ISBB - Chapter 4.10

Question 1

What protocol is followed when screening whole blood donors for HIV-1 RNA?
A. Pools of 10 are tested; if the pool is nonreactive, donors are accepted
B. Pools of 20 are tested; if the pool is reactive, samples are tested individually
C. Pools of up to 16 donors are tested; if pool is reactive, individual samples are screened
D. All donors are screened individually; if samples are reactive, blood is discarded

Answer 1

C. Pools of up to 16 donors are tested; if pool is reactive, individual samples are screened

Question 2

Currently, nucleic acid testing (NAT) testing is performed to detect which viruses?
A. HIV and Human T-cell lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1)
B. HTLV I/II
C. HIV, HCV, HBV, Zika, and West Nile virus (WNV)
D. HIV, HBV, and WNV

Answer 2

C. HIV, HCV, HBV, Zika, and West Nile virus (WNV)

Question 3

John comes in to donate a unit of whole blood at the collection center of the community blood supplier. The enzyme immunoassay assay (EIA) screen for anti-HIV-1,2 is nonreactive; however, the NAT HIV is reactive. After 8 weeks John is tested again and found to be NAT nonreactive and EIA anti-HIV-1,2 nonreactive:
A. This renders him eligible for donation
B. Donation is deferred for 6 months
C. Status is dependent on further confirmatory testing
D. Donation is deferred for 12 months

Answer 3

A. This renders him eligible for donation

Question 4

What marker is the first to appear in HBV infection?
A. Hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) IgM
B. HbsAg
C. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
D. Anti-HBc IgG

Answer 4

B. HbsAg

Question 5

What marker indicates immunity to hepatitis B infection?
A. Anti-HBc IgM
B. HBsAg
C. Anti-HBs
D. Anti-HBc IgG

Answer 5

C. Anti-HBs

Question 6

A patient with multiple myeloma is placed on daratumumab (Darzalex). What tests are affected by this drug, and what are typical recommendations for transfusion?
A. Antibody screen/least incompatible RBCs
B. ABO/washed RBCs
C. Rh/leukocyte-poor RBCs
D. All of the above

Answer 6

A. Antibody screen/least incompatible RBCs

Question 7

A unit tests positive for syphilis with use of the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test. The Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test on the same unit is negative. What is the disposition of the unit?
A. The unit may be used to prepare components
B. The donor must be contacted and questioned further; if the RPR test result is most likely a false positive, then the unit may be used
C. The unit must be discarded
D. Cellular components may be prepared but must be irradiated before issue

Answer 7

A. The unit may be used to prepare components

Question 8

SITUATION: John Smith donated a unit of whole blood in May. RBCs made from whole blood were transfused to a recipient at a community hospital in June, with no apparent complications. The blood supplier notified the medical director of the hospital that the donor had reported engaging in high-risk behavior with another male in April, although viral tests remain negative and the donor is healthy. What course of action should be taken?
A. No action should be taken
B. The recipient’s physician should be notified
C. The recipient’s physician and the recipient should be notified
D. The recipient should be notified

Answer 8

B. The recipient’s physician should be notified

Question 9

All of the following are required tests on donor blood, except:
A. HBsAg
B. Anti-CMV
C. HIV-1
D. Anti-HTLV I/II

Answer 9

B. Anti-CMV

Question 10

Which of the following bands would constitute a positive Western Blot result for HIV?
A. p24, gp41, p17
B. p55, gp120, p51
C. gp160, p31, p56
D. p24, p30, p55

Answer 10

A. p24, gp41, p17