ITE Heme COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Antibody screen negative meaning

A

PATIENT has no sig RBC antibodies

*the RBC has surface antigens (A, B, Rh)

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2
Q

the RBC has surface antigens (A, B, Rh), which one is most likely to produce immunization?

A

Rh

- if pts are Rh(D) negative, they do not express Rh(D) antigen on their RBC surface

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3
Q

What does it mean if a patient is type A blood?

A

They have A antigen on their RBC surface
- can accept type A and O blood

They lack B antigen

  • would make anti-B antibodies
  • If transfused with nonmatching blood, their antibodies will attack donor blood -> massive hemolysis
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4
Q

How does type and cross work? How long does it take?

A

Mixing DONOR erythrocytes with RECIPIENT’S plasma
- Agglutination occurs if there is a minor or major incompatibility

Takes 45-60 min

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5
Q

Universal donor

Universal recipient

A

Type O

Type AB

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6
Q

How does type and screen work?

A

Determines pt’s ABO and Rh(D) status

Mixes PATIENT’S plasma with 2-3 reagent samples of RBCs (clinically important RBC antigens)

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7
Q

If type and screen is already performed and the patient emergently needs blood, _________ is the best option if a full cross match (50 min) cannot be performed.

A

type-specific partially cross-matched blood transfusion

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8
Q

All blood in the US contains ____ that serves as a buffer,
____ that acts as a RBC energy source, and
_____ that acts as an anticoagulant

A

Phosphate
Dextrose
Citrate

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9
Q

How long can pRBCs be stored for?

A

21-35 days

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10
Q

What anesthetics will trigger acute attacks in porphyrias? (8)

A
  1. Etomidate
  2. Benzos
  3. Ropivacaine
  4. Phenytoin
  5. Sulfonamides
  6. Ethanol
  7. Amphetamines
  8. Ergot derivatives

*fent, prop, gas are okay

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11
Q

TEGs - What do you give if:

  • R time is too long
  • a- angle is too low
  • Max amplitude too high
  • Breaking down clot too quickly (hyperlytic)
A

R time: FFP

  • clot beginning to form
  • has clot products (IX, X

a-angle: Fibrinogen

  • how quickly clot is forming
  • often given with FFP

MA: Platelets

  • width of clot
  • Maximal clot strength

Antifibrinolytic (TXA or aminocaproic acid) to prevent lysis
- clot lysis speed

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12
Q

TEGs: appropriate values

  • R time
  • a- angle
  • Max amplitude
  • Clot break down time, LY30
A

“Rule of 6’s”

  • R time: 6 min
  • a- angle: 60 degrees
  • Max amplitude: 60 mm
  • LY30 (Clot break down): 6%
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13
Q

Cryo has what factors in it?

A

VII, vWF

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14
Q

MOA of TXA?

A

Antifibrinolytic

  • direct plasminogen and plasmin inhibitor
  • prevent fibrin break down
  • control of hemorrhage
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15
Q

MOA of protamine

A

antidote to heparin

Chelates large, negatively charged heparin molecule and prevents binding with antithrombin 3

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16
Q

MOA of vitamin K clotting cofactor

A

Increases activation of clotting factors 1972 (X, IX, VII, II)
- cofactor for those factors

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17
Q

tPA MOA? Effect on TEG?

A

accelerates fibrinolysis

  • (enzymatic catalyst for conversion of plasminogen to plasmin -> binds fibrin -> breakdown)
  • increased LY30 (clot break down). (normal is 6%)
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18
Q

TXA or aminocaproic acid MOA?

A

Antifibrinolytic.

- Lysine analog that directly binds to activated plasmin in the place of fibrin -> prevents fibrin breakdown

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19
Q

tPA can cause hemorrhage d/t increased fibrinolysis. How do you reverse tPA?

A

antifibrinolytic like TXA or aminocaproic acid

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20
Q

Protamine MOA

A

large, positively charged molecule that chelates large negatively charged heparin and prevents binding with AT3 and subsequent anticoagulant effect

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21
Q

Desmopressin (DDAVP) MOA

A

induces synthesis and release of VWF by endothelial cells

- critical role of platelet adhesion

22
Q

What is contraindicated in Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

anything that induces P450 d/t increasing ALA concentration

  1. Alcohol
  2. Barbiturate
  3. BDZ
  4. Nifedipine
  5. Glucocorticoids
23
Q

How does fructosamine testing in diabetes work? Who is it used in?

A

Measures shorter time interval compared to hgb A1c.

Pts who have reduced red cell lifespans (hemolytic anemia, sickle cell disease)

24
Q

How can the sequestration of platelets spare autologous blood products from damage during CPB?

A

This creation of a platelet-rich plasma can help protect the platelets from damage during bypass.

Infuse platelets after bypass to conserve blood

25
Dietary supplements that interfere with platelet function (4)
1. Garlic 2. Ginger 3. Ginko 4. Vit E
26
St John's Wort is used to tx depression and PMS. Drug interactions?
Potent CYP3A4 inducer -> increased metabolism and decreased efficacy of meds - Digoxin - Warfarin - Cyclosporin - Anticonvulsants
27
(Right/Left)ward shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is found in pts with chronic severe anemia
Rightward | - decrease affinity of hgb for oxygen -> facilitates release of oxygen to tissues
28
Can pts develop cardiomegaly in chronic severe anemia?
Yes - high outpt cardiac failure secondary to decreased blood viscosity - Pulm congestion - Ascites - Edema - Orthopnea + dyspnea
29
In general, a positive direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test) is diagnostic for _____
a hemolytic reaction | - if negative, then pt has non-hemolytic rxn
30
Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) - leading cause of transfusion related death usually w/in 6 hours - What is it d/t?
Antibodies in donor blood bind to recipient's leukocytes -> adhere to vascular capillary bed in pulmonary circulation
31
________ is the most common blood reaction. Fever, chills, headache, myalgias
non-hemolytic febrile transfusion reaction - negative Coombs test - Recipient antibodies against HLA antigens on donor leukocytes -> cause lysis of donor leukocytes
32
Polycythemia vera is a hematological condition that causes which blood cell lines to proliferate?
All three - Erythrocytosis - Leukocytosis - Thrombocytosis
33
Mild allergic transfusion reactions (urticaria, pruritus, facial swelling) are d/t?
Soluble foreign proteins in transfused donor blood | - acts as antigen -> immune activation in recipient via IgE response
34
In pts with sickle-cell disease, with mod-high risk procedures, you should transfuse to hgb level of ___
10 g/dL
35
Which more commonly causes HIT, Unfractionated heparin or LMWH?
Unfractionated | - 10x more
36
Two tests that can detect HIT. Which one is more sensitive? Specific?
1. Anti- Platelet factor 4 2. Serotonin release asay Both are sensitive SRA is more specific
37
When does an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction occur? (immediate, N/V, chills, fever)
When previously sensitized individual with circulating antibodies to either A or B antigens on donor erythrocytes is transfused blood containing that major antigen.
38
Tests to run if you suspect hemolytic transfusion reaction?
1. Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test 2. Repeat crossmatching 3. Hemolysis tests (haptoglobin, bilirubin, urine hgb)
39
Indication for platelet transfusion in the setting of massive transfusion is ____
< 75,000/mcL
40
Tope 3 causes of death associated with blood products
1. TRALI 2. Hemolytic transfusion reactions (non-ABO > ABO) 3. Infection/Sepsis
41
PCWP is a measure of the LAP. - Normal PCWP: ? - What is it in pts with TRALI?
5-12 mmHg <18 mmHg *FYI: CHF and pulmonary edema pts have PCWP > 25mmHg
42
What can help differentiate TRALI from TACO since they both can cause b/l pulmonary infiltrates?
BNP - elevated in TACO
43
What can be given to pts with heparin resistance (antithrombin III deficiency)?
FFP or antithrombin III
44
Maximum allowable blood loss equation
[EBV * (starting Hct - target Hct)] / (starting HcT) ie: = [70ml/kg x 70kg * (42 - 30)] / 42 = [4900 mL *12 ] /42
45
Cryoprecipitate contains ____ mg/unit of fibrinogen.
200 mg/u - ie: if you give 10 u of cryo, you are giving pt 2000mg of fibrinogen
46
Cryoprecipitate has factors ____
VIII, fibrinogen, vWF
47
What is leukoreduction of blood products? Benefits?
Decrease or complete elimination of donor leukocytes in blood components - reduces risk of febrile transfusion rxn and risk of viral transmission (CMV) *does NOT prevent graft vs host disease and some bacteria
48
Tx for TACO
diuretics | - problem is overload in circulating volume regardless of type of blood product
49
Warfarin reversal for urgent surgery - INR 1.5 - 1.9: - INR 1.9 - 5: - INR 5 - 9:
- INR 1.5 - 1.9: PCC - INR 1.9 - 5: PCC or FFP + 1-3mg of IV vit K - INR 5 - 9: PCC or FFP + 2-5 mg IV Vit K
50
Warfarin reversal for surgery (24-48h later): - INR 1.5 - 1.9: - INR 1.9 - 5: - INR 5 - 9:
Warfarin reversal for urgent surgery - INR 1.5 - 1.9: 1mg PO Vit K - INR 1.9 - 5: 1-2.5 mg PO Vit K - INR 5 - 9: 2.5 - 5mg PO Vit K