantibody present in: Multiple Sclerosis

A) Anti-smoothmuscle antibodies
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Anti-myelin sheath antibodies
D) Anti-acetylcholine receptor

A

C) Anti-myelin sheath antibodies

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21
Q

Autoantibody present in: Sjorgen’s syndrome

A) Anti-SSa and Anti-SSb
B) Anti-mitochondiral antibodies
C) Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG
D) Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith

A

A) Anti-SSa and Anti-SSb

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22
Q

Which HLA class is found in all nucleated cells?

A

HLA Class I

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23
Q

Which HLA class is found in cells like the dendritic cells and macrophages?

A

HLA Class II

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24
Q

Modified True or False: Major histocompatibility complexes are polymorphic

A

True

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25
How likely is it to find another person with a matching MHC type?
1:100,000
26
What do T Cells use to discriminate self from non-self?
MHC or HLA
27
Out of all people, who are most likely that is compatible with a patient's HLA?
Sibling/s
28
Which of the following is not included in the imporance of MHC / HLA molecules? Antigen presentation Antibody production Paternity exclusion testing Organ Transplantation Predisposition to diseases Vaccine development Transfusion
Antibody production Vaccine development
29
These cells are cells that have encountered an antigen
Activated cells
30
Do platelets have HLA / MHC? If so, why?
Yes. Platelets originate from megakaryocytes, which has their own HLA
31
Describe HLA alloimmunization
A person has developed pultiple HLA alloantibodies
32
What may happen when the HLA of a donor graft doesn't exactly match the host's HLA
The host develops antibodies; leading to Host vs Graft disease
33
What is the difference of HVG and GVH Disease?
HVG is when the patient is immunocompetent; GVH is when the patient is immunocompromised
34
Heteroantigens are also known as _____________.
Heterologous or xenogenic antigens
35
Weil-Felix reaction for typhus fever detects antibodies for _________. A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae B) Infection mononucleosis C) Rickettsia
C) Rickettsia
36
Cold agglutinin test for primary atypical pneumonia detects for the presence of _________. A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae B) Infection mononucleosis C) Rickettsia
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
37
Reagent used for Weil-Felix reaction for typhus fever
OX-2, OX-19, OX-K
38
How does molecular size affect immunogenicity?
larger molecules are more immunogenic
39
Modified true or false: The amount of antigen exposed to affects the immunogenicity by stimulating an immune response
True
40
These are specific regions of an antibody which recognizes and binds to an antigen.
Paratope
41
What is the ratio of kappa and lambda in an antibody?
2:1
42
Each chain in an antibody has _______ and ________ regions.
Variable and constant
43
What enzyme hydrolyzes the antibody into 2 fragments?
Pepsin
44
What enzyme hydrolyzes the antibody into 3 fragments?
Papain
45
What are the fragments produced by pepsin?
Fc' + F(ab)2
46
What are the fragments produced by papain?
Fab + Fab + Fc
47
Where is the hinge region located?
In between CH1 and CH2
48
Where is the complement binding site for IgG?
CH2
49
Where is the complement binding site for IgM?
CH3
50
The variable region is located in which end?
Amino terminal end
51
In which end of an antibody is the constant region located?
Carboxy terminal end
52
The region for WBC binding site
Fc region
53
Half-life of IgG antibody
23 days
54
What amino acid is responsible for the flexibility of the hinge region of an antibody?
Proline
55
What antibody/ies have CH4?
IgM & IgE
56
What are the antibodies that can activate the complement?
IgM & IgG
57
What are the different pathways of complement activation?
Classical pathway Alternative pathway Mannan-binding lectin pathway (MBL)
58
What are the stages of complement activation?
Recognition => Activation => Membrane attack complex
59
What component of the complement protein binds to the Fc portion of IgM and IgG molecules? A) C1q B) C1r C) C1s D) C4
A) C1q
60
What component of the complement proteins activates C1s? A) C1q B) C1r C) Calcium D) C2
B) C1r
61
What component of the complement proteins cleaves C4 and C2? A) C1r B) C3 C) Calcium D) C1s
D) C1s
62
What are the components of the C3 convertase in the classical pathway?
C4b2a
63
What binds the C1qrs together?
Calcium
64
What is the component of the complement proteins that is considered the central pivot point? A) C5 B) C6 C) C9 D) C3
D) C3
65
Which component of the complement proteins initiates the membrane attack complex? A) C4 B) C5 C) C6 D) C7
B) C5
66
What component of the complement proteins starts the pore formation in the cell membrane? A) C8 B) C2 C) C6 D) C9
A) C8
67
What triggers the MBL pathway?
Mannan / Mannose
68
What are the components of the complement proteins unique to the MBL pathway?
MBL MASP1 MASP2
69
What are the unique component of the complement proteinsthat belong to the alternative pathway?
Factor B Factor D Properdin
70
What was the old name for the alternative pathway?
Properdin pathway
71
What is the purpose of properdin? A) Polymerizes to cause cell lysis B) Cleaves Factor D C) Stabilizes C1qrs D) Stabilizes C3bBb complex
D) Stabilizes C3bBb complex
72
In the MBL pathway, what splits the C4 and C2?
MASP2
73
What is the regulatory protein that inactivates C1?
C1 inhibitor
74
A regulatory protein that cleaves C3b and C4b
Factor I
75
Regulatory protein that is cofactor to Factor I in inactivating C3b
Factor H
76
Vitronectin is a regulatory protein that prevents the attachment of __________ complex to the cell membrane
C5b67
77
Which regulatory protein dissociates C3 convertase? A) S protein B) Vitronectin C) C4-BP D) DAF
D) DAF
78
The deficiency in C1 inhibitor may lead to what condition? A) Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE) B) SLE-Like syndrome C) Glomerulonephritis D) Severe recurrent infections
A) Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE)
79
The deficiency in C5-C8 are usually found in.... A) Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HANE) B) SLE-Like syndrome C) Gonococcal infections D) Severe recurrent infections
C) Gonococcal infections
80
How much RPM does RPR require and for how long?
100 RPM for 8 minutes
81
The RPM and time required for VDRL testing.
180 RPM for 4 minutes
82
What is the optimum ph for antigen-antibody binding?
6.5-7.5
83
The addition of 22% albumin reduces the zeta potential but it need a contact time of _______.
30-60 minutes
84
How does PEG bring RBCs closer together?
PEG is a dehydrating agent; removing water molecules from the sample.
85
The following intermolecular binding forces are present in antigen-antibody complexes, except for: i) Hydrogen bonds ii) Electrostatic forces iii) Covalent bonds iv) Van der Waals forces v) Hydrophobic bonds vi) London dispersion forces
iii and vi
86
Modified true or false: After adding NSS, an intact clumping represents Rouleaux formation.
False; True agglutination
87
Modified true or false: Rouleaux formation are sometimes caused by monoclonal gammopathies such as multiple sclerosis and Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia.
False; multiple myeloma
88
IgM antibodies are usually ______-reactive
cold
89
What is the definition of titer?
The reciprocal of the highest dilution of a biological sample tht still displays a positive result
90
Direct agglutination can be characterized by: A) The use of an antigen that is artificially attached to a carrier B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier D) The use of an antibody that is naturally present in a carrier
C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier
91
Indirect agglutination can be characterized by: A) The use of an antigen that is artificially attached to a carrier B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier D) The use of an antibody that is naturally present in a carrier
A) The use of an antigen that is artifically attached to a carrier
92
Reverse passive agglutination can be characterized by: A) The use of an antigen that is artificially attached to a carrier B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier C) The use of an antigen that is naturally present in a carrier D) The use of an antibody that is naturally present in a carrier
B) The use of an antibody that is artificially attached to a carrier
93
Washing in labeled immunoassays is an example of what step?
Separation step
94
In the complement fixation test, hemolysis indicates a _______ result.
Negative
95
Modified true or false: Symptomatic anemia starts at a hemoglobin level of <9g/dL
False; <7g/dL
96
What is the most common immunodeficiency and is mostly asymptomatic?
IgA Deficiency
97
Modified true or false: Patients with IgA Deficiency would produce anti-IgA when they are transfused with IgA-rich blood.
True
98
Who should receive this blood unit: Irradiated blood components A) Patients with bleeding due to a platelet defect B) Chronically transfusion-dependent patients C) Patients that may experience TRALI D) Immunocompromised patients
D) Immunocompromised patients
99
Who should receive this blood unit: Leuko-reduced components A) Immunocompromised patients B) Patients that may experience TRALI C) Patients with von Willebrand's disease D) Patients with neutropenia
B) Patients that may experience TRALI
100
Who should receive neocyte-enriched RBC blood units? A) Patients with congenital hypogammaglobulinemia B) Patients with neutropenia C) Patients with symptomatic anemia D) Patients who are chronically transfusion-dependent
D) Patients who are chronically transfusion-dependent
101
Who should receive granulocyte concentrates? A) Patients with congenital hypogammaglobulinemia B) Patients with neutropenia C) Patients with symptomatic anemia D) Patients who are chronically transfusion-dependent
B) Patients with neutropenia
102
Which blood unit is preferred in patients with Factor 8 deficiency? A) Cryoprecipitate B) Leuko-reduced components C) Factor concentrates D) Fresh frozen plasma
C) Factor concentrates
103
What is the most common encountered type of transfusion reaction?
Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
104
The development of ABO antigen develops as early as ______.
37 days of fetal life
105
What is the immunodominant sugar in blood group A? A) D-Galactose B) L-Fucose C) N-Acetylgalactosamine D) N-Acetylgalactosaminyl
C) N-Acetylgalactosamine
106
What is the immunodominant sugar in blood group O? A) L-Fructose B) L-Fucose C) D-Galactose D) D-Mannose
B) L-Fucose
107
What is the immunodominant sugar in blood group B? A) D-Galactose B) D-Glucose C) L-Mannose D) L-Fucose
A) D-Galactose

MTAP 1 (3 decks)

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