JHON MURTAGH Flashcards

1
Q

Peak age incidence 10–30 years >40 years

A

Clinical differentiation between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

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2
Q

Age of onset
Usually young <20
Usually middle-aged >40

A

Clinical differentiation between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

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3
Q

Onset
Rapid
Insidious/slow

A

Clinical differentiation between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

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4
Q

___________ is also known as juvenile onset diabetes or insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
(IDDM).

A

Type 1

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5
Q

________ is also known as maturity onset diabetes or non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
(NIDDM).

A

Type 2

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6
Q

Type 1 has an autoimmune causation which is also responsible for a late-onset form known as
_______________________

A

late onset autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA).

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7
Q

Drug-induced diabetes (transient)

A

Thiazide diuretics
Oestrogen therapy (high dose—not with low-dose HRT)
Corticosteroids

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8
Q

In Australians older than 25 years the prevalence of diabetes is __________, with
another 10.6% having impaired glucose tolerance

A

7.5%

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9
Q

About 30% of those with impaired glucose tolerance will develop clinical diabetes
within ________

A

10 years

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10
Q

Many people with type 2 diabetes are ______

A

asymptomatic

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11
Q

___________ may be temporarily elevated during acute illness, after trauma or
surgery.

A

Blood glucose

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12
Q

The classic symptoms of uncontrolled diabetes are:

A
polyuria
polydipsia
loss of weight (type 1)
tiredness and fatigue
propensity for infections, especially of the skin and genitals (vaginal thrush)
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13
Q

DxT thirst + polyuria + weight loss →

A

The young person with type 1 diabetes

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14
Q

Symptoms of complications (may be presenting feature) include:
staphylococcal skin infections
polyneuropathy: tingling or numbness in feet, pain (can be severe if present)
impotence
arterial disease: myocardial ischaemia, peripheral vascular disease

A

The young person with type 1 diabetes

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15
Q

Examination
The physical examination should ideally follow the protocol for annual review.
Initial screening for suspected diabetes should include:
general inspection, including skin
BMI (weight/height)
waist circumference
visual acuity

A

diabetes

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16
Q

blood pressure—lying and standing
test for peripheral neuropathy: tendon reflexes, sensation (e.g. cotton wool, 10 g
monofilament, Neurotips)
urinalysis: glucose, albumin, ketones, nitrites

A

diabetes

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17
Q
Initial: fasting or random blood sugar, follow-up oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) or
glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) if indicated
Other tests according to clinical assessment (e.g. lipids, kidney function, urine albumin–
creatinine ratio (ACR), ECG)
A

diabetes

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18
Q

Age >40 years
Family history
Overweight/obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
History of gestational diabetes, pancreatitis
Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Hypertension/ischaemic heart disease
Medication causing hyperglycaemia
Ethnic/cultural groups: Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders, Pacific Islanders, people from
Indian subcontinent, Chinese, Afro-Caribbeans

A

Risk factors for DIABETES

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19
Q

People with known impaired fasting glucose/glucose tolerance (‘prediabetes’)
Age >40 years, or younger age (e.g. >30 years) with: family history (first-degree relative with
T2D), obesity (BMI >30), high-prevalence ethnic groups
Age >18 years in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people
Previous gestational diabetes
People on long-term steroids or antipsychotics

A

Screening (type 2)

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20
Q

Polycystic ovarian syndrome, especially if overweight

Previous cardiovascular event

A

Screening (type 2)

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21
Q

The optimal frequency is every 3 years from age 40 years using AUSDRISK

A

Screening (type 2)

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22
Q

If score ≥12, do fasting blood glucose or
HbA1c. Screen annually in very high-risk groups, including Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander
people and those with ‘prediabetes’.5

A

Screening (type 2)

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23
Q

If symptomatic (at least two of polydipsia, polyuria, frequent skin infections or frequent
genital thrush):
fasting venous blood glucose (VBG) ≥7.0 mmol/L
or
random VBG (at least 2 hours after last eating) ≥11.1 mmol/L
or
HbAIc >____________

A

6.5% (>48 mmol/mol)

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24
Q

If asymptomatic:
at least two separate elevated values, either fasting, 2 or more hours postprandial, or the two
values from ____________________________

A

an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

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25
If random or fasting VBG lies in an uncertain range (5.5–11.0 mmol/L) in either a symptomatic patient or a patient with risk factors (over 50 years, overweight, firstdegree relative with T2D), perform ___________________.
an OGTT
26
The 2-hour blood sugar on an OGTT is still the gold standard for the diagnosis of uncertain diabetes, i.e. ____________________
>11.1 mmol/L.
27
The OGTT should be reserved for true borderline cases and for diagnosing gestational diabetes, where a 75 mg OGTT is recommended at _____________________________
24–28 weeks’ gestation
28
Diabetic ulcer, allergic to penicillin, debridement done. Next?allergic to pencillin so can’t give ________________
Ticarcillin is an extended-spectrum penicillin
29
Elderly pt with "painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans, and psychic moans
Hyperparathyroidism
30
This is the condition where the VPG is elevated above the normal range (i.e. 6.1–6.9) but does not satisfy the type 2 diagnostic criteria.
Prediabetes
31
This is the condition where the VPG is elevated above the normal range (i.e. 6.1–6.9) but does not satisfy the type 2 diagnostic criteria. It includes two states:
impaired fasting glucose (IFG) | impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
32
A diagnosis of prediabetes is not a call to start medication, but it increases the urgency of promoting lifestyle changes such as weight reduction and ______________________.
increased physical activity
33
______________is unreliable in diagnosis since glycosuria occurs at different plasma glucose values in patients with different kidney thresholds.
Urinalysis
34
``` Venous blood glucose concentration fasting up to 6 mmol/L ```
Normal
35
``` Venous blood glucose concentration fasting up to 6.1–6.9 mmol/L ```
Intermediate | hyperglycaemia
36
``` Venous blood glucose concentration fasting up to ≥7 mmol/L ```
Diabetes
37
``` Venous blood glucose concentration random up to 6 mmol/L ```
Normal
38
``` Venous blood glucose concentration random up to ≥11.1 mmol/L ```
Diabetes
39
``` Oral glucose tolerance test 2-hour venous blood glucose concentration up to 7.7 mmol/L ```
Normal
40
``` Oral glucose tolerance test 2-hour venous blood glucose concentration up to 7.8–11 mmol/L ```
Intermediate | hyperglycaemia
41
``` Oral glucose tolerance test 2-hour venous blood glucose concentration up to 7.8–11 mmol/L ```
≥11.1 mmol/L | HbA1c ≥48 mmol/mol (
42
Gestational diabetes is the new onset of abnormal glucose tolerance during ___________.
pregnancy
43
Pregnancy is diabetogenic for those with a genetic predisposition
Gestational diabetes
44
All pregnant women should be | screened at 24–28 weeks with _________________
a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
45
gestational diabetes is a fasting plasma glucose of | ≥5.1 mmol/L, or a post-75 g oral glucose load at 1 hour ≥10.0, or at 2 hours _____________
8.5–11.0
46
The incidence of diabetes rises with _________
age
47
On day discharge FBS OGTT at 6-12 weeks If normal then _____________
3 yearly FBS
48
Prevention of CAD in DM patients include control of BP, Blood sugar and LDL, AceI/Arbs in high risk and ___________________
smoking cessation
49
Meticulous foot care is very important in _____________
diabetic patients
50
IgA-TG2 (immunoglobulin A-tissue transglutaminase 2) antibody is the preferred single test for ___________ at any age. Concurrently measure total IgA level with serology testing to determine whether IgA levels are sufficient.
CD detection
51
Most common cause of secondary PPH
Retained products of conception
52
because gdm cause macrosomia and prolonged labour may result in cervical laceration and __________________
traumatic birth
53
This is a secondary post-partum bleeding and cannot possibly be from cervical laceration. Moreover, the presence of blood clots suggests it is ___________________
intrauterine bleeding.
54
because ulcer is localised and not severe. | In severe case( systemic involvement) __________________
I/v ticarcillin.
55
for deep and non-healing wound, do MRI to exclude osteomyelitis first, then tx with _______________
antibiotics
56
Says 3 mm deep ulcer is an indication for further evaluation for osteomyelitis. Here,the Q says purulent ulcer,non healing and 1 cm DEEP. So no doubt the next mx will be ______________.
MRI
57
rifampicin is enzyme inducer it will decrease efficacy ,rifampicin and ____________pill
contraceptive
58
poorly controlled sugar levels in the mother leads to hyperglycaemia in the fetus, which causes more release of Insulin, IGFs and Growth Hormone in the fetus and hence there’s more adipose deposition and ___________.
Macrosomia
59
The mainstay of treatment in diabetic patients with new onset proteinuria to aggressively control blood pressure, ideally below 130/80 mmHg. _________________ are therefore first-line therapy, angiotensin receptor blockers can also be used.
ACE inhibitors (D)
60
ischaemic/coronary heart disease cerebrovascular disease peripheral vascular disease
Macrovascular complications include:
61
``` death (24%) myocardial infarction (22%) stroke (33%) cardiovascular death (37%) overt nephropathy (24%) ```
An analysis of type 2 diabetes in the HOPE study12,13 showed a benefit of ramipril to reduce the risk of:
62
``` Kidney Nerves Infection Vessels Eyes Skin ```
Consider organs/problems affected by diabetes under the mnemonic ‘KNIVES’:
63
The small vessels most affected from a clinical viewpoint are the retina, nerve sheath and kidney glomerulus. In younger people it takes about 10 to 20 years after diagnosis for the problems of diabetic retinopathy, neuropathy and nephropathy to manifest.
Microvascular disease
64
Prevention of diabetic nephropathy is an essential goal of treatment. Early detection of the yardstick, which is microalbuminuria, is important as the process can be reversed with optimal control, particularly of _____________________
blood pressure.
65
The dipstick method is unreliable and the preferred | hospital method of 24-hour urine collection is considered impractical in general practice
diabetic nephropathy
66
Screening is done simply by a first morning urine sample to determine the albumin–creatinine ratio
diabetic nephropathy
67
``` ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin II receptor blockers if a cough develops) should be used for evidence of hypertension. ```
diabetic nephropathy
68
Retinopathy develops as a consequence of ________________disease of the retina
microvascular
69
Assessment of the fundus by an expert is recommended every 1–2 years, via direct ophthalmoscopy (with dilated pupils), retinal photography or, if necessary, fluorescein angiography.
Retinopathy and maculopathy
70
Early diagnosis of serious retinopathy is vital since the early use of laser photocoagulation may delay and prevent ________________
visual loss.
71
radiculopathy (diabetic lumbosacral radiculoplexopathy) sensory polyneuropathy isolated or multiple mononeuropathy isolated peripheral nerve lesions (e.g. median nerve) cranial nerve palsies (e.g. III, VI) amyotrophy
diabetic Neuropathy
72
autonomic neuropathy, which may lead to: erectile dysfunction postural hypotension and syncope impaired gastric emptying (gastroparesis)
diabetic Neuropathy
73
diarrhoea delayed or incomplete bladder emptying loss of cardiac pain → ‘silent’ ischaemia hypoglycaemic ‘unawareness’ sudden arrest, especially under anaesthetic
diabetic Neuropathy
74
skin: mucocutaneous candidiasis (e.g. balanitis, vulvovaginitis), staphylococcal infections (e.g. folliculitis)
poorly controlled diabetes
75
urinary tract: cystitis (women), pyelonephritis and perinephric abscess
poorly controlled diabetes
76
lungs: pneumonia (staphylococcal, streptococcal pneumonia), tuberculosis
poorly controlled diabetes
77
Hypoglycaemia Diabetic ketoacidosis Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia Lactic acidosis
Diabetic metabolic complications
78
``` Cataracts Refractive errors of eye Sleep apnoea Depression Musculoskeletal: neuropathic joint damage (Charcot-type arthropathy), tendon rupture Foot ulcers (related to neuropathy) ```
Diabetic complications
79
intensive lifestyle intervention in individuals who are | overweight with impaired glucose tolerance or raised fasting blood glucose
Prevention of diabetes
80
reduction of ‘lifestyle’ risks—weight, smoking, low physical activity
Management of diabetes
81
strict glycaemic control as measured by HbA1c (target varies with circumstance, but usually ≤7%)
Management of diabetes
82
blood pressure control (≤140/90 mmHg, lower if tolerated)
Management of diabetes
83
control of blood lipid levels
Management of diabetes
84
four times a day (before meals and before bedtime) at first and for problems twice a day (at least once) may settle for 1–2 times a week (if good control)
Blood glucose monitoring at home | Type 1 diabetes
85
important for those on insulin, not routinely recommended for oral medication (monitor with HbA1c instead, in most circumstances) more useful for pregnant women, frail elderly, heavy machinery operators or symptomatic hypoglycaemia
Blood glucose monitoring at home | Type 2 diabetes
86
which normally comprises 4–6% of the total haemoglobin, is abnormally abundant in those with persistent hyperglycaemia, reflecting suboptimal metabolic control.
HbA1c,
87
__________________have a long half-life and their measure reflects the mean plasma glucose levels over the past 2–3 months and hence provides a good method of assessing overall diabetes management.
Glycohaemoglobins
88
__________ should be checked every 3–6 months
HbA1c
89
rapid-acting and short duration (ultra-short)
insulin lispro, insulin aspart
90
short-acting—neutral
regular, soluble
91
intermediate-acting
isophane (NPH) or lente
92
long-acting
ultralente, insulin detemir, insulin glargine
93
diet therapy exercise program weight loss
Type 2 diabetes | First-line treatment
94
Most symptoms improve within 1–4 weeks on diet and exercise
Type 2 diabetes | First-line treatment
95
If unsatisfactory control persists after 3–6 months, consider adding an oral hypoglycaemic agent
Type 2 diabetes | First-line treatment
96
The usual first-line agent is metformin, which reduces | _________________.
insulin resistance
97
If glycaemic targets are not achieved on monotherapy, usual practice is to add in a secretagogue, such as a sulfonylurea, which increases _____________________
insulin production
98
newer agents SGLT2 inhibitors (the gliflozins) and GLP-1 receptor agonists (injected) should be considered for their ___________________________
cardioprotective and renoprotective effects
99
``` 12 (also slowrelease daily dosage) 0.5–3 g Side effects: GIT disturbances (e.g. diarrhoea, a/n/v) ```
Metformin | a biguanide
100
Hypoglycaemia most common side effect
Gliclazide
101
Dubious mortality benefit. Caution with heart failure.
Thiazolidinediones | glitazones
102
Oedema, weight | gain, heart failure
Thiazolidinediones | glitazones
103
horners syndrome triad includes ptosis,anhidrosis,miosis .It is associated with
pancoast tumor
104
___________ should be painless haematuria
Bladder Ca
105
Precipitating factor insulin insufficient, interrupted insulin therapy, infection,infection, stress, alcohol
DkA
106
If no thyroid swelling but features of hyperthyroidism then __________ first then RIU scan.
TSH-R Ab
107
Multiple myeloma is present with fatigue lethargy and ______________
hypercalcemia
108
indepamide cause __________ work as diuretics
hyponatramia
109
indapamide causing | Hyponatremia results in ____________
confusion
110
Hypoglycaemia is theoretically defined as blood glucose falling below __________
4.0 mmol/L
111
Classic warning symptoms: sweating, tremor, palpitations, hunger, peri-oral paraesthesia
Hypoglycaemia
112
30 mL 50% glucose slow IV push
Treatment (reduced conscious state or unconscious)
113
Usually 10 mL in children. 50% glucose slow IV push
Treatment (reduced conscious state or unconscious)
114
This life-threatening emergency requires intensive management. It usually occurs during an illness (e.g. gastroenteritis) when insulin is omitted. It can also occur in type 2 diabetes.
Diabetic ketoacidosis24
115
Develops over a few days, but may occur in a few hours in ‘brittle’ diabetics
Diabetic ketoacidosis
116
Hyperglycaemia (often >20 mmol/L, lower or normal if on SGLT2 inhibitor)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
117
Preceded by polyuria, polydipsia, drowsiness
Diabetic ketoacidosis
118
Vomiting and abdominal pain, dehydration
Diabetic ketoacidosis
119
Hyperventilation—severe acidosis (acidotic breathing): ↓BP, ↑pulse, ↑resp. rate
Diabetic ketoacidosis
120
Ketosis (blood and urine)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
121
Arrange urgent hospital admission
Diabetic ketoacidosis
122
Early IV fluids—normal saline fast first litre, then caution
Diabetic ketoacidosis
123
IV insulin—slow, e.g. 10 U in first hour
Diabetic ketoacidosis
124
ECG—arrhythmia in electrolyte disturbances
Diabetic ketoacidosis
125
Diabetic ketoacidosis with __________requires fluid, sodium (eventually 3 L N saline), potassium (KCl) and insulin.
coma
126
People with this problem may present with an altered conscious state varying from stupor to coma and with marked dehydration
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia
127
The onset may be insidious over a period of weeks, with | fatigue, polyuria and polydipsia.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
128
The key features are marked hyperglycaemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
129
It occurs typically in uncontrolled type 2 diabetes, especially in elderly patients.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
130
There may be evidence of an | underlying disorder such as pneumonia or a urinary infection
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
131
The essential findings are extreme | hyperglycaemia and high plasma osmolarity
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
132
The condition has a high mortality—even higher | than ketoacidosis.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
133
IV fluids, e.g. normal to ½ normal saline, given slowly | Insulin—relatively lower doses than acidosis
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia4
134
Patients with ____________ present with marked hyperventilation ‘air hunger’ and confusion
lactic acidosis
135
has a high mortality rate and must be considered in the very ill person taking metformin, especially if kidney function is impaired
Lactic acidosis
136
Investigations reveal blood acidosis (low pH), low bicarbonate, high serum lactate, absent serum ketones and a large anion gap
Lactic acidosis
137
Treatment is based on removal | of the cause, rehydration and alkalinisation with IV sodium bicarbonate
Lactic acidosis
138
The prevalence of erectile dysfunction in men with type 2 diabetes over 40 years may be as high as __________. It may be caused by macrovascular disease, pelvic autonomic neuropathy or psychological causes.
50%
139
Autonomic ___________-related postural hypotension may be compounded by medication, including antihypertensives and anti-angina agents.
neuropathy
140
Symptoms of gastroparesis (due to autonomic neuropathy) with decreased gastric emptying include a sensation of fullness, dysphagia, reflux or recurrent nausea and vomiting, especially ________________.
after meals
141
Treatment options include medication with domperidone, cisapride or erythromycin
Gastroparesis
142
Injections of botulinum toxin type A into the pylorus via gastroscopy may facilitate gastric emptying.
Gastroparesis
143
In general terms, people controlled by diet alone have no restrictions for driving whereas those on ____________may obtain a conditional licence subject to annual or 2- yearly review.
insulin
144
Long-acting reversible contraceptives (e.g. Implanon, Mirena) or the combined oral contraceptive pill are appropriate options for birth control in women not interested in permanent sterilisation. Bear in mind the possibility of polycystic ovarian syndrome
Contraception IN DIATEICS
145
requires specialist evaluation and then 1- to 2-yearly review
Type 1 diabetes
146
For _____________screening: every 2 years to inspect retina (or use retinal photography)
ophthalmological
147
Many cases of type 2 diabetes remain _____________, so vigilance is important.
undiagnosed
148
__________is a common cause of tiredness. If elderly people with type 2 diabetes are very tired, think of _____________
Hyperglycaemia
149
If a person with diabetes (particularly type 1) is very drowsy and looks sick, consider first the diagnosis of ______________
ketoacidosis
150
__________ is vital: always examine the feet when the person comes in for review
Foot care
151
Treat associated hypertension with ACE inhibitors or a calcium-channel blocker (also good in combination).
DIABETES
152
‘Never let the sun go down on pus in a diabetic foot’—______________
admit to hospital
153
If a foot ulcer hasn’t healed in 6 weeks, exclude osteomyelitis. Arrange for __________ and investigate the vasculature.
an MRI
154
Diabetes control: _____-monthly review
3
155
hyperuricaemia due to
thiazide diuretics
156
___________________________, which should be used in conjunction with an educational support program, has been proved to be effective and is available as chewing gum, inhaler, oral spray, lozenges, sublingual tablets or transdermal patches (the preferred method). Ideally the nicotine should not be used longer than 3 months
Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)
157
This oral agent has a similar effectiveness to NRT.
Bupropion (Zyban)
158
Adverse effects include insomnia and dry mouth (both common), with serious effects, such as allergic reactions and increased seizure risk.7 It is contraindicated in persons with a history of epilepsy. Recommended dose: 150 mg (o) daily for 3 days then bd for 12 weeks.
Bupropion (Zyban)
159
It is an effective agent but there are several adverse side effects, especially nausea with a concern about neuropsychiatric effects
Varenicline tartrate
160
serum _________: elevated in chronic drinkers (returns to normal with cessation of intake)
GGT
161
abnormal liver function tests (other than GGT)
alcohol
162
__________________-deficient transferrin (quite specific—dependent on an enzyme induced by alcohol)
carbohydrate
163
is a serious life-threatening withdrawal state. It has a high mortality rate if inadequately treated and hospitalisation is always necessary.
Alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens)
164
May be precipitated by intercurrent infection or trauma 1–5 days after withdrawal (usually 3–4 days) Disorientation, agitation Clouding of consciousness Marked tremor Visual hallucinations (e.g. spiders, pink elephants) Sweating, tachycardia, pyrexia Signs of dehydration
Alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens)
165
Hospitalisation with alcohol specialist advisory service Correct fluid and electrolyte imbalance with IV therapy Treat any systemic infection Thiamine (vitamin B1) 300 mg IM or IV daily for 3–5 days, then thiamine 300 mg (o) daily Diazepam 20 mg (o) every 2 hours (up to max. 100 mg daily)
Alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens)
166
Chlorpromazine is not recommended because of its potential to lower seizure threshold. Diazepam and haloperidol may worsen the symptoms of hepatic toxicity
Alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens)
167
Overdose is potentially fatal. The average lethal blood alcohol concentration is about 0.45–0.5%.
Alcohol overdose
168
``` Loss of appetite, nausea (possibly vomiting) Lacrimation/rhinorrhoea Tiredness/insomnia Muscle aches and cramps Abdominal colic Diarrhoea ```
Opioid withdrawal effects19,20
169
Maximum withdrawal symptoms | usually occur between 36 and 72 hours and tend to subside after 10 days
Opioid withdrawal effects19,20
170
Buprenorphine controlled withdrawal (short term) is used to prevent the emergence of a withdrawal syndrome
Opioid withdrawal
171
In Australia, most people with anaemia will have ___________ ranging from up to 5% for children to 20% for menstruating females
iron deficiency
172
The remainder will mainly have anaemia of ______________
chronic disorders
173
probably the best test to monitor iron-deficiency anaemia
The serum ferritin level, which is low in cases of iron-deficiency anaemia
174
DxT fatigue + palpitations + exertional dyspnoea →
anaemia
175
``` tiredness/fatigue muscle weakness headache and tinnitus lack of concentration faintness/dizziness dyspnoea on exertion palpitations angina on effort intermittent claudication pica—usually brittle and crunchy food ```
anaemia
176
inadequate diet, pregnancy, GIT loss, menorrhagia, NSAID and anticoagulant ingestion
iron deficiency
177
inadequate diet especially with pregnancy and alcoholism, small bowel disease
folate deficiency
178
``` previous gastric surgery, ileal disease or surgery, pernicious anaemia, selective diets (e.g. vegetarian, fad) ```
vitamin B12 deficiency
179
abrupt onset anaemia with mild jaundice
haemolysis
180
MCV ≤ 80 fL
microcytic
181
MCV >100 fL
macrocytic
182
MCV 80–100 fL
normocytic
183
Iron deficiency Thalassaemia Anaemia of chronic disease Sideroblastic anaemia
Microcytic (MCV < 80 fL)
184
``` Vitamin B12 deficiency Folate deficiency Myelodysplastic disorders Cytotoxic drugs Liver disease/alcoholism ```
Microcytic (MCV > 100 fL)
185
``` Kidney disease Anaemia of chronic disease Endocrine failure/hypothyroidism Haemolysis Aplastic anaemia ```
Normocytic (MCV 80–100 fL)
186
``` Microcytic anaemia Serum ferritin level low (NR: F 15–200 mcg/L: M 30–300 mcg/L) Serum iron level low Increased transferrin level Microcytic hypochromic red cells MCV ↓, MCH ↓, MCHC ↓ Reduced transferrin saturation Response to iron therapy ```
Iron-deficiency anaemia3
187
``` Angular cheilosis/stomatitis Glossitis Oesophageal webs Atrophic gastritis Brittle nails and koilonychias ```
Non-haematological effects of chronic iron deficiency
188
``` Menorrhagia Gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g. carcinoma, haemorrhoids, peptic ulcer, hiatus hernia, GORD,NSAID therapy) Frequent blood donations Malignancy Hookworm (common in tropics) ```
iron deficiency Causes1
189
Microcytic, hypochromic red cells Anisocytosis (variation in size), poikilocytosis (shape)—pencil-shaped rods Low serum iron level Raised iron-binding capacity Serum ferritin level low (the most useful index)
Haematological investigations:
190
Oral iron is continued for __________ months to replenish stores.
3 to 6
191
significant microcytosis quite out of proportion to the normal Hb or slight anaemia, and confirmed by finding a raised HbA2 on Hb electrophoresis.
diagnosis of heterozygous thalassaemia minor
192
Treatment of ______________ is transfusion to a high normal Hb with packed cells plus desferrioxamine.
thalassaemia major
193
Each individually, or in combination, leads to macrocytosis with or without anaemia
Alcohol and liver disease
194
It is usually caused by lack of intrinsic factor due to autoimmune atrophic changes and by gastrectomy
Vitamin B12 deficiency pernicious anaemia
195
is found in the normal diet but only in foods of animal origin and consequently very strict vegetarians may eventually develop deficiency.
Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
196
``` atrophic gastritis H. pylori infection H2 receptor blockers PPI drugs other drugs, e.g. OCP, metformin chronic alcoholism HIV strict vegan diet ```
Causes of food vitamin | B12 deficiency are
197
The main cause is poor intake associated with old age, poverty and malnutrition, usually associated with alcoholism. It may be seen in malabsorption and regular medication with antiepileptic drugs such as phenytoin
Folic acid deficiency
198
Oral __________5 mg/day to replenish body stores (5–10 mg). This takes about 4 weeks but continue for 4 months.
folate
199
This is the most common cause of normocytic anaemia and is usually due to haematemesis and/or melaena.
Acute haemorrhage
200
This is often associated with anaemia due to failure of erythropoietin secretion and is unresponsive to treatment
Kidney failure
201
if there is a reticulocytosis, mild macrocytosis, reduced haptoglobin, increased bilirubin and urobilinogen.
Suspect haemolytic anaemia
202
The more common of the congenital ones are hereditary spherocytosis, sickle-cell anaemia and deficiencies of the red cell enzymes, pyruvate kinase and G-6-PD, although most cases of G-6-PD deficiency haemolyse
haemolytic anaemia
203
clinical features of anaemia (Hb ↓), infection (WCC ↓) or bleeding (platelets ↓).
Aplastic anaemia
204
Diagnosis is by bone marrow examination.
Aplastic anaemia
205
_______deficiency is present in up to 10–30% of children in high-risk groups
Iron
206
High-risk groups include those infants <6 months who are premature and/or with low birthweight; toddlers 6–36 months with a diet high in cow’s milk and low in iron-containing foods
Iron deficiency in children10
207
Introduce _______-containing solids early—at 4 to 5 months, e.g. cereals, vegetables, egg and meat.
iron
208
Encourage breastfeeding and avoid cow’s milk in the first 12 months
Iron deficiency in children
209
__________ anaemia is blood-loss anaemia until proved otherwise
Iron-deficiency
210
__________ anaemia is usually due to menorrhagia or gastrointestinal loss until proved otherwise.
Blood-loss
211
Serum free tri-iodothyronine (T3) measurement and serum free thyroxine (T4) can be useful in suspected ____________
T3 toxicosis
212
TSH receptor antibodies (TR Ab):
Graves disease
213
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO Ab):
Hashimoto disease
214
Thyroglobulin antibody (Tg Ab):
Hashimoto disease
215
This is the single most cost-effective investigation in the diagnosis of thyroid nodules
Fine-needle aspiration
216
It is the | best way to assess a nodule for malignancy
Fine-needle aspiration
217
The scan may help in the differential diagnosis of thyroid nodules and in causes of hyperthyroidism.
Thyroid nuclear scan and imaging
218
A functioning nodule is said to be less likely to be malignant than a nonfunctioning nodule (cyst, colloid nodule, haemorrhage are non-functioning; carcinoma is usually non-functioning).
Thyroid nuclear scan and imaging
219
A thyroid ultrasound is usually more sensitive in the detection of thyroid nodules
Thyroid ultrasound
220
__________goitre may be diagnosed on ultrasound while the clinical impression may be that of a solitary nodule
multinodular
221
_________________ may be used particularly to determine if there is significant compression in the neck from a large multinodular goitre with retrosternal extension
CT scan of the thyroid
222
The term __________refers to the accumulation of mucopolysaccharide in subcutaneous tissues.
myxoedema
223
Transient causes include subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis and silent thyroiditis.
Hypothyroidism
224
Common causes of primary hypothyroidism include
radioactive iodine treatment, thyroid surgery | and Hashimoto thyroiditis
225
``` autoimmune disorders (e.g. autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis, rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes) ```
Hypothyroidism
226
``` cold intolerance tiredness/lethargy/somnolence physical slowing mental slowing depression huskiness of voice puffiness of face and eyes pallor loss of hair weight gain ```
Hypothyroidism
227
DxT tiredness + husky voice + cold intolerance →
myxoedema
228
``` sinus bradycardia delayed reflexes (normal muscular contraction, slow relaxation) coarse, dry and brittle hair thinning of outer third of eyebrows dry, cool skin skin pallor or yellowing obesity goitre ```
Hypothyroidism
229
________________, or lymphocytic thyroiditis, which is an autoimmune thyroiditis, is the commonest cause of bilateral non-thyrotoxic goitre in Australia
Hashimoto thyroiditis
230
bilateral goitre classically described as firm and rubbery patients may be hypothyroid or euthyroid with a possible early period of thyrotoxicosis Diagnosis is confirmed by a strongly positive antithyroid microsomal antibody (TPO Ab) titre and/or fine-needle aspiration cytology
Hashimoto thyroiditis
231
T4—subnormal | TSH—elevated (>10 is clear gland failure)
Laboratory diagnosis of hypothyroidism
232
If T4 is low and TSH is low or normal, consider pituitary dysfunction
secondary | hypothyroidism) or sick euthyroid syndrome
233
A raised TSH and T4 in normal range denotes
‘subclinical’ hypothyroidism
234
Serum cholesterol level elevated Anaemia: usually normocytic; may be macrocytic ECG: sinus bradycardia, low voltage, flat T waves
hypothyroidism
235
Confirm the diagnosis, provide appropriate patient education and refer the patient where appropriate.
hypothyroidism
236
Levothyroxine (thyroxine) 50–100 mcg daily, increasing by 25 mcg up to 100–200 mcg if required
hypothyroidism
237
Start with low doses (25–50 mcg daily) in >60 years and those with ischaemic heart disease and 50–100 mcg in others
hypothyroidism
238
Monitor TSH levels 6–8 weeks at first. As euthyroidism is achieved, monitoring may be less frequent (e.g. 2–3 months). When stable on optimum dose of T4, monitor every 2–3 years.
Thyroid medication
239
Rapid thyroxine replacement can precipitate myocardial infarction, especially in the elderly
Ischaemic heart disease
240
Continue thyroxine during pregnancy; watch for hypothyroidism (an increased dose of T4 is often required).
Pregnancy and postpartum
241
If euthyroid, can stop thyroxine for one week. If subthyroid, defer surgery until euthyroid.
Elective surgery
242
Urgent hospitalisation under specialist care is required. Intensive treatment is required, which may involve parenteral T4 or T3 as liothyronine or thyroxine by slow IV injection.
Myxoedema coma
243
This is a life-threatening emergency with coma, extreme hyperthermia, areflexia and respiratory depression. Precipitating factors include illness, infection, trauma and cold.
Myxoedema coma
244
Treatment is | supportive care, IV thyroxine or liothyronine and corticosteroids. Convert to oral T4 when stable.
Myxoedema coma
245
Misdiagnosing this serious condition leads to failure to thrive, retarded growth and poor school performance.
Neonatal hypothyroidism
246
If untreated it leads to permanent intellectual damage (cretinism).
Neonatal hypothyroidism
247
The clinical features of the newborn include coarse features, dry skin, supra-orbital oedema, jaundice, harsh cry, slow feeding and umbilical hernia
Neonatal hypothyroidism
248
It is detected by routine neonatal heel-prick blood testing
Neonatal hypothyroidism
249
Thyroxine replacement should be started as soon as possible
Neonatal hypothyroidism
250
is also relatively common and may affect up to 2% of women, who are affected four to five times more often than men
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
251
Graves disease is the most common | cause, followed closely by nodular thyroid disease
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
252
Autonomous functioning nodules/toxic adenoma
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
253
Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis)—viral origin
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
254
Excessive intake of thyroid hormones—thyrotoxicosis factitia
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
255
Heat intolerance Sweating of hands Muscle weakness Weight loss despite normal or increased appetite Emotional lability, especially anxiety, irritability Palpitations Frequent loose bowel motions
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
256
DxT anxiety + weight loss + weakness →
thyrotoxicosis
257
``` agitated, restless patient warm and sweaty hands fine tremor (place paper on hands) goitre proximal myopathy hyperactive reflexes bounding peripheral pulse ± atrial fibrillation ```
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
258
Lid retraction (small area of sclera seen above iris) Lid lag Exophthalmos Ophthalmoplegia in severe cases
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
259
T4 (and T3) elevated TSH level suppressed Radioisotope scan Antithyroid peroxidase (TPO Ab)—often positive
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
260
The isotope scan enables a diagnosis of Graves disease to be made when the scan shows uniform increased uptake
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
261
Increased irregular uptake would suggest a toxic multinodular goitre, while there is poor or no uptake with de Quervain thyroiditis and thyrotoxicosis factitia
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
262
Establish the precise cause before initiating treatment. Refer to an endocrinologist to guide treatment. Educate patients and emphasise the possibility of development of recurrent hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism and the need for lifelong monitoring. Monitor for cardiovascular complications, osteoporosis and eye problems
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
263
Radioactive iodine therapy (131I) Thionamide antithyroid drugs (initial doses) carbimazole 10–45 mg (o) daily starting with 10–20 mg in divided doses depending on disease activity or propylthiouracil 200–600 mg (o) daily in divided doses or methimazole
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
264
Adjunctive drugs beta blockers (for symptoms in acute florid phase, e.g. propranolol 10–40 mg, 6 to 8 hourly); diltiazem or atenolol are alternatives lithium carbonate (rarely used when there is intolerance to thionamides) Lugol’s iodine: mainly used prior to surgery Surgery
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
265
Younger patients with small goitres and mild case—18-month course antithyroid drugs
Treatment (Graves disease)
266
Large goitres or moderate-to-severe cases—antithyroid drugs until euthyroid, then surgery or
Treatment (Graves disease)
267
Control hyperthyroidism with antithyroid drugs, then surgery or 131I. Long-term remissions on antithyroid drugs in a toxic nodular goitre are rare.
Treatment (Graves disease)
268
Because there is chance of hematoma, so I think we should remove the ___________first
staples
269
Hypertension with hypokalemia Could be primary hyper aldosteronism or secondary hyper aldosteronism Primary is ___________ in which renin is decreased and 2’o is RTA in which renin is increased
conn’s synd
270
aldosterone is elevated. But doing plasma __________level will differentiate between primary hyperaldosteronism and renal artery stenosis.
renin
271
hyperaldosteronism, initial inx should be plasma ____________
aldosterone/renin ratio
272
________________ is the treatment of choice in any woman with Graves disease planning pregnancy or in the first trimester as carbimazole is associated with a rare embryopathy.
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
273
In the second and third trimesters, switching to ________________has been suggested due to the risk of fulminant hepatitis with PTU
carbimazole
274
_____________ with hypokalemic myopathy
Conn disease
275
Presence of High Bp and Hypokalemia
Conn's disease
276
Initial and best plasma free _____________then urinary VMA
metanephrin
277
next -24 hour urinary metanephrines | Best - plasma metanephrines
pheochromocytoma
278
____________goiter is most common
Multinodular
279
on __________If GH not suppressed: this confirmes acromegaly
OGTT
280
conduct pituitary MRI to determine the source of _______________ later.
excess GH
281
the best initial test is level of IGF-1, most accurate is glucose suppression test .
acromegaly
282
but it's was mentioned in class to increase the dose by 1.5 times
Pregnant woman with hypothyroidism
283
Wermer’s syndrome Pitiuitary tumor Parathyroid adenoma Pancreas( gastrinoma, vipnoma, insulinoma)
Men1
284
is the most accurate test for acromegaly, but initial inx for acromegaly is IGF-1
Oral glucose tolerance
285
The best would be treating by __________________ and defer her pregnancy till cure which usually takes 6 months
radio active iodine
286
Primary hyperparathyroidism Most common cause parathyroid adenoma Next common cause _________________
parathyroid hyperplasia
287
first, then USG or radioactive thyroid scan depends on the TSH level
Thyroid function test
288
Pt has ___________blood culture | Best is duplex Doppler
fever
289
history of DVT, rule out DVT first; it can also be cellulitis, but even it's cellulitis, blood culture is very limited and not routinely performed cuz ____________________
the positive rate is very low
290
-1.5-2.5 score
osteopenia | Ca and vit d
291
Hypothyroidism. Most common cause _________________
hashimoto
292
Most common ca is papillary but in this case as tsh is high it means it’s hypo and hushimoto is most common in hypothyroidism leading to ____________
goitre
293
here ACTH is releasing due to secondary cause, paraneoplastic syndrome vaiya, secreting Ectopic ACTH which is stimulating melanocyte (cause adrenal gland is fine itself) and causing _______________.
pigmentation
294
If zolendronic is in options that would be more gud one as __________is no more used
strontium
295
cant give alendronate as gerd.and not HRT and ca,vit D as already _____________
osteoporosis
296
Here pt has got GERD , so we can’t choose (A) Alendronate because it causes / aggravates ____________
oesophagitis
297
When you don’t find out the exact cause of bleeding, go for _____________
capsule endoscopy
298
amedex says in overt bleeding: melana, hematochezia, blood loss go for _______________
CT ANGIOGRAPHY
299
Occult bleeding : iron deficiency anemia and +fecal occlude blood test go for ____________
capsule
300
Capsule endo when __________positive
FOBt
301
100% sc as the cord was involved , we just wait cuz all theatres are busy ,, always cord involved means ________
SC
302
first give magnesium till you find a theatre then deliver by SC ,, the next after _________is SC
magnesium
303
Non specific back pain caused by lifting weights. Encourage activity and analgesics. ________________ here so no imaging is warranted
No red flags
304
Imaging is done if there are red flags e.g ________________ or cancer etc
neurological deficits
305
____________for pain and encourage normal activity
Analgesics
306
Nsaids not given in someone with _____________
nephropathy
307
Allopurinol is not started in acute gout. But if the patient has an acute attack of gout while on allopurinol, we can continue the drug. But ________________ will not help with the pain or the swelling.
increasing the dose
308
no change of dose of allupurinol during a cute stage , we can increase the dose of allupurionol to prevent _______________ not during the attack
acute attack
309
Acute episode + nephropathy
Steroid
310
dose of allopurinol should not be changed in acute attack._____________ u can
once it settles
311
Acute gout- ___________contraindicated
allopurinol
312
Acute on top chronic gout in impaired renal | answer : ___________> D
steroid
313
In patients with tumors less than 1 cm located in the appendix, ____________is the treatment of choice.
appendectomy
314
_____________________ is indicated for tumors larger than 2 cm, lymphatic invasion, lymph node involvement
More extensive surgery
315
Radiculopathy with no red flag signs, so advice simple _____________and review in 1-2 wk
analgesics
316
Bilateral loss of pain and sensation and hx of trauma favours ________________
syringomyelia
317
____________common in obese young females
Pseudomotor
318
MS . hence _______is the investigation
MRI
319
Mnd there will be no ___________
numbness
320
``` If inr less than 4.5 __ reduce or skip next dose of warfarin # if inr more than ______ __ *stop dose of warfarin. *Check inr after 24 hrs. *Resume warfarin at reduced dose depending on results. ```
4.5
321
Upon commencing antidepressants, patients with bipolar disorder should be closely monitored for symptoms of mania, and if these emerge then antidepressant therapy should be ______________.
discontinued
322
________ infarct will have effect on upper limb and face | And it won’t cause dysphagia and dysarthria rather will cause aphasia due to broca’s and wernicke’s
Mca
323
excluded as dysarthria does not occur with MCA infarction ___________occurs.
Dysphasia
324
_____________________.as both upper and lower motor neuron lesion sign is present
amyotropic lateral sclerosis
325
_________but ALS diagnosis is clinical
EMG
326
___________________ supportive only, if hs than add acyclovir
viral meningitis
327
supportive for viral meningitis, if it's caused by herpes, then add ____________
aciclovir
328
history of infection, now presenting headache, fever, neuro focal symptoms, suspect _____________
brain abscess
329
________ presents with ascending bilateral weakness
GBS
330
Brain tumor will represent more features of raised icp over long period of time without ______________
fever
331
Pneumonia— _______cough sputum
fever
332
In ______________there is fever headache raised icp low immune
abscess
333
Eye opening to pain=2 Withdraws from pain=________ Incomprehensible sound=2
4
334
If patient is in ER we place a transcutaneous pacemaker, and refer to cardiology unit for ___________________________
permanent pacemaker placement.
335
Monte & ______ are preventors against its pathology
SCG
336
Depends upon age of pt if less than 5 _sodium cromiglycate | If 5 or more -______________
inhaled corticosteroids
337
Presbyacusis... sensorial neural deafness.. bilateral...in ______________ its unilateral
acoustic neuroma
338
First reduce displacement, then __________
wound debridement
339
bulging fontanelle is ___________for LP
contraindicated
340
LP is _____________in raised ICP
contraindicated
341
Hyperthyroidism is usually transient for 1–2 months, and follows a surge of thyroxine after a viral-type illness, then followed by hypothyroidism for 4–6 months.
Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis)
342
Symptoms include pain | and/or tenderness over the goitre (especially on swallowing), fever, ESR elevated,
Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis
343
Release of thyroid hormone from autoimmune destruction of thyroid
Painless postpartum thyroiditis
344
Treat with beta blockers for symptoms and thyroxine for | hypothyroid phase.
Painless postpartum thyroiditis
345
Clinical features are marked anxiety, weight loss, weakness, proximal muscle weakness, hyperpyrexia, tachycardia (>150 per minute), heart failure and arrhythmias
Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm)
346
It requires urgent intensive hospital management with antithyroid drugs; IV saline infusion, IV corticosteroids, anti-heart failure and antiarrhythmia therapy, especially beta blockers.
Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm)
347
Thyroid enlargement may be diffuse or multinodular.
Goitre
348
Diffuse causes include physiological, | Graves disease, thyroiditis (Hashimoto or de Quervain), iodine deficiency or it can be hereditary.
Goitre
349
Investigations include TFTs, needle biopsy, ultrasound and CXR.
Goitre
350
defined as a discrete lesion on palpation and/or ultrasonography that is distinct from the rest of the thyroid gland.
A thyroid nodule
351
True solitary nodule: adenoma, carcinoma (papillary or follicular)
Thyroid nodules
352
Ultrasound imaging Fine-needle aspiration cytology Thyroid function tests
Thyroid nodules
353
The main presentations are a painless nodule, a hard nodule in an enlarged gland or lymphadenopathy. Papillary carcinoma is the most common malignancy
Thyroid carcinoma8
354
This often involves total thyroidectomy, ablative 131I treatment, thyroxine replacement and follow-up with serum thyroglobulin measurements, 131I/thallium scanning and neck ultrasound. Fine-needle aspiration is the investigation of choice.
Thyroid carcinoma8
355
Fine-needle aspiration is the investigation of choice
Thyroid carcinoma
356
These account for 10% of intracranial tumours and are invariably benign adenomas
Pituitary tumours
357
They can present with hormone deficiencies, features of hypersecretory syndromes (e.g. prolactin, GH, ACTH) or by local tumour mass symptoms (e.g. headache, visual field loss, seizures, cranial nerve 3, 4, 6 palsy).
Pituitary tumours
358
The main causes (of many) are a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma; micro- or macro), pituitary stalk damage, drugs—such as antipsychotics, various antidepressants, metoclopramide, cimetidine, oestrogens, opiates, marijuana—and physiological causes such as pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Hyperprolactinaemia11
359
Symptoms common to males and females: reduced libido, subfertility, galactorrhoea (mainly females)
Hyperprolactinaemia
360
Females: amenorrhoea/oligomenorrhoea Males: erectile dysfunction, reduced facial hair
Hyperprolactinaemia
361
Serum prolactin and macroprolactin assays
Hyperprolactinaemia
362
Refer for management, which may include a dopamine agonist such as cabergoline or bromocriptine, surgical resection (rarely necessary) or radiotherapy.
Hyperprolactinaemia
363
excessive growth of hands (increased glove size) excessive growth of tissues (e.g. nose, lips, face) excessive growth of feet (increased shoe size) increased size of jaw and tongue; kyphosis
Acromegaly
364
``` general: weakness, sweating, headaches sexual changes, including amenorrhoea and loss of libido disruptive snoring (sleep apnoea) ```
Acromegaly
365
DxT nasal problems + fitting problems (e.g. rings, shoes) + sweating →
acromegaly
366
Plasma growth hormone excess Elevated insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) (somatomedin)—the key test X-ray skull and hands MRI scanning pituitary
acromegaly
367
Consider associated impaired glucose tolerance/diabetes Obtain old photographs (if possible). Treatment options: transsphenoidal pituitary microsurgery, drugs and radiotherapy.
acromegaly
368
Impaired secretion of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) from the posterior pituitary leads to polyuria, nocturia and compensatory polydipsia, resulting in the passage of 3–20 L of dilute urine per day.
diabetes insipidus
369
There are several causes of ________________, the commonest being postoperative (hypothalamic-pituitary), which is usually transient only. Other causes of cranial DI include tumours, infections and infiltrations
diabetes insipidus (DI)
370
In nephrogenic DI the kidney tubules are | insensitive to _____________.
vasopressin
371
_____________________________is caused by cancer (e.g. lung, lymphomas, kidney, pancreas), pulmonary disorders, various intracranial lesions and drugs such as carbamazepine and many antipsychotic agents
The syndrome of secretion of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
372
Management of | SIADH is essentially ______________
fluid restriction
373
The treatment of _____ is desmopressin, usually given twice daily intranasally
DI
374
DxT weakness + polyuria + polydipsia →
diabetes insipidus
375
a history of postpartum haemorrhage or head injury symptoms of hypothyroidism symptoms of adrenal insufficiency symptoms suggestive of a pituitary tumour thin, wrinkled skin: ‘monkey face’ pale ‘alabaster’ skin/hairlessness
Hypopituitarism
376
Causes: pituitary adenoma, other parasellar tumours and inflammatory/infiltrative lesions.
Hypopituitarism
377
DxT (female): amenorrhoea + loss of axillary and pubic hair + breast atrophy →
hypopituitarism
378
DxT (male): ↓ libido + impotence + loss of body hair →
hypopituitarism
379
Investigate with serum pituitary hormones, imaging (MRI) and triple stimulation test.
hypopituitarism
380
Treatment includes HRT, surgery or radiotherapy.
hypopituitarism
381
Zona ___________—mineral corticoids, especially aldosterone
glomerulosa
382
Zona ____________—glucocorticoids
fasciculata
383
Zona ____________—androgens, especially DHEA
reticularis
384
Catecholamines—epinepherine, norepinephrine
Medulla
385
deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone
chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)—
386
cortisol excess
Cushing syndrome
387
Autoimmune destruction of the adrenals is the most common cause; others are infection, e.g. TB or fungal.
Addison disease
388
Lethargy/excessive fatigue/weakness Anorexia and nausea Diarrhoea/abdominal pain Weight loss Dizziness/funny turns, syncope: hypoglycaemia (rare); postural hypotension (common) Hyperpigmentation, especially mucous membranes of mouth and hard palate, skin creases of hands
Addison disease
389
remains undiagnosed, wasting leading to death may occur. Severe dehydration can be a feature.
Addison disease
390
DxT fatigue + a/n/v + abdominal pain (± skin discolouration)→
Addison | disease
391
Elevated serum potassium, low serum sodium Low plasma cortisol level (fails to respond to synthetic adrenocorticotropic hormone [ACTH]) The short synacthen stimulation test is the definitive test Consider adrenal autoantibodies and imaging? calcification of adrenals
Addison | disease
392
Treatment: corticosteroid replacement—hydrocortisone/fludrocortisone acetate, other options
Addison | disease
393
Age is important Old age cystoscopy And usg done according to protocol ua should be done prior __________
usg
394
An ________________ develops because of an inability to increase cortisol in response to stress, which may include intercurrent infection, surgery or trauma.
Addisonian crisis
395
Nausea and vomiting Acute abdominal pain Severe hypotension progressing to shock Weakness, drowsiness progressing to coma
Addisonian crisis
396
Establish IV line with IV fluids Hydrocortisone sodium succinate 100 mg IV initially and 50–100 mg 4–6 hourly until stable Arrange urgent hospital admission
Addisonian crisis
397
iatrogenic—chronic corticosteroid administration pituitary ACTH excess (Cushing disease) bilateral adrenal hyperplasia adrenal tumour (adenoma, adenocarcinoma) ectopic ACTH or (rarely) corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) from non-endocrine tumours (e.g. oat cell carcinoma of lung) The clinical features are caused by the effects of excess cortisol and/or adrenal androgens
Cushing syndrome8
398
``` Proximal muscle wasting and weakness Central obesity, buffalo hump on neck Cushing facies: plethora, moon face, acne Weakness Hirsutism Abdominal striae Thin skin, easy bruising Hypertension Hyperglycaemia (30%) Menstrual changes (e.g. amenorrhoea) Osteoporosis Psychiatric changes ```
Cushing syndrome8
399
DxT plethoric moon face + thin extremities + muscle weakness →
Cushing syndrome
400
Cortisol excess (plasma or 24-hour urinary cortisol) Dexamethasone suppression test Late night salivary cortisol (2 measurements) Inferior petrosal sinus sampling Serum ACTH Radiological localisation: MRI for ACTH-producing pituitary tumours; CT scanning for adrenal tumours
Cushing syndrome
401
transsphenoidal excision of pituitary tumour. Pharmacological blockade of corticosteroid production may be necessary, ketoconazole (o) is first line.
Cushing syndrome
402
Most commonly due to an adrenal adenoma.
Primary hyperaldosteronism
403
Usually asymptomatic and hypertensive but any symptoms are features of hypokalaemia
Conn syndrome
404
``` weakness, headaches palpitations cramps paraesthesia polyuria and polydipsia ```
Conn syndrome
405
``` Aldosterone (serum and urine) ↑ Plasma renin ↓ Plasma aldosterone to renin activity ratio Na ↑, K ↓, alkalosis Imaging (MRI or CT scan) of adrenals ```
Conn syndrome
406
Refer for treatment including possible surgery to excise adenoma. prepare for surgery.
Conn syndrome
407
``` A dangerous tumour of the adrenal medulla. Clinical features are paroxysms or spells of: anxiety hypertension headache (throbbing); tremor sweating palpitations pallor/skin blanching rising sensation of tightness in upper chest and throat (angina can occur) ```
Phaeochromocytoma
408
DxT episodic headache + sweating + tachycardia →
phaeochromocytoma
409
Series of three 24-hour free catecholamines ↑ VMA | Abdominal CT or MRI scan (both highly sensitive)
phaeochromocytoma
410
Excise tumour, cover with alpha and beta blockers
phaeochromocytoma
411
condition with 21-hydroxylase deficiency being the most common of several forms.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital | syndrome)6,8
412
There is inadequate synthesis of cortisol and aldosterone with increased androgenisation
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital | syndrome)
413
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital | syndrome)
may present with failure to thrive or vomiting and | dehydration (SLS)
414
Most of those detected by abdominal imaging are benign and termed ‘incidentalomas’ but serious tumours include adrenal carcinoma, phaeochromocytoma, neuroblastoma, glucocorticoid or a mineralocorticoid secreting tumour.
Adrenal tumours
415
Rule: tumours >4 cm require thorough assessment as malignant tumours are large. Excision is usually advisable.
Adrenal tumours9
416
These are adrenal tumours ≥1 cm. Most are benign and non-functioning. An important issue is malignancy, and if this is the case, whether it is primary, secondary or functional (hormone secreting).
Incidentalomas
417
Investigations to consider include electrolytes, aldosterone/renin ratio, catecholamines, testosterone, DHEAs, dexamethasone suppression test, CT scan. Surgical excision should be considered under specialist guidance.
Incidentalomas
418
Suspect hypercalcaemia if there is weakness, tiredness, malaise, anorexia, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, loin pain, constipation, thirst, fever, polyuria, drowsiness, dizziness, personality changes, muscle aches and pains, visual disturbances
Hypercalcaemia
419
Measure urea and electrolytes (especially | calcium), creatinine, albumin.
Hypercalcaemia
420
Primary hyperparathyroidism, familial hypercalciuric hypercalcaemia and neoplasia, especially carcinoma of lung and breast (with metastases to bone), account for over 90% of cases.
Hypercalcaemia
421
Other causes include Paget disease, Williams syndrome, prolonged immobilisation, dehydration, sarcoidosis and milk-alkali syndrome.
Hypercalcaemia
422
Investigations include ESR, serum parathyroid hormone (N: 1.0–7 pmol/L), serum ACE levels, serum alkaline phosphatase, chest X-ray, Sestamibi scan and bone scan. Requires specialist referral.
Hypercalcaemia
423
DxT weakness + constipation + polyuria →
Hypercalcaemia
424
DxT cramps + confusion + tetany →
hypocalcaemia
425
is caused by an excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone and is usually due to a parathyroid adenoma.
Primary hyperparathyroidism
426
Classic mnemonic: bones, moans, stones, abdominal groans
Primary hyperparathyroidism
427
Exclusion of other causes of hypercalcaemia Serum parathyroid hormone (elevated) TC-99m Sestamibi scan to detect tumour
Primary hyperparathyroidism
428
Refer for possible surgical management
Primary hyperparathyroidism
429
Most appropriate is sputum for _________
AFB
430
______ is for latent TB
IGRA
431
next _____________ ,most appropriate sputum culture
chest x ray
432
dx NSTEMI with AF (which has occured as a complication of MI) ____________will help to deal with both NSTEMI and AF(due to non valvular lesion)
Antiplatelet
433
Inverted T wave means _______
PE
434
Causes include parathyroid injury, autoimmune hyperparathyroidism, severe vitamin D deficiency and neonates of mothers with hypercalcaemia.
Hypocalcaemia
435
This usually presents with tetany or | more generalised neuromuscular hyperexcitability and neuropsychiatric manifestations
Hypocalcaemia
436
The sensory equivalents are paraesthesia in the hands, feet and around the mouth (distinguish from tetany seen in the respiratory alkalosis of hyperventilation).
Hypocalcaemia
437
There may be seizures and cramps. The diagnosis is by measurement of serum total calcium concentration in relation to serum albumin (s. calcium <2.10 mmol/L).
Hypocalcaemia
438
Two important signs are: Trousseau sign: occlusion of the brachial artery with BP cuff precipitates carpopedal spasm (wrist flexion and fingers drawn together) Chvostek sign: tapping over parotid (facial nerve) causes twitching in facial muscles
Hypocalcaemia
439
Treatment involves careful adjustments in dosage of calcitriol and calcium to correct hypocalcaemia and avoid hypercalcaemia and hypercalciuria (the latter may lead to kidney impairment).
Hypocalcaemia
440
is the most common cause of hypocalcaemia. Causes include postoperative thyroidectomy and parathyroidectomy, congenital deficiency (DiGeorge syndrome) and idiopathic (autoimmune) hypoparathyroidism.
Hypoparathyroidism
441
The main features are neuromuscular | hyperexcitability, tetany and neuropsychiatric manifestations.
Hypoparathyroidism
442
Water depletion (e.g. diabetes insipidus) Water and sodium depletion (e.g. diarrhoea) Corticosteroid excess (e.g. Cushing syndrome, Conn syndrome) Iatrogenic: excess IV hypertonic Na solutions
Hypernatraemia Na+ >145 mmol/L
443
Thirst, confusion, lethargy, weakness, irritability, oliguria Orthostatic hypotension Muscle twitching or cramps Signs of dehydration Severe: seizures, delirium, hyperthermia, coma
Hypernatraemia Na+ >145 mmol/L
444
Water retention (e.g. CCF, hypoalbuminaemia) Kidney failure to conserve salt (e.g. nephritis, diabetes mellitus, Addison disease) Gastrointestinal loss of Na+ (e.g. vomiting, diarrhoea) Drugs (e.g. diuretic excess, ACE inhibitors)
Hyponatraemia Na+ <135 mmol/L
445
Asymptomatic when mild Anorexia, nausea, lethargy, confusion, headache, ataxia, mental changes (e.g. in personality) Severe: convulsions, coma, death
Hyponatraemia Na+ <135 mmol/L
446
The first sign of ________________ (e.g. >6) may be a cardiac arrest. A medical emergency if >6.5.
hyperkalaemia
447
Oliguria, kidney failure Acidosis (especially metabolic) Mineralocorticoid deficiency: Addison disease, aldosterone antagonists Excessive intake of K+ (e.g. IV fluids with K) Drugs (e.g. ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, suxamethonium) Consider artefact, e.g. haemolysed sample
Hyperkalaemia K+ >5.5 mmol/L
448
Malaise, muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis (rare) May be asymptomatic until cardiac toxicity May cause cardiac arrest—asystole or fibrillation ECG: peaked T waves, ↓ QT, ↑ PR interval → arrhythmias
Hyperkalaemia K+ >5.5 mmol/L
449
If <2.5 severe symptoms, seek urgent attention.
Hypokalaemia K+ <3.5 mmol/L
450
Kidney disease Gastrointestinal loss: vomiting, diarrhoea Alkalosis Mineralocorticoid excess Loss of extracellular fluid to intracellular (e.g. burns, other trauma, pyloric stenosis) Drugs (e.g. diuretics: frusemide, thiazides), purgatives, liquorice abuse Reduced intake of K+
Hypokalaemia K+ <3.5 mmol/L
451
Lethargy, muscle weakness and cramps, mental lethargy and confusion Severe flaccid paralysis, tetany, coma ECG: prominent U waves, depressed ST segment, T waves, arrhythmias
Hypokalaemia K+ <3.5 mmol/L
452
``` neck pain neck stiffness headache ‘migraine’-like headache facial pain arm pain (referred or radicular) myelopathy (sensory and motor changes in arms and legs) ipsilateral sensory changes of scalp ear pain (peri-auricular) scapular pain anterior chest pain torticollis dizziness/vertigo visual dysfunction ```
Clinical problems of cervical spinal origin
453
The most common pathogens are the bacteria Escherichia coli (E. coli), Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Proteus, Klebsiella and Enterococcus spp.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
454
Of great concern is the | worldwide emergence of multidrug-resistant strains of E. coli.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
455
The morbidity of urinary infections in both children and adults is well known but it is vital to recognise the potential for progressive kidney damage, ending in chronic kidney failure.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
456
The main task in the prevention of chronic pyelonephritis is the early identification of patients with additional factors, such as reflux or obstruction, which could lead to progressive kidney damage.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
457
frequency, dysuria and | loin pain.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
458
Screening of asymptomatic women has shown that about 5% have bacterial UTI.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
459
UTIs are largely caused by organisms from the bowel that colonise the perineum and reach the bladder via the urethra.
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
460
In many young women, infections are | precipitated by sexual intercourse. Ascending infection accounts for 93% of UTIs
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
461
Always consider any family history of urinary tract abnormalities
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
462
Infants less than 6 months old with a UTI have a significant risk of bacteraemia
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
463
Female sex Sexual intercourse Diabetes mellitus Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) Urinary tract obstruction/malformation/stricture Pregnancy Immunosuppression Menopause Diaphragm contraception or spermicidal exposure Instrumentation Bladder polyps, carcinoma, diverticula, stones
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
464
Sterile pyuria
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
465
contamination of poorly collected urine specimens urinary infections being treated by antibiotics, i.e. inadequately treated infections genital infections (e.g. chlamydia urethritis) analgesic nephropathy staghorn calculi other kidney disorders (e.g. polycystic kidney) bladder tumours tuberculosis chemical cystitis (e.g. cytotoxic therapy) appendicitis
Sterile pyuria
466
This is defined as the presence of a significant growth of bacteria in the urine (concentration >108 colony forming units/L), which has not produced symptoms requiring consultation
Asymptomatic bacteriuria
467
pregnant women because of the risk of pyelonephritis and pregnancy complications (see CHAPTER 100 ) patients before elective urological procedures (e.g. TURP)
Asymptomatic bacteriuria
468
the presence of frequency, dysuria and loin pain alone or in combination, together with a significant growth of organisms on urine culture
symptomatic bacteriuria
469
If not pregnant —-> xray pelvis | If pregnant —>_____
usg
470
debridement comes first then ________
reduction
471
______________are teratogenic we avoid in young age
Bisphosphonate
472
ok that means no bisphosphonates before __________________
menupause
473
reproductive age group avoid ____
BSP
474
Always correct __________ before bispoh
vit d
475
First correct vit D, then _________
alendronate
476
Tophaceous gout ....________
prednisolone
477
Pt. is already on Aspirin prophylaxis and developed stroke. CEA is recommended in symptomatic stenosis of >50% and asymptomatic stenosis of __________
>70%.
478
In alcohol aST to alt ratio _____
2:1
479
temperature is 38, child’s age is 4. It could be perthes tenosynovitis or septic arthritis based on age, I chose septic arthritis coz of ___________
fever
480
______________ in stable Abdominal trauma
CT abdomen
481
fever and ryt iliac fossa pain >__________
abscess
482
In a case of infertility,always do ________analysis first
semen
483
Diagnosis here is ________if timolol and pilocarpine in option will choose that from these options
galucoma
484
Suspend breast feeding for 24 hour than checkin __________
bilirubin
485
If conjugated bilirubin is >10% of total bilirubin from the options given its ____________
Biliary atresia
486
If we stop warfarin or giving vit K it will take about ___days time
4
487
if emergency Sx give ffp/prothrombin concetrate (B)...if Sx can be delayed above method of stopping or reversing the action of effect of ________________
anticoagulant
488
apple core lesion is significant for colon ca here patient having obstructive symptoms so if no options of Prothrombin then we will go with ____
ffp
489
symptoms of acute abdomen, so we will do __________ASAP
intervention
490
if history of snake bite present and even no fangs sign present utill unless always consider snake is poisonus so reffer to _________________
tertitory hospital
491
yes dont give ____________untill collapse aur cardiac arrest inr more than 1.3 opthalmoplegia aur paralysis events
antivenom
492
___________to find out gross hematuria cause
Cystoscopy
493
gross haematuria in less than 55 yrs initial ________then CT scan to rule out renal CA..
UA
494
gross hematuria in middle aged ,initial ure then ____to rule out rcc
ct
495
investigation for ______________ should be done frst as chest pain and travel h/o are present
pul. Embolism
496
early syphilis-benz penicilin single dose IM, or doxycyline incase of pen allergy. should contact all sexual partners in past 3 month. ________________ at 3 months, 3 monthly
repeat serology
497
Asymptomatic pts with more than 70% stenosis have modest risk and should be treated ____________
conservatively
498
carotid endarterectomy indicated when stenosis is __________ with symptoms.
75%
499
Sjogren > mx is supportive complaint for this pt is dry eyes so C . ______________
artificial eye drop
500
_________for mild pneumonia in children
Amox
501
after excluding adjustment disorder- major stress or absent, autism excluded coz- _____________.
speech normal
502
Post operative confusion,always think about hypoxia 1st.so pulse oxymetry.__________ should be more appropriate
ABG
503
because warfarin should be stopped _____________ before elective surgry
4-5 days
504
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy-develop in late pregnancy ,no rash ,worse itching at night,____________typically develops 1-4 weeks after onset of pruritus
jaundice
505
Scabies must have burrows | Pruritus in 3rd trimester goes in favour of ______________
cholestasis of pregnancy
506
zolendronic acid is generally _____
iv
507
______________( a common side effect after covid vaccine) especially in below 50 yrs and younger age groups.
myocarditis
508
_______________ can elevated in PE and myocarditis
Troponin
509
no fetal heart sounds, so to deliver the dead baby-do ___________
amniotomy
510
apple core appearance _________
CA colon
511
IV antibiotics ( for all infants below 3 months).
Urinary tract infection
512
Iv antibiotics then Usg
urinary tract infection (UTI) in young children
513
paroxetine contraindicated in ___________
pregnancy
514
Patient takung ACEI since long withiut any angioneurosis .... & amoxycillin since 2 days &s/s after amoxy angioneuresis appeared ...so I will blame ___________
Amoxy
515
Polymyalgia Rheumatica with Giantcell arteritis. | __________would be better as next step.
ESR
516
____________because its excercise induced asthma, Ref JM 7the edition, still check the latest 8th edition once
salbutamol
517
initially SABA given , if not working than we choose __________
SCG or ICS
518
it shuld be ______________coin like apperaence is due to hypercalcemia leads to calcification which causes coin like asralra are present due to pul htn whixh is present in all others so b
sarcidiosis
519
Inflammation of the bladder and/or urethra is associated with dysuria (pain or scalding with micturition) and/or urinary frequency
Acute cystitis (dysuria-frequency syndrome)
520
Acute bacterial infection of the kidney produces loin pain and constitutional upset, with fever, rigors, nausea and sometimes vomiting
Acute pyelonephritis1
521
The symptoms of acute cystitis are often also present. The differential diagnosis includes causes of the acute abdomen, such as appendicitis, cholecystitis and acute tubal or ovarian diseases. The presence of pyuria and absence of rebound tenderness are helpful in distinction.
Acute pyelonephritis1
522
This is cystitis occurring in the uninstrumented non-pregnant female without structural or neurological abnormalities. Acute infection is most commonly caused by E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Uncomplicated urinary tract infection
523
This is associated with anatomical or functional abnormalities (e.g. diabetes, urinary calculi) that increase the risk of serious complications or treatment failure.
Complicated urinary tract infection5
524
The laboratory diagnosis of ___________ depends on careful collection, examination and culture of urine
UTI
525
It is not mandatory for non-pregnant | women with suspected cystitis when empirical treatment may be appropriate.
The laboratory diagnosis of UTI
526
It is best to collect the first urine passed in the morning, when it is highly concentrated and any bacteria have been incubated in the bladder overnight
Collection of urine1
527
Preferably the urine should be taken to the laboratory immediately, but it can be stored for up to 24 hours at 4°C to prevent bacterial multiplication.
Collection of urine1
528
Clean catch midstream specimen of urine (MSU). This is best collected from a full bladder, to allow at least 100 mL of urine to be passed before collection of the MSU
Collection of urine1
529
Catheter specimen of urine (CSU). In women who have difficulty with collecting an uncontaminated MSU (as is commonly the case in the elderly, the infirm and the grossly obese), a short open-ended catheter can be inserted and a specimen collected after 200 mL has flushed the catheter.
Collection of urine1
530
Suprapubic aspirate of urine (SPA). This is an extremely reliable way to detect bacteriuria in neonates and in patients where UTI is suspected but cannot be confirmed because of low colony counts or contamination in an MSU.
Collection of urine
531
All children with a UTI require a urine specimen. It is diagnosed by significant growth on MSU, CSU, MCC or SPA.
Urine specimen collection in children
532
____________ of urinary leucocytes or nitrite are suggestive of UTI and may be an indication for empirical treatment if symptomatic
Dipstick findings
533
The urine is examined under a microscope to detect pyuria (more than 10 pus cells—WBCs—per high-powered field) but should be examined in a counting chamber to calculate the number of WBCs/mL of urine.
Microscopic examination
534
The nature and number of organisms present in the urine are the most useful indicators of UTI
Culture of the urine
535
Most common are enteric organisms. E. coli (especially) and Staphylococcus saprophyticus are responsible for over 90% of UTIs, with other Gram-negative organisms (Klebsiella sp. and Proteus sp.), Enterococcus sp. and Gram-positive cocci (Streptococcus faecalis and other staphylococci) also responsible.
Culture of the urine
536
Infections due to organisms other than E. coli (e.g. Pseudomonas sp.) are suggestive of an underlying kidney tract abnormality.
Culture of the urine
537
If >105 colony forming units (cfu) per mL of bacteria are present in an MSU, it is highly likely that the patient has a UTI.
Culture of the urine
538
On the other hand, it is most important to realise that up to 30% of women with acute bacterial cystitis have less than 105 cfu/mL in the MSU. For this reason, it is reasonable to treat women with dysuria and frequency even if they have <105 cfu/mL of organisms in an MSU
Culture of the urine
539
Significant levels for UTI: Microscopy: WBC >10 per mL (10 × 106/L) Culture: counts >105 cfu/mL (108/L)
Summary: MCU (microscopy and culture urine)
540
Keep yourself rested. Drink a lot of fluid: 2–3 cups of water at first and then 1 cup every 30 minutes. Try to empty your bladder completely each time. Use analgesics such as paracetamol for pain. Make the urine alkaline by taking sodium citrotartrate (4 g orally 6 hourly)—not if taking nitrofurantoin.
Acute uncomplicated cystitis
541
``` Urine dipstick Urine microscopy and culture First-line antibiotics—trimethoprim or cephalexin Alkaliniser for severe dysuria High fluid intake Check sensitivity—leave or change ABs ```
UTI: basic management
542
Use for 10 days in women with known urinary tract abnormality: trimethoprim 300 mg (o) daily for 3 days (first choice) or cephalexin 500 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days or amoxicillin + clavulanate 500/125 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days or nitrofurantoin 100 mg (o) 6 hourly for 5 days or norfloxacin 400 mg (o) 12 hourly for 3 days (if resistance to above agents proven and if susceptible, Caution about tendinopathy and tendon rupture.) No follow-up is required if women remain asymptomatic after treatment
Treatment (non-pregnant women)3,7
543
Avoid using important quinolones—norfloxacin or ciprofloxacin—as first-line agents. Cotrimoxazole is not first line because it has no advantage over trimethoprim and has more side effects. Treatment failures are usually due to a resistant organism or an underlying
Treatment (non-pregnant women)3,7
544
Treatment of acute cystitis (empirical): cephalexin 500 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days or nitrofurantoin 100 mg (o) 6 hourly for 5 days or amoxicillin + clavulanate 500/125 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days Repeat MCU 1--2 weeks after completion.
Pregnant women8,9 | UTI in pregnant women requires careful surveillance
545
Consider the cause (see risk factors above). Investigations: MCU, U&E, ultrasound. Treatment (empirical, while awaiting investigation): trimethoprim 300 mg (o) daily for 7 days or cephalexin 500 mg (o) 12 hourly for 7 days or amoxicillin + clavulanate 500/125 mg (o) 12 hourly for 7 days or nitrofurantoin 100 mg (o) 6 hourly for 7 days or norfloxacin 400mg (o) 12 hourly for 7 days Note: All males with a UTI should be investigated to exclude an underlying abnormality, e.g
Adult males7
546
_______________ is a treatable condition that most commonly happens in uncircumcised males.
Balanitis
547
____________ specificity is high in SLE
Anti-dsDNA
548
combination of 3rd gen cephalosporins+azithro is needed to cover resident ________________even in the absence of Chlamydia
gonorrhoea
549
Thiamine infusion should be given before _______________
dextrose infusion
550
patient under 55 highly risk for CPTA scan
V/Q
551
Suspected Ca. Prostate. Initial: DRE/PSA - TRUS guided biopsy. ___________indicated in fracture spine d/t mets.
MRI
552
___________works similar to terlipressin as vasoactive agent. Next is to scope to r/o variceal bleed
Octreotide
553
salt restriction - frst lifestyle modification for all ___________pts
ascites
554
first we do urinalysis and then creatinine and urine cytology is considered in _____________
hematuria
555
DRE -> UA -> sCr -> _________
US KUB
556
__________ to see soft tissues damage like ligaments or tendon
MRI
557
Patients with a level 2.5 – 4 mEq/L should have hemodialysis if they have severe symptoms such as neurologic deterioration, hemodynamic instability, acute kidney injury or ventricular arrhythmia.
lithium
558
Febeile convulsion -___________
no need anything
559
Patients presenting with acute neurological ischaemia or amaurosis initial aspirin and the best ________
surgery
560
bcoz risk of transmission to baby less even if symptomatic.do serology once pt is ___________
symptomatic
561
Urine microscopy and culture is mandatory. Mild cases can be treated with oral therapy alone for a longer duration than the recommended course for uncomplicated cystitis
Acute pyelonephritis
562
For empirical therapy, use amoxicillin/clavulanate (875/125 mg (o) 12 hourly) for 10–14 days or ciprofloxacin (500 mg (o) 12 hourly) for 7 days.
Acute pyelonephritis
563
For severe infection with suspected septicaemia, admit to hospital and treat initially with parenteral antibiotics after taking urine for microscopy and culture, and blood for culture. It is a particular problem if acquired in pregnancy.
Acute pyelonephritis
564
amoxicillin/ampicillin 2g IV 6 hourly plus gentamicin 4–6 mg/kg/day, single daily IV dose Follow with oral therapy for a total of 14 days. Drug levels of gentamicin require monitoring. Gentamicin can be replaced with IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone.
Acute pyelonephritis
565
Consider investigation for an underlying urinary tract abnormality, especially in men and in patients that remain unwell after 72 hours of treatment
Acute pyelonephritis
566
Persistent (chronic) UTIs indicate that the organism is resistant to the antimicrobial agents employed or that there is an underlying abnormality such as a kidney stone or a chronically infected prostate in the male patient
Recurrent or chronic urinary tract infections
567
Treat an acute episode of recurrent UTI as for cystitis or pyelonephritis
Recurrent or chronic urinary tract infections
568
__________ in infants and very young children is often kidney in nature and may be associated with generalised symptoms such as fever, vomiting, diarrhoea and failure to thrive.
UTI
569
Causes of ‘smelly’ urine in children are urinary infection and/or ___________, especially with gastroenteritis
dehydration
570
In a girl or boy (rare presentation) with symptoms of dysuria and frequency, an underlying abnormality may be present with a reported incidence of __________________ as high as 40% and scarred kidneys (reflux nephropathy) in 27%
vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)
571
Thus the early detection of children with VUR and control of recurrent kidney infection could prevent the development of scars, hypertension and ____________________
chronic kidney failure
572
Radiological investigation of children with UTIs shows normal kidneys in approximately 66% and _____________in approximately 33%.
reflux
573
<1 year—ultrasound; consider ___________________ if US | abnormal
micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)
574
Treat empirically in children one month or more while awaiting culture results. If less than one month, treatment with IV antibiotics is advisable.
Treatment (mild infection in children)
575
Treatment should be taken orally for 3–7 days: trimethoprim 4 mg/kg (max. 150 mg) bd (suspension is 50 mg/5 mL) or cephalexin 12.5 mg/kg (max. 500 mg) bd or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 4/20 mg/kg (max. 160/800 mg) bd
Treatment (mild infection in children)
576
For empirical treatment in those ≥12 months who appear septic or are vomiting, and infants <12 months, give gentamicin IV + amoxi/ampicillin IV.
Severe infections in children
577
can affect women of any age, it is more prevalent in girls between 2 and 8 years. It can be confused with a UTI where there is dysuria, which is a common symptom in this type of dermatitis
Vulvovaginitis
578
Consider bacterial ____________in men with few urinary symptoms (frequency, urgency and dysuria), flu-like illness, fever, low backache and perineal pain
prostatitis
579
The prostate is exquisitely tender | on rectal examination. For mild to moderate infection, give trimethoprim
prostatitis
580
3-day course of trimethoprim 300 mg daily is a suitable first choice for acute uncomplicated __________in women.
cystitis
581
In males the prostate is the most common source of ___________UTI
recurrent
582
UTI is commonly associated with __________________
microscopic haematuria
583
The six most common causes of death from cancer in | Australia are cancer of the lung, colorectal, lymphoma, ____________, breast and pancreas
prostate
584
``` Lump or mass, especially neck or stomach Unusual bleeding, bruising or rash White eye Persistent nausea and vomiting Constant illness Constant tiredness and/or pallor Headache, especially early morning Continuing unexplained weight loss Recurrent or persistent fever Changes which occur suddenly and persist ```
Red flags for childhood cancer
585
the Philadelphia chromosome for _________________
chronic myeloid leukaemia
586
(elevated in trophoblastic tumours and germ cell | neoplasms of the testes and ovaries)
human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)
587
Testicular cancer (non-seminomatous) Hepatocellular carcinoma GIT cancers with and without liver metastases
AFP
588
Ovarian cancer (non-mucinous), breast
CA-125
589
CA-15-3 ___________
Breast
590
CA-19-9 ____________
Pancreas, colon, ovary
591
CEA
Colorectal cancer Pancreatic, breast, lung, small intestine, stomach, ovaries
592
PSA*
Prostate cancer
593
hCG
Choriocarcinoma Hydatidiform mole Trophoblastic diseases
594
DxT malaise + weight loss + cough →
lung cancer
595
________ cancer is one of the most common cancers in | Australia in terms of both incidence and death, accounting for at least 20% of cancer deaths
lung
596
___________________ include hypercalcaemia, Cushing syndrome, carcinoid syndrome, dermatomyositis, visual loss progressing to blindness from retinal degeneration, cerebellar degeneration and encephalitis.
The paraneoplastic syndromes
597
haematuria (60%) loin pain (40%) loin mass (palpable kidney) signs of anaemia left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (Virchow node) varicocele (left side) hypertension symptoms of metastases (to liver, lungs, brain, bones): respiratory symptoms, neurological symptoms and signs, bone pain, pathological fracture (vertebral collapse) urinalysis—67% positive for blood
Kidney cell cancer
598
Diagnosis is confirmed by imaging, e.g. CT/MRI. | Refer for radical nephrectomy.
Kidney cell cancer
599
DxT haematuria + loin pain + palpable kidney mass →
kidney cell cancer
600
is responsible for 10% of all childhood malignancies.
Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma)
601
``` Clinical features include:4 peak incidence 2–3 years general symptoms of neoplasia palpable mass 80% abdominal pain 30% haematuria 25% ```
Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma)
602
Diagnosis is confirmed by urine cytology, ultrasound or CT/MRI scan.
Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma)
603
Early diagnosis with nephrectomy and chemotherapy leads to a very favourable prognosis (90% 5-year survival).
Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma)
604
DxT haematuria + abdominal mass + malaise →
Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma)
605
Probably the most common cancer in infancy (usually <2–3 years). 90% present under 5 years.
Neuroblastoma7
606
It is a tumour of the adrenal medulla (50%) and sympathetic nervous system, especially retroperitoneal neural tissue in abdomen (30%) but also in chest and neck
Neuroblastoma7
607
fatigue, anorexia, nausea, fever abdominal pain, abdominal swelling anaemia and weight loss May present with metastases, e.g. bone pain. Diagnosis: CT scan, skeletal survey; biopsy required
Neuroblastoma7
608
Treatment is based on surgical resection then chemotherapy ± localised radiotherapy. Good response to therapy especially if <18 months.
Neuroblastoma7
609
has the highest mortality rate of all the gynaecological cancers because the majority of patients present in the late stage of the disease.
Ovarian cancer8
610
It is responsible for 5% of deaths in | females.
Ovarian cancer8
611
It is usually asymptomatic prior to the development of metastases
Ovarian cancer8
612
Epithelial tumours | are the most common of malignant ovarian tumours
Ovarian cancer
613
They are uncommon under 40 years of age | and the average age of diagnosis is 50 years
Ovarian cancer
614
The most common presentation is abdominal swelling (mass and/or ascites), abdominal bloating or discomfort.
Ovarian cancer
615
Non-specific symptoms, which may be present for a long time before diagnosis, include abnormal uterine bleeding, urinary frequency, weight loss, abdominal discomfort, reduced capacity for food, diarrhoea, anorexia, nausea and vomiting
Ovarian cancer
616
Diagnosis is supported by pelvic ultrasound and serum CA-125 tumour marker
Ovarian cancer
617
A new test is the | OvPlex serum test, which measures five serum markers.
Ovarian cancer
618
DxT abdominal discomfort + anorexia + abdominal bloating/distension →
Ovarian cancer
619
Malignancy in this area is more likely to present with symptoms of anaemia without the patient noting obvious blood in the faeces or alteration of bowel habit
Carcinoma of caecum and ascending colon5
620
DxT blood in stools + abdominal discomfort + change in bowel habit →
Carcinoma of caecum and ascending colon
621
This is another cancer with vague symptoms, metastasising early and late presentation
Pancreatic cancer
622
It is mainly ductal adenocarcinoma, which, if in the head of the pancreas, presents with painless jaundice and if in the body and/or tail presents with epigastric pain radiating to the back, relieved by sitting forward
Pancreatic cancer
623
DxT jaundice + anorexia + abdominal discomfort/pain →
Pancreatic cancer
624
are caused by an acquired malignant transformation in the stem cell in the haemopoietic system.
The leukaemias
625
The usual age range for acute lymphatic leukaemia (ALL) is 2–10 years with a second peak at about ______________.
40 years
626
Symptoms of anaemia Susceptibility to infection (e.g. sore throat, mouth ulceration, chest infection) Easy bruising and bleeding (e.g. epistaxis, gingival bleeding) Bone pain (notably in children with ALL) and joint pain Symptoms due to infiltration of tissues with blast cells (e.g. gingival hypertrophy in AML)
Acute leukaemia
627
DxT malaise + pallor + bone pain →
ALL
628
DxT malaise + pallor + oral problems →
AML
629
``` Pallor of anaemia Petechiae, bruising Gum hypertrophy/gingivitis/stomatitis Signs of infection Variable enlargement of liver, spleen and lymph nodes Bone tenderness, especially sternum ```
Acute leukaemia
630
``` FBE and film: normochromic/normocytic anaemia; pancytopenia with circulatory blast cells; platelets: usually reduced Bone marrow examination PCR studies Cytogenetics ```
Acute leukaemia
631
Treatment: chemotherapy, immunotherapy, stem cell therapy
Acute leukaemia
632
As a rule, relapse of acute leukaemia means imminent death unless bone marrow transplantation is successful. The mean 5-year survival rate for childhood ALL is about 75–80%; for adult ALL 30%;
Acute leukaemia
633
A disorder of middle age, typically 40–60 years Insidious onset Constitutional symptoms: malaise, weight loss, fever, night sweats Symptoms of anaemia Splenomegaly (very large); abdominal discomfort Priapism Gout Markedly elevated white cell count (granulocytes) Marked left shift in myeloid series Presence of Philadelphia chr
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
634
A disorder of late middle age and elderly Insidious onset Constitutional symptoms: malaise, weight loss, fever, night sweats Lymphadenopathy (large rubbery nodes)—neck, axilla, groin (80%) Moderately enlarged spleen and liver (about 50%) Mild anaemia Lymphocytosis >15 × 109/L ‘Mature’ appearance of lymphocytes
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
635
DxT fatigue + weight loss + fever/night sweats + lymphadenopathy →
CLL
636
which are malignant tumours of lymphoid tissue, are classified as Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma on the basis of histological appearance of the involved lymph tissue.
The lymphomas6
637
Painless (rubbery) lymphadenopathy, especially cervical nodes Constitutional symptoms (e.g. malaise, weakness, weight loss) Fever and drenching night sweats—undulant (Pel–Ebstein) fever Pruritus Alcohol-induced pain in any enlarged lymph nodes Possible enlarged spleen and liver
Hodgkin lymphoma
638
Diagnosis is by lymph node biopsy with histological confirmation. Other tests: FBE, CXR, CT/MRI (to stage), bone marrow biopsy, functional isotopic scanning. Staging is by using Ann Arbor nomenclature (IA to IVB). Treatment includes chemotherapy, immunotherapy and radiotherapy.
Hodgkin lymphoma
639
DxT malaise + fever/night sweats + pruritus →
Hodgkin lymphoma
640
are a heterogeneous group of cancers of lymphocytes derived from the malignant clones of B or T cells
Non-Hodgkin lymphomas
641
Painless lymphadenopathy—localised or widespread Constitutional symptoms possible, especially sweating Pruritus is uncommon Extra nodal sites of disease (e.g. CNS, bone, skin, GIT) Possible enlarged liver and spleen Possible nodular infiltration of skin (e.g. mycosis fungoides) Diagnosis is by lymph node biopsy. CXR and CT abdomen to stage.
non-Hodgkin | lymphoma
642
DxT malaise + fever/night sweats + lymphadenopathy →
non-Hodgkin | lymphoma
643
is a clonal malignancy of the differentiated β lymphocyte—the plasma cell.
Multiple myeloma
644
It | is regarded as a disease of the elderly, the mean age of presentation being 65 years
Multiple myeloma
645
``` he classic presenting triad in an older person is anaemia, back pain and elevated ESR, which helps to differentiate it from monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS). ```
Multiple myeloma
646
Other investigations include serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation, Sestamibi scan
Multiple myeloma
647
Bone pain (e.g. backache)—in more than 80% of patients (possible pathological fracture) Bone tenderness, e.g. femur, ribs, spine Weakness, tiredness, increased thirst Anorexia and weight loss Recurrent infections, e.g. chest infection Symptoms of anaemia Bleeding tendency Replacement of bone marrow by malignant plasma cells
Multiple myeloma
648
Impaired renal failure → kidney failure | Associated with amyloidosis and hypercalcaemia
Multiple myeloma
649
DxT weakness + unexplained back pain + susceptibility to infection →
Multiple myeloma
650
Diagnostic criteria comprise the presence of:7 paraprotein in serum (on electrophoresis) Bence–Jones protein in urine bony lytic lesions on skeletal survey
Multiple myeloma
651
Treatment is with chemotherapy including thalidomide or lenalidomide: 5-year survival rate is 50% or longer if diagnosed earlier
Multiple myeloma
652
primary macroglobulinaemia due to a type of malignant plasma cell abnormality.
Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia
653
This uncommon but difficult-to-diagnose disorder caused by the deposition of amyloid protein is classified as primary, familial or secondary (from chronic infection, e.g. TB, inflammation, RA, some cancers, others). It may be localised or generalised. Clinical features depend on the organ targeted such as the heart (CCF), kidney (nephrotic syndrome), GIT (malabsorption), brain (dementia) and peripheral nerves (e.g. CTS). Diagnosis
Amyloidosis
654
Hormone secretion by carcinoid cells causes the characteristic carcinoid syndrome long before local growth or metastatic spread of the tumour is apparent (80% metastasise). Most carcinoid tumours are asymptomatic.
Carcinoid tumours and syndrome
655
Classic triad: skin flushing (especially face), diarrhoea (with abdominal cramps), valvular heart disease Other possible features: wheezing, telangiectasia, hypotension, cyanosis Sites of tumours: appendix/ileum, stomach, bronchi
Carcinoid tumours and syndrome
656
24-hour urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid | Plasma chromogranin A/hepatic ultrasound
Carcinoid tumours and syndrome
657
Surgery or other ablation: octreotide/others
Carcinoid tumours and syndrome
658
This is a malignant proliferation of RBCs and also WBCs and platelets
Polycythaemia vera
659
``` Older person Fatigue Headache, dizziness, tinnitus Pruritus after hot bath, shower Epistaxis Facial plethora Splenomegaly Thrombosis ```
Polycythaemia vera
660
FBE and haematocrit Bone marrow biopsy Genetic mutations—JAK2 mutation
Polycythaemia vera
661
``` Testicular 98 Prostate 95 Thyroid 92 Melanoma 91 Breast (female) 91 Hodgkin lymphoma 87 Uterus 84 Bladder 77 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma 72 Colon 72 Ovary 41 Stomach 33 Liver 20 Lung 19 Pancreas ```
``` Common cancers and their 5-year survival rates (a collation of surveys) ```
662
Common sites of metastatic presentation are the lymph nodes, liver, lung, mediastinum and bone. Other sites include the brain, bone marrow, peritoneum, retroperitoneum, skin and the spinal cord.
Metastatic tumours
663
Bone. Breast, prostate, lung, Hodgkin lymphoma, kidney, thyroid, melanoma
important sites (listed below) are followed by likely primary sources
664
Brain. Breast, lung, colorectal, lymphoma, kidney, melanoma, prostate
These important sites (listed below) are followed by likely primary sources, with the most likely listed first.
665
Liver. Colon, pancreas, liver, stomach, breast, lung, melanoma
These important sites (listed below) are followed by likely primary sources, with the most likely listed first.
666
Lung and mediastinum. Breast, lung, colorectal, kidney, testes, cervix/uterus, Hodgkin lymphoma, melanoma
These important sites (listed below) are followed by likely primary sources, with the most likely listed first.
667
DxT anorexia + weight loss + jaundice (± epigastric pain) →
pancreatic | cancer
668
DxT fatigue + dysphagia + weight loss →
oesophageal cancer
669
DxT anorexia + dyspepsia + weight loss →
stomach cancer
670
DxT headache + a/n/v + ataxia →
medulloblastoma (children)
671
DxT fever + malaise (extreme) + a/n/v (± anaemia) →
neuroblastoma
672
DxT mental dysfunction + vomiting + (waking) headache →
cerebral | tumour (late)
673
DxT indrawn eye + small pupil + ptosis (± anhydrosis) →
Horner | syndrome (?lung cancer)
674
are well known for their adverse intra-uterine effects on the fetus.
The TORCH organisms (TORCH being an acronym for toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV and herpes)
675
The mosquito-borne infections causing encephalitis and haemorrhagic fevers are mainly viral, apart from the protozoan causing malaria, and are of particular significance in ______________________
travellers | returning from endemic areas
676
blood: malaria, trypanosomiasis GIT: giardiasis, amoebiasis, cryptosporidium tissues: toxoplasmosis, leishmaniasis, babesiosis
The major protozoal diseases of humans are:
677
Most of the world’s serious _______________infections—malaria, African trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, amoebiasis—occur in tropical areas
protozoal
678
is a febrile illness caused by the human herpes virus 4 (Epstein–Barr) virus, one of the eight known herpes viruses.
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
679
It is often called ‘the great imitator’ because of its multisystem involvement.
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
680
It can mimic diseases such as HIV primary infection, streptococcal tonsillitis, viral hepatitis and acute lymphatic leukaemia.
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
681
There are three forms: the febrile, the anginose (with | sore throat, see FIG. 18.1 ) and the glandular (with lymphadenopathy).
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
682
It may occur at any age but usually between 10 and 35 years; it is commonest in the 15–25 years age group.
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
683
it usually affects people in their late teenage years or early 20s. It is endemic in most countries, affecting over 95% of the adult population worldwide. Subclinical infection is common in young children. The incubation period is at least 1 month but data are insufficient to define it accurately
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
684
is excreted in oropharyngeal secretions during the illness and for some months (sometimes years) after the clinical infection.
EBV
685
``` Slow-onset malaise 1–6 weeks Fever Myalgia Headaches, anorexia Blocked nose—mouth breathing Nasal quality to voice Sore throat (85%) Anorexia, nausea ± vomiting Rash—primary 5% Dyspepsia ```
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
686
DxT malaise + sore throat + fever + lymphadenopathy →
EBM
687
WCC shows absolute lymphocytosis. Blood film shows atypical lymphocytes. Paul–Bunnell or Monospot test for heterophile antibody is positive (although positivity can be delayed or absent in 10% of cases; 85% positive in adults and older children). Diagnosis confirmed (if necessary) by EBV-specific antibodies, viral capsid antigen (VCA) antibodies—IgM, IgG and EB nuclear antigen (EBN-A). Consider throat culture to rule out streptococcal pharyngitis. Culture for EBV and tests for specific viral antibodies are not performed routinely
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
688
Supportive measures (no specific treatment) Rest (the best treatment) during the acute stage, preferably at home and indoors NSAIDs or paracetamol to relieve discomfort Gargle soluble aspirin or 30% glucose or saline to soothe the throat Advise against alcohol, fatty foods, continued activity, especially contact sports, for 8 weeks (risk of splenic rupture) Ensure adequate hydration Corticosteroids reserved for: neurological involvement, thrombocytopenia, threatened airway obstruction (not recommended for uncomplicated cases)
Epstein–Barr mononucleosis
689
Intra-uterine infection may cause serious abnormalities in the fetus, including CNS involvement (microcephaly, hearing defects, motor disturbances), jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia.
Cytomegalovirus infection
690
In healthy adults, ___________produces an illness similar to EBM with fever, malaise, arthralgia and myalgia, generalised lymphadenopathy and hepatomegaly
CMV
691
In the patient with normal immunity no treatment apart from supportive measures is required, as the infection is usually self-limiting.
Cytomegalovirus infection
692
which is caused by Toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular protozoan, is a worldwide, albeit rare, infection
Toxoplasmosis
693
The definitive host in its life cycle is the cat (or pig or sheep) and the human is an intermediate host.
Toxoplasmosis
694
caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, still has a worldwide distribution with a very high prevalence in Asian countries where 60–80% of children below the age of 14 years are affected
Tuberculosis
695
This has special implication in Australia, where large numbers of Asian migrants are settling.
Tuberculosis
696
``` Cough Sputum: initially mucoid, later purulent Haemoptysis Dyspnoea (esp. with complications Pleuritic pain ```
Tuberculosis
697
``` Anorexia Fatigue Weight loss Fever (low grade) Night sweats ```
Tuberculosis
698
May be no respiratory signs or may be signs of fibrosis, consolidation or cavitation (amphoric breathing) Finger clubbing
Tuberculosis
699
``` High-risk people/situations Newborn and infants Adults over 60 years Patients with HIV/AIDS Chronic disease, e.g. diabetes Crowded or unsanitary living conditions People affected by alcohol and drugs Immigrants and refugees from endemic countries (especially Indian subcontinent, Papua New Guinea, South-East Asia, Sub Sahara and South Africa) ```
pulmonary TB
700
DxT malaise + cough + weight loss ± fever/night sweats + haemoptysis →
pulmonary TB
701
The primary infection usually involves the lungs. Transmission is by droplet infection. The focus is usually subpleural in the upper to mid zones and is almost always accompanied by lymph node involvement.
pulmonary TB
702
Erythema nodosum may accompany the primary infection
pulmonary TB
703
is the presence of infection without evidence of active disease (contained by the immune system) and inability to transmit the infection.
Latent TB infection (LTBI)
704
Most cases of ________in adults are due to reactivation of disease some years later
TB
705
The main sites of extrapulmonary disease (in order of frequency in Australia) are the lymph nodes (the commonest, especially in young adults and children), genitourinary tract (kidney, epididymis, Fallopian tubes), pleura and pericardium, the skeletal system (arthritis and osteomyelitis with cold abscess formation), CNS (meningitis and tuberculomas), the eye (choroiditis, iridocyclitis), the skin (lupus vulgaris), the adrenal glands (Addison disease—see CHAPTER 14 ) and the GIT (ileocaecal area and peritoneum).
Extrapulmonary TB
706
This disorder follows diffuse dissemination of tubercle bacilli via the bloodstream, especially in those with chronic disease and immunosuppression
Miliary tuberculosis
707
Children living in close contact with people with smear-positive pulmonary TB are highly vulnerable to acquiring the primary infection. A possible complication is miliary TB
TB in children2
708
Primary disease is the more common form in young children. Reactivation is more common in adolescents.
TB
709
chest X-ray; CT scan if doubtful sputum or bronchial excretion or gastric aspirates for stain (acid-fast bacilli) and culture (takes about 6–8 weeks but important); ideally requires 3 specimens over 3 days including one early morning immunochromatographic finger-prick test (new and promising) interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) QuantiFERON–TB Gold blood test NAAT/PCR test—less sensitive than culture biopsies on lesions/lymph nodes may be necessary; the hallmark is caseating granulomata fibre-optic bronchoscopy to obtain sputum may be necessary consider HIV studies
diagnosis of TB.
710
<5 mm—negative (note: may be negative in presence of very active pulmonary infection) 5–10 mm—typical of past BCG vaccination >5 mm—significant in immunocompromised, close contacts and HIV infection >10 mm—positive = tuberculosis infection (active or inactive) >15 mm—highly significant for ‘normal’ people
Tuberculin (Mantoux) testing and BCG vaccination
711
Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander neonates in regions of high incidence neonates born to patients with leprosy or family history of leprosy children <5 years travelling for long periods to countries of high TB prevalence
BCG vaccination is recommended for:
712
The current antimicrobial treatment is the standard short-course therapy with four antituberculous drugs initially (rifampicin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol) daily for 2 months, then rifampicin + isoniazid daily for a further 4 months.
pulmonary TB
713
Pyridoxine 25 mg daily is recommended for adults taking isoniazid. A 3-times-weekly regimen is also an option if DOT is employed. Corticosteroids may be prescribed.
pulmonary TB
714
extremely common in certain Indigenous groups and is frequently acquired from sexual contacts overseas
Syphilis
715
It presents either as a primary lesion or through the chance finding of positive syphilis serology (reagin tests, treponemal antibody tests, PCR).
Syphilis
716
The primary lesion or chancre usually develops at the point of inoculation after an incubation period averaging 21 days.
Primary syphilis
717
The adjacent lymph nodes are discretely enlarged, firm and non-suppurating. Any anorectal ulcer or sore should be considered as syphilis until proved otherwise.
Primary syphilis
718
The interval between the appearance of the primary chancre and the onset of secondary manifestations varies from 6 to 12 weeks after infection
Primary syphilis
719
The most common feature of the secondary stage of infection is a rash, which is present in about 80% of cases. The rash is typically a symmetrical, generalised, coppery-red maculopapular eruption on the face, trunk, palms and soles and is neither itchy nor tender
Primary syphilis
720
Positive serology in a patient without symptoms or signs of disease is referred to as latent syphilis and is the commonest presentation of syphilis in Australia today.
Latent syphilis
721
Spirochaetes can be demonstrated by microscopic examination of smears from early lesions using dark field techniques and provide an immediate diagnosis in symptomatic syphilis. The direct fluorescent antibody techniques (FTAABS) can be used on this smear.
Dark field examination8
722
Serological tests provide indirect evidence of infection, and the diagnosis of asymptomatic syphilis relies heavily on these tests. The main types of tests are
``` reagin tests (VDRL and RPR)—not specific for syphilis but useful for screening treponemal tests (TPPA, TPI, EIA, FTAABS)—specific tests, with the latter being sensitive and widely used PCR (blood or CSF)—very sensitive ```
723
It is based on parenteral benzylpenicillin or procaine penicillin
syphilis
724
fever, | especially in patients with a history of cardiac valvular disorders.
Infective endocarditis
725
It is caused by microbial | infection of the cardiac valves or endocardium.
Infective endocarditis
726
more invasive | procedures, IV drug use and increased cardiac catheterisation
Infective endocarditis
727
DxT FUO + cardiac murmur + embolism →
Infective endocarditis
728
``` Past history of endocarditis Rheumatically abnormal valves, especially Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people Congenitally abnormal valves Mitral valve prolapse Calcified aortic valve Congenital cardiac defects (e.g. VSD, PDA) Prosthetic valves, shunts, conduits IV drug use Central venous catheters ```
Infective endocarditis
729
Streptococcus viridans (50% of cases) most susceptible to penicillin Streptococcus bovis Enterococcus faecalis
Infective endocarditis
730
The ‘classic tetrad’ of clinical features:9 signs of infection, signs of heart disease, signs of embolism, immunological phenomena
Infective endocarditis
731
Culture the blood of every patient who has a fever and a heart murmur.
Infective endocarditis
732
FBE and ESR: ESR ↑, anaemia and leukocytosis urine: proteinuria and microscopic haematuria blood culture: positive in about 75%8 (at least 3 sets of samples—aerobic and anaerobic culture) echocardiography—to visualise vegetations (TOE more sensitive than TTE) chest X-ray ECG
Infective endocarditis
733
Bactericidal antibiotics are chosen on the basis of the results of the blood culture and antibiotic sensitivities.
Infective endocarditis
734
treatment must be given IV for at least 2 weeks | treatment is prolonged—usually 4–6 weeks
Infective endocarditis
735
Benzylpenicillin + gentamicin + di(flu)cloxacillin are recommended Vancomycin needs to be considered if hospital acquired, MRSA suspected or prosthetic cardiac valve
Infective endocarditis
736
Consider Q fever, leptospirosis, orf, anthrax
Meat workers
737
______________(undulant fever, Malta fever) has diminished in prevalence since the campaign to eradicate it from cattle.
Brucellosis
738
DxT malaise + headache + undulant fever →
brucellosis
739
Brucella agglutination test (rising titre)—acute and convalescent (3–4 weeks) samples Brucella PCR testing—sensitive and rapid
brucellosis
740
Adults: doxycycline 100 mg (o) bd for 6 weeks + rifampicin 600 mg (o) daily for 6 weeks or gentamicin 4–6 mg/kg/day IV statim then daily for 2 weeks (monitor) Children: cotrimoxazole + rifampicin
brucellosis
741
_______________ is a zoonosis due to Coxiella burnetii. It is the most common abattoir-associated infection in Australia and can also occur in farmers and hunters
Q fever
742
It usually resolves spontaneously within 2 weeks. Rash is not a major feature but can occur if the infection persists without treatment. It is transmitted by inhaled dust, animals (wild or domestic) and unpasteurised milk.
Q fever
743
``` Incubation period 1–3 weeks Sudden onset fever, rigors and myalgia Dry cough (may be pneumonia in 20%)14 Petechial rash (if persisting infection) ± Abdominal pain ```
Q fever
744
DxT fever + headache + prostration →
Q fever
745
Coxiella burnetii PCR is effective
Q fever
746
The disease can be prevented in abattoir workers by using Q fever vaccine
Q fever
747
follows contamination of abraded or cut skin or mucous membranes with Page 194 Leptospira-infected urine of many animals including pigs, cattle, horses, rats and dogs.
Leptospirosis
748
There is a risk to dairy farmers splashed with urine during milking, especially if through open cuts or sores. Early diagnosis is important to prevent it passing into the immune phase.
Leptospirosis
749
DxT abrupt fever + headache + conjunctivitis →
leptospirosis
750
Clinical pattern especially rash of erythema migrans + serology and PCR
Lyme and lyme-like disease
751
spirochaete, Borrelia burgdorferi, and transmitted by Ixodes ticks, so that people living and working in the bush are susceptible
Lyme and lyme-like disease
752
Remove tick | A typical regimen for adults is doxycycline 100 mg bd for 21 days or amoxicillin
Lyme and lyme-like disease
753
Most patients are bird fanciers. Psittacosis accounts for 1–5% of hospital admissions for pneumonia.
Psittacosis (‘bird fancier’s disease’)
754
It is indistinguishable from other atypical | pneumonias except for history of contact with birds.
Psittacosis (‘bird fancier’s disease’)
755
Serology—rising antibody and PCR | Chest X-ray
Psittacosis (‘bird fancier’s disease’)
756
is caused by Listeria monocytogenes, a bacterium widespread in nature that can contaminate food and has been found in many fresh (e.g. fruit and vegetables) and processed foods (e.g. dairy products, especially unpasteurised milk, soft cheese, processed meats and smoked seafood).
Listeriosis
757
``` influenza-like illness (usually mild) food poisoning, gastroenteritis (atypical) meningitis, especially infants, elderly septicaemia (in susceptible) pneumonia (in susceptible) ```
Listeriosis
758
Infections from bites and scratches
cat-scratch disorder, rat bite fever
759
This sometimes misdiagnosed bacterial infection (Clostridium tetani) can appear from one day to several months after the injury, which may have been forgotten
Tetanus
760
Prodrome: fever, malaise, headache Trismus (patient cannot open mouth) Risus sardonicus (a grin-like effect from hypertonic facial muscles) Opisthotonos (arched trunk with hyperextended neck) Spasms, precipitated by minimal stimuli
Tetanus
761
Give tetanus antitoxin and human tetanus immunoglobin
Tetanus
762
(necrotising soft tissue infection) can involve skin and subcutaneous fat, fascia and muscle.
Gangrene/gas gangrene5
763
(clostridial myonecrosis) is caused by entry of one of several clostridia organisms, for example, Clostridium perfringens, into devitalised tissue, such as exists following severe trauma to a leg.
Gangrene/gas gangrene
764
Refer immediately to surgical centre for debridement Start benzylpenicillin 2.4 g IV, 4 hourly + clindamycin Hyperbaric oxygen if available
Gangrene/gas gangrene
765
``` Sudden onset of pain and swelling in the contaminated wound Brownish serous exudate Gas in the tissue on palpation or X-ray Prostration and systemic toxicity Circulatory failure (‘shock’) ```
Gangrene/gas gangrene
766
is food poisoning caused by the neurotoxin of Clostridium botulinum
Botulism5
767
From 12 to 36 hours after ingesting the toxin from canned, smoked or vacuum-packed food (e.g. home-canned vegetables or meat) visual problems such as diplopia suddenly appear. Suspect botulism if cranial nerve weakness with normal sensation.
Botulism
768
Fever, malaise Headache Minimal respiratory symptoms, non-productive cough Signs of consolidation absent Chest X-ray (diffuse infiltration) incompatible with chest signs
atypical pneumonia
769
DxT ‘flu’ + headache + dry cough →
atypical pneumonia
770
Blood tests and PCR tests are available for all the following causative organisms: Mycoplasma pneumoniae (the commonest) Adolescents and young adults: treat with doxycycline (first line) 200 mg statim then 100 mg daily for 14 days or roxithromycin 300 mg (o) daily for 14 days
atypical pneumonia
771
Related to cooling systems in large buildings Incubation 2–10 days Diagnostic criteria include: prodromal-like illness; a dry cough, influenza-like illness, confusion or diarrhoea; lymphopenia with marked leukocytosis; hyponatraemia; PCR test and urinary antigen assay Treatment for mild disease: azithromycin 500 mg (o) daily for 5 days or doxycycline 100 mg (o) 12 hourly for 10–14 days
Legionella pneumophila (legionnaire disease)
772
is inflammation of the meninges (pia and arachnoid) and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Meningitis
773
``` The classic triad is: headache photophobia neck stiffness Other symptoms include malaise, vomiting, fever and drowsiness ```
Meningitis
774
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae (especially children), Neisseria meningitides (the big three) Listeria monocytogenes, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Group B Streptococcus, Strep. agalactiae (common in newborn), Staphylococcus spp., Gram –ve bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, Borrelia burgdorferi, Treponema pallidum
Meningitis
775
Enteroviruses (Coxsackie, echovirus, poliovirus); mumps; herpes simplex HSV type 1, 2 or 6; varicella zoster virus; EBV; HIV (primary infection)
Meningitis
776
Cryptococcus neoformans or C. gattii | Histoplasma capsulatum
Meningitis
777
Lumbar puncture (see TABLE 20.1 ) CT scan Blood culture—all patients with suspected meningitis CSF microculture/PCR (PCR useful even if antibiotics given) Specific serology, e.g. HIV, EBV Note: If significant delay with these investigations, do not withhold treatment
Meningitis
778
is basically a childhood infection. Neonates and children aged 6–12 months are at greatest risk.
Bacterial meningitis2
779
Most cases begin as septicaemia, usually via the nasopharynx
Bacterial meningitis
780
``` Fever, pallor, vomiting ± altered conscious and mental state Lethargy Increasing irritability with drowsiness Refusal to feed, indifference to mother Neck stiffness (not always present) Cold extremities (a reliable sign) May be bulging fontanelle Kernig sign (see FIG. 20.1 ): unreliable Brudzinski sign (see FIG. 20.2 ): more reliable sign of meningeal irritation Opisthotonos ```
Bacterial meningitis
781
Kernig sign: pain in hamstrings with inability to straighten leg on passive knee extension with hip flexed at 90°
Bacterial meningitis
782
Brudzinski sign: neck flexion causes involuntary flexion of hip and knee
Bacterial meningitis
783
Meningeal irritation more obvious (e.g. headache, fever, vomiting, neck stiffness) Later: delirium, altered conscious state
Bacterial meningitis
784
First: oxygen + IV access and consult Take blood for culture (within 30 minutes of assessment)—ideally prior to hospitalisation For child give bolus of 10–20 mL/kg of N saline with added bolus up to total 60 ml/kg if signs of hypoperfusion Admit to hospital for lumbar puncture (preliminary CT scan to assess safety of LP in adults) Dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg up to 10 mg IV (start at same time as or 15 minutes before antibiotics—controversial but shown to improve outcome)5 Ceftriaxone 2 g (child >1 month: 50 mg/kg up to 2 g) IV statim then 12 hourly for 4 days or cefotaxime 2 g (child: 50 mg/kg up to 2 g) IV
Bacterial meningitis
785
Treatment is extremely urgent once suspected (e.g. petechial or purpuric rash on trunk and limbs) (see FIG. 20.4 ). It should be given before reaching hospital. Empirical treatment is: benzylpenicillin 2.4 g (child: 60 mg/kg IV up to 2.4 g) statim (continue for 5 days) if IV access not possible give IM or (especially if hypersensitive to penicillin)
Bacterial meningitis
786
Meningococcal vaccines—B and ACWY given separately
Bacterial meningitis
787
This is basically a childhood infection. The most common causes are human herpes virus 6 (the cause of roseola infantum) and enteroviruses (Coxsackie and echovirus).
Viral meningitis
788
Most cases are benign and self-limiting, but the clinical presentation can mimic bacterial meningitis, although there are fewer obvious signs of meningeal irritation
Viral meningitis1,6
789
Lumbar puncture is important for diagnosis and also PCR for enterovirus. If positive, it can allow early cessation of antibiotics if commenced empirically.2 Treatment which is symptomatic includes rehydration and analgesics. Aciclovir is given for herpes meningitis. The immunocompromised require special management.
Viral meningitis1,6
790
Very cold hands? Think .
Viral meningitis
791
is inflammation of the brain parenchyma. It is mainly caused by viruses, although other organisms including some bacteria, Mycoplasma, Rickettsia and Histoplasma can cause encephalitis. Suspect it when a viral prodrome is followed by irrational behaviour, altered conscious state and possibly cranial nerve lesions.
Encephalitis
792
These can vary from mild to severe. Constitutional: fever (not inevitable), malaise, myalgia Meningeal features: headache, photophobia, neck stiffness Cerebral dysfunction: altered consciousness—confusion, drowsiness, personality changes, irrational behaviour, seizures, coma Focal neurological deficit
Encephalitis
793
A protozoal infection seen in immunocompromised patients, especially HIV. Refer for specialist advice.
Toxoplasma gondii
794
Lumbar puncture: CSF (usually aseptic meningitis) CSF PCR for viral studies, esp. HSV, toxoplasma CT scan—often shows cerebral oedema Gadolinium-enhanced MRI EEG—characteristic waves
Toxoplasma gondii
795
is a focal area of infection in the cerebrum or cerebellum.
A brain (cerebral) abscess
796
It presents | as a space-occupying intracerebral lesion
A brain (cerebral) abscess
797
Suspect in any patient with a raised intracranial | pressure.
A brain (cerebral) abscess
798
The infection can reach the brain by local spread or via the bloodstream; for example, endocarditis or bronchiectasis.
A brain (cerebral) abscess
799
There may be no clue to a focus of infection elsewhere but it can follow ear, sinus, dental, periodontal or other infection and also a skull fracture. The organisms are polymicrobial, especially microaerophilic cocci and anaerobic bacteria in the nonimmunosuppressed. In the immunosuppressed, Toxoplasma, Nocardia sp. and fungi.
A brain (cerebral) abscess
800
``` Raised intracranial pressure Headache Nausea and vomiting Altered conscious state Papilloedema ```
A brain (cerebral) abscess
801
Focal neurological signs such as hemiplegia, dysphasia, ataxia Seizures (30%) Fever (may be absent) Signs of sepsis elsewhere, e.g. teeth, endocarditis
A brain (cerebral) abscess
802
MRI (if available) or CT scan FBE, ESR/CRP, blood culture Note: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated. Consider endocarditis
A brain (cerebral) abscess
803
Management is urgent neurosurgical referral. Aspiration or biopsy is essential to guide antimicrobial treatment, which may (empirically) include metronidazole IV and a cephalosporin, e.g. ceftriaxone IV. Nocardiosis is treated with other antibiotics
A brain (cerebral) abscess
804
These uncommon focal infections can be extremely difficult to diagnose so an index of suspicion is required to consider such an abscess. The usual organism is Staphylococcus aureus.
Spinal subdural or epidural abscess
805
Back pain (increasing) ± radiculopathy Percussion tenderness over spine Evolving neurological deficit, e.g. gradual leg weakness and sensory loss ± fever (may be absent)
Spinal subdural or epidural abscess
806
Associated infection: furuncle, decubitus ulcer, adjacent osteomyelitis, discitis, other
Spinal subdural or epidural abscess
807
Back trauma with haematoma Post-subdural or epidural anaesthetic block One-third is spontaneous
Spinal subdural or epidural abscess
808
Blood culture | MRI scan to localise abscess and spinal cord pressure
Spinal subdural or epidural abscess
809
Urgent neurosurgical referral. Empirical therapy while awaiting culture results may include di/flucloxacillin IV + gentamicin IV or vancomycin IV.
Spinal subdural or epidural abscess
810
DxT fatigue + psychiatric symptoms + myoclonus →
CJD
811
Progressive dementia (starts with personality change and memory loss—eventual loss of speech) Myoclonus/muscle spasms Fatigue and somnolence Variable neurological features (e.g. ataxia, chorea)
Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease
812
MRI: high signal intensity in thalami CSF: positive 14-3-3 protein immunoassay EEG Brain biopsy after death (ultimate confirmation)
Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease
813
is a highly contagious enterovirus (picornavirus) transmitted through the faeco-oral route and is a specific spinal cord anterior horn cell enterovirus. It remains endemic in the tropics. Most infections (95%) are asymptomatic. Note: Myelitis means inflammation of the spinal cord
Poliomyelitis
814
Flu-like syndrome, with fever and sore throat, then ‘Pre-paralytic’ stage: nausea and vomiting, headache, stiff neck (meningeal irritation) Paralytic (0.1%): LMN lesion (flaccid paralysis)—may include spinal polio especially of lower limbs and/or bulbar polio ± respiratory failure. No sensory loss. There are 2 levels of polio: minor (recovery in a few days) and major.
Poliomyelitis
815
Viral studies of throat and faeces—culture and PCR Serology CSF: leucocytosis, esp. lymphocytes
Poliomyelitis
816
Symptomatic paralytic patients should be referred to hospital. Prevention is through vaccination
Poliomyelitis
817
can present at any stage of syphilis. The main syphilitic syndromes affecting the CNS are:
Neurosyphilis
818
Asymptomatic syphilis: present during the interval between the secondary and tertiary stages of syphilis. Meningitis including acute basal meningitis and meningovascular syphilis. The latter can present with a cerebrovascular accident. Tabes dorsalis causing meningoradiculitis with degeneration of the parenchyma of the spinal columns of the spinal cord and involvement of the pupils. Features include lightning pains, Charcot joints, ataxia and neurotrophic ulcers, Argyll Robertson pupils. General paralysis of the insane with marked personality change, dementia, dysarthria and seizures
Neurosyphilis
819
may include tuberculosis meningitis, tuberculoma (presenting as a cerebral abscess), spinal arachnoiditis and spinal involvement (Pott disease). Treatment with multiple antimicrobial agents is usually complex and prolonged.
Neurological TB
820
Worm infestations that can (rarely) cause intracerebral lesions through the formation of cysts or granulomas include cysticercosis (tapeworms, e.g. Taenia solium), Echinococcus (hydatid) and Schistosoma.
Helminthic infections
821
High sensitivity 95%, low specificity for SLE
Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
822
High sensitivity and specificity for SLE (60%): | found in rheumatoid arthritis
Anti-dsDNA
823
Highly specific for SLE
Smith (Sm)
824
Common in Sjögren syndrome and SLE | Common in Sjögren syndrome, SLE (15%)
Ro (SSA) | La (SSB)
825
Common in 20–30% of patients with | scleroderma
Scl-70 (antitopoisomerase)
826
Common in 30% of patients with polymyositis
Jo1
827
High sensitivity and specificity for CREST | syndrome
Anticentromere lc
828
High sensitivity and specificity for Wegener | granulomatosis
Antineutrophil cytoplasm | ANCA
829
Diagnostic in antiphospholipid syndrome
Antiphospholipids Anticardiolipin Anti-β2-GP1 antibodies
830
This syndrome may occur with SLE or in isolation and is responsible for recurrent arterial and/or venous thromboembolism, recurrent spontaneous abortions or thrombocytopenia in the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies but without features of SLE. Livedo reticularis, skin ulcers and neuropsychiatric disturbances have also been noted. If suspected, commence aspirin 150–300 mg (o) daily and refer to a consultant, especially during pregnancy
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
831
which is the commonest of the connective tissue disorders, is described as the ‘great pretender’.3 It is a multisystem autoimmune disorder with a wide variety of clinical features that are due to vasculitis (see FIG. 21.2 ). Arthritis is the commonest feature of SLE (90% of cases). Milder manifestations outnumber more severe forms.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
832
Prevalence about 1 in 1000 of population Mainly affects women in ‘high oestrogen’ period (90% of cases) Peak onset between 15 and 45 years
Systemic lupus erythematosus
833
Fever, malaise, tiredness common Multiple drug allergies, e.g. sulfonamides Problems with oral contraceptive pill and pregnancy Course of remission and flares
Systemic lupus erythematosus
834
DxT polyarthritis + fatigue + skin lesions →
Systemic lupus erythematosus
835
Malar (butterfly) rash Discoid rash Photosensitivity Arthritis (symmetric non-erosive arthritis in ≥2 peripheral joints) Oral ulcers (usually painless) Serositis (pleurisy or pericarditis) Kidney features (proteinuria or cellular casts) Neurological features (intractable headache, seizures or psychosis) Haematological features (haemolytic anaemia, leucopenia, lymphopenia or thrombocytopenia) Immunological features (positive anti-dsDNA, antiphospholipid antibodies, anticardiolipin or anti-Sm tests and false-positive syphilis serology) Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test
SLE
836
ESR/CRP—elevated in proportion to disease activity | ANA test—positive in 95% (perform first) (key test) but poor specificity
SLE
837
dsDNA antibodies—90% specific for SLE but present in only 60% (key test) ENA antibodies, especially Sm—highly specific Rheumatoid factor—positive in 50% LE cell test—inefficient and not used
SLE
838
For suspected SLE, the recommended approach is to perform an ANA test. If positive, then order dsDNA and ENA antibodies
SLE
839
Mild: NSAIDs (for arthralgia) Moderate (especially skin, joint serosa involved): low-dose antimalarials (e.g. hydroxychloroquine up to 6 mg/kg once daily) (e.g. 400 mg (o) daily for 3 months, then 200 mg daily long term)
SLE,
840
Rule: treat early and avoid long-term and unnecessary steroid use.
SLE,
841
Severe: corticosteroids are the mainstay (e.g. prednisolone initially 25–60 mg (o) daily then 7.5–15 mg (o) daily); immunosuppressive steroid-sparing drugs (e.g. azathioprine, methotrexate with folic acid, bDMARDs (e.g. rituximab, belimumab) may be used for severe arthralgia and IV or oral cyclophosphamide for organ damage
SLE
842
This can present as a polyarthritis affecting the fingers in 25% of patients, especially in the early stages. Soft tissue swelling produces a ‘sausage finger’ pattern. Scleroderma mainly affects the skin with fibrotic thickening. It presents with Raynaud phenomenon in over 85% of patients
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
843
There are three clinical variants: 1 limited cutaneous disease, e.g. morphea 2 cutaneous with limited organ involvement (CREST) 3 diffuse systemic disease (systemic sclerosis)
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
844
Female to male ratio = 3:1 A progressive disease of multiple organs Raynaud phenomenon Stiffness and tightness of fingers and other skin areas (see FIG. 21.4 ) ‘Bird-like’ facies (mouth puckered) Dysphagia and diarrhoea (malabsorption) Oesophageal dysmotility Respiratory symptoms: pulmonary fibrosis Cardiac symptoms: vasculopathy, pericarditis, pulmonary arterial hypertension, etc. Look for tight skin on chest (Roman breastplate)
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
845
DxT finger discomfort + arthralgia + GORD (± skin tightness) →
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
846
ESR may be raised Normocytic normochromic anaemia may be present ANA test—up to 90% positive (relatively specific) Rheumatoid factor—positive in 30% Anticentromere antibodies—specific (positive in 90% with limited disease and 5% with diffuse) Antitopoisomerase I (anti-Scl-70) antibody is specific but only positive in 20–30% Skin biopsy—increase in dermal collagen
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
847
Empathic explanation, patient education Analgesics and NSAIDs for pain Avoid vasospasm (no smoking, beta blockers, ergotamine); calcium-channel blockers such as nifedipine may help Raynaud Monitor blood pressure Treat malabsorption if present; skin emollients D-penicillamine can help if there is significant systemic or cutaneous involvement
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
848
``` Calcinosis Raynaud phenomenon Oesophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia Anticentromere antibody (invariably positive) ```
CREST syndrome
849
is an uncommon systemic disorder with inflammation of skin and muscle whose main feature is symmetrical muscle weakness and wasting involving the proximal muscles of the shoulder and pelvic girdles.
Polymyositis
850
Any age group Peak incidence 40–60 years Female to male ratio = 2:1 Muscle weakness and wasting proximal limb muscles Main complaint is weakness Muscle pain and tenderness in about 50% Arthralgia or arthritis in about 50% (resembles distribution of rheumatoid arthritis) Dysphagia in about 50% due to oesophageal involvement Raynaud phenomenon Consider associated malignancy: lung and ovary
Polymyositis
851
DxT weakness + joint and muscle pain + violaceous facial rash →
dermatomyositis
852
rash shows features of photosensitivity. There is heliotrope (violet) discolouration of the eyelids (see FIG. 21.5 ), forehead and cheeks, and possible erythema resembling sunburn and peri-orbital oedema. A classic sign is a macular rash over the upper chest, back and shoulders. There is a characteristic rash on the hands, especially the fingers and nail folds. The knees and elbows are commonly involved.
dermatomyositis
853
Muscle enzyme studies (serum creatine kinase and aldolase) | Antibody associations, e.g. anti-Jo1
dermatomyositis
854
Biopsies—skin and muscle | EMG studies—show characteristic pattern
dermatomyositis
855
Treatment includes corticosteroids, hydroxychloroquine and cytotoxic drugs. Early referral is appropriate. Malignancy surveillance is important due to an increased risk of common cancers.
dermatomyositis
856
The underdiagnosed syndrome of dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) in the absence of rheumatoid arthritis or any other autoimmune disease is known as primary Sjögren syndrome (SS). There is lymphoid infiltration of the exocrine glands
Sjögren syndrome
857
primary SS—limited or multisystem secondary SS—occurs in association with other CTDs including rheumatoid arthritis (accounts for 50%) or systemic sclerosis
Sjögren syndrome
858
Fatigue Sicca (xerostomia, dry eyes, dry vagina) Difficulty swallowing food Increased dental caries; denture dysfunction Salivary gland enlargement; reduced salivation Xerotrachea → chronic dry cough; hoarseness Dyspareunia Arthralgia ± non-erosive arthritis
Sjögren syndrome
859
DxT dry eyes + dry mouth + arthritis →
Sjögren syndrome
860
Autoantibody tests—positive ANA(ENA), Ro (SSA), La (ss-B) | Elevated ESR, +ve RA factor, possibly anaemia
Sjögren syndrome
861
Schirmer tear test (measures conjunctival dryness)
Sjögren syndrome
862
Referral to rheumatologist Treatment is symptomatic for dry eyes, mouth and vagina; arthralgia NSAIDs, hydroxychloroquine or steroids for arthritis
Sjögren syndrome
863
It is classified as either primary (without associated disease) or secondary (when associated with any CTD).
Raynaud phenomenon
864
Patients with primary Raynaud may progress to a CTD but the likelihood is low (5–15%) and the delay to diagnosis is long (average of 10 years).2 The more severe the Raynaud, the more likely it is to progress to systemic disease.
Raynaud phenomenon
865
``` is a clinical syndrome of episodic arteriolar vasospasm usually involving the fingers and toes (one or two at a time). ```
Raynaud phenomenon
866
are a heterogeneous group of disorders involving inflammation and necrosis of blood vessels, the clinical effects and classification depending on the size of the vessels involved
The vasculitides or vasculitis syndromes
867
Small vessel vasculitis is the common type encountered in practice. Medium vessel vasculitis includes polyarteritis nodosa and large vessel vasculitis includes giant cell arteritis
The vasculitides or vasculitis syndromes
868
Symptoms suggestive of vasculitis include systemic (malaise, fever, weight loss, arthralgia), skin lesions (e.g. purpura, ulcers, infarction), respiratory (wheeze, cough, dyspnoea), ENT (epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting), chest pain (angina), kidney (haematuria, proteinuria, CKF) and neurological (various, e.g. sensorimotor).
The vasculitides or vasculitis syndromes
869
This is associated with many important disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, bacterial endocarditis, Henoch–Schönlein purpura and hepatitis B. Skin lesions are usually associated with these disorders and the most common presentation is painless, palpable purpura, such as occurs with Henoch–Schönlein purpura.
Small vessel vasculitis
870
disease is suspected, early diagnosis is life-saving because of sinister kidney damage. Perform a urine examination for haematuria and proteinuria. If positive, order an ANCA test. If positive, refer urgently
If a serious ANCA-associated
871
Known as ‘pulseless disease’ or ‘aortic arch syndrome’, this vasculitis involves the aortic arch and other major arteries. It typically affects young Japanese female adults. Features include absence of peripheral pulses and hypertension
Takayasu arteritis2
872
The hallmark of PN is necrotising vasculitis of the small and medium arteries leading to skin nodules, infarctive ulcers and other serious manifestations. The cause is unknown but associations are found with drug abusers (especially adulterated drugs), B-cell lymphomas, other drugs and hepatitis B surface antigen. It should be suspected in any multisystemic disease of obscure aetiology
Polyarteritis nodosa
873
Young to middle-aged men Constitutional symptoms: fever, malaise, myalgia, weight loss Migratory arthralgia or polyarthritis Subcutaneous nodules along arterial lines Livedo reticularis and skin ulcers Kidney impairment and hypertension Cardiac disorders: arrhythmia, failure, infarction Diagnosis confirmed by biopsy or angiogram ESR raised Treatment is with corticosteroids and immunosuppressants. Refer for specialist care. Meticulous control of blood pressure is essential
Polyarteritis nodosa
874
DxT arthralgia + weight loss + fever (± skin lesions) →
polyarteritis nodosa
875
The basic pathology of this very important disease complex is GCA (synonyms: temporal arteritis, cranial arteritis).
Giant cell arteritis
876
The clinical manifestations of polymyalgia rheumatica invariably precede those of temporal arteritis, of which there is about a 50% association. The diagnosis is based on clinical grounds. No definite cause has been found.
Giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica
877
Pain and stiffness in proximal muscles of shoulder and pelvic girdle, cervical spine (refer FIG. 21.7 ) Symmetrical distribution Typical ages 60–70 years (rare <50) Both sexes: more common in women Early morning stiffness lasting >45 minutes May be systemic symptoms: weight loss, malaise, anorexia, fever
Clinical features (polymyalgia rheumatica)
878
Painful restriction of movement of shoulders and hips (other joints not usually involved) Signs may be absent later in day ESR typically >40 but may be normal
Clinical features (polymyalgia rheumatica)
879
DxT malaise + painful shoulder girdle + morning stiffness (>50 years) →
Clinical features (polymyalgia rheumatica)
880
``` Age >50 New headache—unilateral, throbbing (see CHAPTER 45 ) Visual symptoms, e.g. diplopia Temporal artery tenderness Polymyalgia rheumatica Loss of pulsation of temporal artery Jaw claudication Biopsy of temporal artery (5 cm) is diagnostic ```
Clinical features (temporal arteritis)
881
DxT fatigue/malaise + headache + jaw claudication →
Clinical features (temporal arteritis)
882
No specific test for polymyalgia rheumatica ESR—extremely high, >50 mm/hr C-reactive protein—elevated Mild anaemia (normochromic, normocytic)
polymyalgia rheumatica
883
Refer any patient with suspected _________urgently.
GCA
884
Prednisolone Starting dose: ____________________: 1 mg/kg (usually 60 mg) (o) daily initially for 4 weeks (+ aspirin 100 mg/day) then gradual reduction according to ESR/CRP
temporal (giant cell) arteritis
885
Prednisolone ____________________: 15 mg (o) daily for 4 weeks, then reduce daily dose by 2–5 mg every 4 weeks to 10 mg/day, then 1 mg every 4–8 weeks to zero
polymyalgia rheumatica
886
Taper down gradually to the minimum effective dose (often <5 mg daily) according to the clinical response and the ESR and CRP. Aim for treatment for 2 years. Relapses are common. If complicated (e.g. evolving visual loss) give IV methylprednisolone for 3 days prior to oral agents.
Prednisolone
887
Azathioprine or methotrexate can be used as steroid-sparing agents.
Giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica
888
In ____________________, a delay in diagnosis after presenting with amaurosis fugax and non-specific symptoms can have tragic consequences, in the form of ischaemic events such as blindness and strokes.
giant cell arteritis
889
is a systemic (multiorgan) vasculitis of unknown aetiology, affecting veins and arteries of all sizes. The main feature is painful oral ulceration and the hallmark is the ‘pathergy’ reaction whereby simple trauma such as a pinprick can cause a papule or pustule to form within a few hours at the site.
Behçet syndrome2
890
``` Male to female ratio = 2:1 Recurrent oral and/or genital ulceration Arthritis (usually knees) Skin changes, e.g. erythema nodosum Ocular symptoms—pain, reduced vision, floaters (ocular inflammation) There is no specific diagnostic test. ```
Behçet syndrome2
891
Associated problems/complications: repeated uveitis and retinitis → blindness, colitis, venous thrombosis, meningoencephalitis. Treatment: high-dose steroids and specific ulcer treatment. DMARDs or bDMARDs may be required.
Behçet syndrome
892
Patients with Behçet eye disease should be referred promptly for an ophthalmological opinion, which may be sight-saving
Behçet syndrome
893
this rare vasculitis of unknown cause has a classic triad: upper respiratory tract (URT) granuloma, fleeting pulmonary shadows (nodules) and glomerulonephritis. Without treatment it is invariably fatal and sometimes the initial diagnosis is that made at autopsy. It is difficult to diagnose, especially as the patient (usually young to middle-aged) presents with a febrile illness and respiratory symptoms, but early diagnosis is essential. It usually gets confused with benign nasal conditions.
Granulomatosis2 with polyangiitis
894
Adolescence to elderly, mean age 40–45 years Constitutional symptoms (as for PN) Lower respiratory tract (LRT) symptoms (e.g. cough, dyspnoea) Oral ulcers Upper respiratory symptoms: rhinorrhoea, epistaxis, sinus pain, nasal septum loss, ear dysfunction Eye involvement—orbital mass Polyarthritis Kidney involvement—usually not clinically apparent (about 75% get glomerulonephritis) Chest X-ray points to diagnosis—multiple nodes, cavitations Antineutrophil antibodies (c-ANCA) are a useful diagnostic marker (not specific) Diagnosis confirmed by biopsy, usually an open l
Granulomatosis2 with polyangiitis
895
DxT malaise + URTs (e.g. rhinitis, sinusitis) + LRTs (e.g. wheeze, cough) →
Granulomatosis2 with polyangiitis
896
DxT asthma + rhinitis + vasculitis + hypereosinophilia →
Churg−Strauss | vasculitis
897
It is invariably binocular, which usually results from extraocular muscular imbalance or weakness.
Diplopia
898
Test for double vision with each eye occluded. If diplopia persists, it is uniocular. If, however, double vision disappears when either eye is covered, there is a defect of one of the muscles moving the eyeball. Determine whether diplopia occurs in any particular direction of gaze. It is most marked when moved in the direction of action of the weak muscle. Ask the patient to follow your finger, red pin or penlight with both eyes and move it in an H pattern. 3rd nerve—eye turned out: divergent squint 6th nerve—failure to abduct: convergent squint (see FIG. 22.1 )
Diplopia
899
signs occur when a lesion has interrupted a neural pathway at a level above the anterior horn cell.2 Examples include lesions in motor pathways in the cerebral cortex, internal capsule, brain stem or spinal cord.
UMN
900
Clinical examples include stroke (thrombosis, embolism or haemorrhage in the brain), tumours of the various pathways, demyelinating disease (e.g. multiple sclerosis)
UMN signs
901
occur when a lesion interrupts peripheral neural pathways from the anterior horn cell, that is, the spinal reflex arc.
Lower motor neurone lesions
902
Clinical examples include peripheral neuropathy, Guillain–Barré syndrome, poliomyelitis and a thickened peripheral nerve (e.g. leprosy).
Lower motor neurone lesions
903
is a progressive neuromuscular disorder resulting in muscular limb and bulbar weakness due to death of motor neurones in the brain, brain stem and spinal cord
Motor neurone disease (MND)
904
The sensory system is not involved, nor the cranial nerves to the eye muscles.
Motor neurone disease (MND)
905
Five to 10% of MND is inherited with an | autosomal dominant pattern; the rest is sporadic.
Motor neurone disease (MND)
906
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig disease)—combined LMN muscle atrophy plus UMN hyper-reflexia, leading to progressive spasticity. This is the most common type.
Motor neurone disease (MND)
907
progressive muscle atrophy—wasting beginning in the distal muscles; widespread fasciculation
Motor neurone disease (MND)
908
progressive bulbar (LMN) palsy and pseudobulbar palsy (LMN lesions in the brain stem motor nuclei). Results in wasted fibrillating tongue, weakness of chewing and swallowing, and of facial muscles.
Motor neurone disease (MND)
909
Weakness or muscle wasting—first noticed in hands (weak grip) or feet Stumbling (spastic gait, foot drop) Difficulty with swallowing Difficulty with speech, for example, slurring, hoarseness Fasciculation (twitching) of skeletal muscles and fibrillating tongue Cramps Emotional instability, depression ± Muscle pain
Motor neurone disease (MND)
910
is incurable and progresses to death usually within 3–5 years from ventilatory failure/aspiration pneumonia.
Motor neurone disease (MND)
911
No treatment is proven to influence outcome although riluzole, a sodium channel blocker, appears to slow progression slightly. Baclofen 10 mg bd may help symptoms of cramp. Botulinum toxin may help spasticity and propantheline or amitriptyline for drooling. Multidisciplinary care is essential. Management is supportive.
Motor neurone disease (MND)
912
The tremor of PD is present at rest. The hand tremor is most marked with the arms supported on the lap and during walking. The characteristic movement is ‘pill-rolling’ where movement of the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints is combined with movements of the thumb.
Resting tremor—Parkinsonian
913
The resting tremor decreases on finger–nose testing. The best way to evoke the tremor is to distract the patient, such as focusing attention on the left hand with a view to ‘examining’ the right hand or by asking the patient to turn the head from side to side.
Resting tremor—Parkinsonian
914
This fine tremor is noted by examining the patient with the arms outstretched and the fingers apart. The tremor may be rendered more obvious if a sheet of paper is placed over the dorsum of the hands. The tremor is present throughout movement, being accentuated by voluntary contraction.
Action or postural tremor
915
Essential tremor (also called familial tremor or benign essential tremor) Senile tremor Physiological Anxiety/emotional Hyperthyroidism Alcohol Drugs, for example, drug withdrawal (e.g. heroin, cocaine, alcohol), amphetamines, lithium, sympathomimetics (bronchodilators), sodium valproate, heavy metals (e.g. mercury), caffeine, amiodarone Phaeochromocytoma
Action or postural tremor
916
This coarse oscillating tremor is absent at rest but exacerbated by action and increases as the target is approached. It is tested by ‘finger–nose–finger’ touching or running the heel down the opposite shin, and past pointing of the nose is a feature. It occurs in cerebellar lobe disease, with lesions of cerebellar connections and with some medications.
Intention tremor (cerebellar disease)
917
A flapping or ‘wing-beating’ tremor is observed when the arms are extended with hyperextension of the wrists. It involves slow, coarse and jerky movements of flexion and extension at the wrists. Note: Flapping (asterixis) is not strictly a tremor
Flapping (metabolic tremor)
918
``` Wilson syndrome Hepatic encephalopathy Uraemia Respiratory failure Lesions of the red nucleus of the midbrain (the classic cause of a flap) ```
Flapping (metabolic tremor)
919
which is probably the most common movement disorder (2–5% prevalence), has been variously called benign, familial, senile or juvenile tremor.
Essential tremor
920
Autosomal dominant disorder (variable penetrance) Often begins in early adult life, even adolescence Usually begins with a slight tremor in both hands May involve head (titubation), chin and tongue and rarely trunk and legs Interferes with writing (not micrographic), handling cups of tea and spoons, etc. Tremor most marked when arms held out (postural tremor); less evident at rest Tremor exacerbated by anxiety May affect speech if it involves bulbar musculature Relieved by alcohol Can swing arm and gait normal
Essential tremor
921
Positive family history Tremor with little disability Normal gait
Essential tremor
922
This is not always easy as a postural tremor can be present in PD, although the hand tremor is most marked at rest with the arms supported on the lap. Parkinsonian tremor is slower at 4–6 Hz while essential tremor is much faster at around 8–13 Hz. Imaging is unnecessary
Distinguishing essential tremor from Parkinson disease
923
A most useful way to differentiate the two causes is to observe the gait. It is normal in essential tremor but in PD there may be loss of arm swing and the step is usually shortened with stooped posture and shuffling gait.
Distinguishing essential tremor from Parkinson disease
924
use propranolol (first choice) or primidone 62.5 mg nocte (up to 250 mg).3 A typical starting dose of propranolol is 10–20 mg bd; many require 120–240 mg/day.3 If the tremor is only intrusive at times of increased emotional stress, intermittent use of benzodiazepines (e.g. lorazepam 1 mg) 30 minutes before exposure to the stress may be all that is required. Modest alcohol intake (e.g. a glass of whisky) is very effective. A standard drink of alcohol often alleviates the tremor. Larger doses of alcohol have no additional effect. If drugs fail, deep brain stimulation to the thalamus can be used.
Essential tremor
925
is a disorder of the automatic processor of the brain which relies on dopamine to maintain movements at a selected size and speed. Loss of dopamine causes movements to become smaller and slower. The pathological features are loss of dopamineproducing neurones from the substantia nigra in the brain stem together with Lewy bodies in the neurones.4 Genetic factors occur in 5% of individuals.
Parkinson disease
926
One of the most important clinical aspects of PD, which has a slow and insidious onset, is the ability to make an early diagnosis. Sometimes this can be very difficult, especially when the tremor is absent or mild, as occurs with the atherosclerotic degenerative type of Parkinsonism. The lack of any specific abnormality on special investigation leaves the responsibility for a diagnosis based on the history and examination. As a general rule of thumb the diagnosis of PD is restricted to those who respond to levodopa (L-dopa)—the rest are termed Parkinsonism or ‘Parkinson plus’.
Parkinson disease
927
1. Tremor (at rest) 2. Rigidity 3. Bradykinesia/hypokinesia 4. Postural instability 5. Gait freezing ≥2 signs = Parkinson disease
Parkinson disease
928
PD is a most common and disabling chronic neurological disorder. About 90% are idiopathic. The prevalence in Australia is 120–150 per 100 000.5 Lifetime risk is 1 in 40.
Parkinson disease
929
The incidence rises sharply over 70 years of age (peak 65 years).5 The diagnosis is based on the history and examination. Always think of PD in an older person presenting with falls. A reduced sense of smell is one of the first symptoms. Others that may precede PD include constipation, REM sleep disorders and orthostatic hypotension. Non-motor automatic dysfunctions: cognition, behaviour, mood. Hemi-parkinsonism can occur; all the signs are confined to one side and thus must be differentiated from hemiparesis. In fact, most cases of PD start unilaterally. Always consider drug-induced Parkinsonism. The usual drugs are phenothiazines, butyrophenones and reserpine. Tremor is uncommon but rigidity and bradykinesia may be severe. Other causes include vascular (atherosclerosis) and normal pressure hydrocephalus.
Parkinson disease
930
Power, reflexes and sensation are usually normal. Muscle tone is increased: patients display cogwheel or lead-pipe rigidity when tested at wrist. The earliest abnormal physical signs to appear are loss of dexterity of rapid alternating movements and absence of arm swing, in addition to increased tone with distraction. Positive frontal lobe signs, such as grasp and glabellar taps (only allow three blinks), are more common with Parkinsonism. Note: There is no laboratory test for PD—it is a clinical diagnosis. Hypothyroidism and depression, which also cause slowness of movement, may cause confusion with diagnosis. Note: The Steele–Richardson–Olszewksi syndrome (also known as progressive supranuclear palsy—PSP parkinsonism, mild dementia and vertical gaze dysfunction) is worth considering
Parkinson disease
931
``` Walking sticks (which spread the centre of gravity) with appropriate education into their use may be necessary to help prevent falls, and constant care is required. Admission to a nursing home for end-stage disease may be appropriate. Correct dopamine deficiency and/or block cholinergic excess in the brain ```
Parkinson disease
932
Avoid postponing treatment. It should be commenced as soon as symptoms interfere with working capacity or the patient’s enjoyment of life. This will be apparent only if the correct questions are asked as the patient may accept impaired enjoyment without appreciating that it is due to PD. Start low—L-dopa 100/25 (½ tab bd) and go slow. There is usually no difference between the L-dopa preparations. The dosage should be tailored so that the patient neither develops side effects nor is on an inadequate dose of medication without significant therapeutic benefit (see TABLE 22.6 ). The dose usually progresses to 1 tab bd, then consider add-on therapy.
Parkinson disease
933
The older drugs, such as anticholinergics and amantadine, still have a place in modernmanagement but L-dopa, which basically counters bradykinesia, is the best drug and the baseline of treatment. With the onset of disability (motor disturbances), L-dopa in combination with a decarboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa or benserazide) in a 4:1 ratio should be introduced. L-dopa therapy does not significantly improve tremor but improves rigidity, dyskinesia and gait disorder. It is preferred in those >70 years.10 Consider benzhexol or benztropine if tremor is the feature, especially in young patients. The new non-ergot derivative dopamine agonists (e.g. pramipexole and rotigotine) can be used in treatment, especially with the L-dopa ‘on–off’ phenomenon (fluctuations throughout the day), and also as first-line monotherapy in early PD in certain circumstances and with caution.8 They are preferred to the ergot derivatives because of a superior adverse effect profile. They appear to be most effective when used in combination. The ergot derivatives can have serious adverse effects, including cardiac valve damage, and are no longer recommended. Selegiline is an effective second-line drug, especially in combination with Sinemet. If there is associated pain, depression or insomnia, the tricyclic agents (e.g. amitriptyline) can be effective
Parkinson disease
934
Mild (minimal disability): L-dopa preparation (low dose), e.g. L-dopa 100 mg + carbidopa 25 mg (½ tab bd—increase gradually as necessary to 1 tab (o) tds) or amantadine 100 mg (o) daily may help the young or the elderly for up to 12 months—if inadequate response selegiline up to 5 mg bd can be added to L-dopa if necessary Moderate (independent but disabled, e.g. writing, movements, gait): L-dopa preparation selegiline 1 mg bd and/or add if necessary—non-ergot
Parkinson disease
935
Severe (disabled, dependent on others): L-dopa (to maximum tolerated dose) + non-ergot dopamine agent add entacapone 200 mg (o) with each dose of L-dopa, e.g. Stalevo consider antidepressants
Parkinson disease
936
After 3–5 years of L-dopa treatment, side effects may appear in about one-half of patients:5 involuntary movements—dyskinesia end-of-dose failure (reduced duration of effect to 2–3 hours only)—consider entacapone ‘on–off’ phenomenon (sudden inability to move, with recovery in 30–90 minutes) early morning dystonia, such as clawing of toes (due to disease—not a side effect) Specialist advice is appropriate.
Parkinson disease
937
apomorphine can be used for severe akinesia not responsive to L-dopa for nausea and vomiting side effects: domperidone 20 mg (o) tds 24 hours prior to apomorphine better control may also be achieved with: amantadine 100 mg (o) bd duodopa—levodopa into jejunum
Parkinson disease
938
The preferred method is high-frequency deep brain stimulation via electrodes into the subthalamic nucleus, which may benefit all major features of the disease. The indication for surgery such as thalamotomy is erratic and disabling responses to prolonged L-dopa therapy, especially for annoying dyskinesias. It is considered more appropriate for younger patients with a unilateral tremor
Parkinson disease
939
One of the simplest diagnostic tools for PD, as compared with Parkinsonism, is a trial of therapy with L-dopa. The response is excellent while that for Parkinsonism is poor. L-dopa is the gold standard for therapy. Ensure that a distinction is made between drug-induced involuntary movements and the tremor of PD. Keep the dose of L-dopa as low as possible to avoid these drug-induced involuntary movements.
Practice tips for Parkinson disease
940
In the elderly with a fractured hip always consider PD (a manifestation of disequilibrium). Remember the balance of psychosis and PD in treatment. Keep in mind the ‘sundown’ effect—patients often go psychotic as the sun goes down. Don’t fail to attend to the needs of the family, who often suffer in silence. If drugs are to be withdrawn they should be withdrawn slowly.
Practice tips for Parkinson disease
941
is the most common cause of progressive neurological disability in the 20–50 year age group
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
942
It is generally accepted that MS is an autoimmune disorder. Genetic and environmental factors are believed to play a role
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
943
Early diagnosis is difficult because MS is characterised by widespread neurologic lesions that cannot be explained by a single anatomical lesion, and the various symptoms and signs are subject to irregular exacerbations and remissions.
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
944
The lesions are ‘separated in time and space’. The most important issue in diagnosis is the need for a high index of suspicion. The use of MRI has revolutionised the diagnosis of MS.
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
945
is a primary demyelinating disorder with demyelination occurring in plaques throughout the white and grey matter of the brain, brain stem, spinal cord and optic nerves. The clinical features depend on their location. There is a loss of brain volume
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
946
There is a variety of types of MS—relapsing remitting (most common), secondary progressive, progressive relapsing and primary progressive—together with ‘benign’ and ‘malignant’ forms.
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
947
More common in females (3:1) Peak age of onset is in the fourth decade Transient motor and sensory disturbances UMN signs Symptoms develop over several days but can be sudden Monosymptomatic initially in about 80% Only 20% have a benign disease
multiple sclerosis
948
Multiple symptoms initially in about 20% Common initial symptoms include: visual disturbances of optic neuritis (blurred vision or loss of vision in one eye—sometimes both); central scotoma with pain on eye movement (looks like unilateral papilloedema) diplopia (brain-stem lesion) weakness in one or both legs, paraparesis or monoparesis sensory impairment in the lower limbs and trunk: numbness, paraesthesia; band-like sensations; clumsiness of limb (loss of position sense); feeling as though walking on cotton wool vertigo (brain-stem lesion)
multiple sclerosis
949
Subsequent remissions and exacerbations that vary from one individual to another 80% have a relapsing remitting disease There is a progressive form, esp. in women around 50 years Anxiety, depression and other mood disorders are common
multiple sclerosis
950
Bladder disturbances, including retention of urine and urgency ‘Useless hand’ due to loss of position sense Facial palsy Trigeminal neuralgia Psychiatric symptoms In established disease, common symptoms are fatigue, impotence and bladder disturbances
multiple sclerosis
951
The diagnosis is clinical along with the MRI and depends on the following determinants
multiple sclerosis
952
Lesions are invariably UMN. >1 part of CNS is involved, although not necessarily at time of presentation. Episodes are separated in time and space. Practically MS can only be diagnosed after a second relapse or when the MRI shows new lesions.11 An early diagnosis requires evidence of contrast-enhancing lesions or new T2 lesions on the MRI indicating dissemination in time. The diagnostic criteria is based on the internationally accepted 2010 McDonald criteria
multiple sclerosis
953
Lumbar puncture: oligoclonal IgG detected in CSF in 90% of cases14 (only if necessary) Visual evoked potentials: abnormal in about 90% of cases MRI scan: usually abnormal, demonstrating MS lesions in about 90% of cases14
multiple sclerosis
954
The course is variable and difficult to predict. An early onset (<30 years) is usually ‘benign’ while a late onset (≥50 years) is often ‘malignant’. MS follows a classic history of relapses and remissions in 80–85% of patients.14 The rate of relapse is about once in 2 years. About 20% have a progressive course from the onset with a progressive spastic paraparesis (applies mainly to late-age onset). The average duration of MS is about 40 years from diagnosis to death.14 A ‘benign’ course occurs in about 30% of patients with 10–20% never suffering major disability. The median time to needing a walking aid is 15 years.8 The likelihood of developing MS after a single episode of optic neuritis is about 60%.
multiple sclerosis
955
All patients should be referred to a neurologist for confirmation of the diagnosis, which must be accurate. Explanation about the disorder and its natural history should be given. Acute relapses require treatment if causing significant disability. Depression and anxiety, which are common, require early treatment, e.g. paroxetine. CBT or mindfulness-based interventions.
multiple sclerosis
956
Mild relapses Mild symptoms, such as numbness and tingling, require only confirmation, rest and reassurance. Moderate relapses Prednisolone—in outpatient setting Severe relapses or attacks8,15 These attacks include optic neuritis, paraplegia or brain-stem signs. Admit to hospital for IV therapy: methylprednisolone 1 g in 200 mL saline by slow IV infusion (1 hour) daily for 3 days Plasma exchange may be used. Observe carefully for cardiac arrhythmias
multiple sclerosis
957
Currently first-line immunomodulators are the interferons, glatiramer acetate and the monoclonal antibodies natalizumab and alemtuzumab, or others. Interferon beta-1b (SC injection) and beta-1a (IM injection) appear to be effective (but expensive) for those with frequent and severe attacks. New agents being evaluated include teriflunomide, siponimod, daclizumab, ocrelizumab and Biotin.
multiple sclerosis
958
``` Physiotherapy Baclofen 10–25 mg (o) nocte For continuous drug therapy: baclofen 5 mg (o) tds, increasing to 25 mg (o) tds + diazepam 2–10 mg (o) tds An alternative is dantrolene Paroxysmal (e.g. neuralgias) Carbamazepine or gabapentin ```
multiple sclerosis
959
``` The reported efficacy of the cannabis-based medicine Sativex for relaxation, pain and bladder function is still being debated. One RCT showed a positive effect on detrusor activity ```
multiple sclerosis
960
refers to all conditions causing nerve damage outside the central nervous system.
Peripheral neuropathy
961
It can be a mononeuropathy, such as carpal tunnel syndrome; mononeuropathy multiplex involving multiple single nerves in an asymmetric pattern (as in vasculitides); or a polyneuropathy, which is a diffuse symmetric disorder best referred to as PN. It can be classified according to clinical progression as acute, subacute or chronic. The manifestations can be sensory, motor, autonomic or mixed (sensorimotor).
Peripheral neuropathy
962
Sensory symptoms: tingling, burning, numbness in extremities, unsteady gait (loss of position sense) Motor symptoms (LMN): weakness or clumsiness in hands, foot/wrist drop Signs: may be classic ‘glove and stocking’ sensory loss, sensory ataxia, LMN signs—distal muscle wasting, muscle weakness, reflexes absent or depressed, fasciculations
Peripheral neuropathy
963
Mostly sensory: diabetes mellitus, vitamin deficiency (folate, B1, B6, B12), alcohol, various neurotoxic drugs, leprosy, uraemia (CKF), amyloidosis, malignancy Mostly motor: lead poisoning, porphyria, various neurotoxic drugs, Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome (peroneal muscle atrophy), acquired inflammatory polyneuropathies—acute (Guillain–Barré syndrome) and chronic (chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy)
Peripheral neuropathy
964
which is a rapidly progressive and treatable cause of PN or ascending radiculopathy, is potentially fatal. Early diagnosis of this serious disease by the family doctor is crucial as respiratory paralysis may lead to death. The underlying pathology is segmental demyelination of the peripheral nerves and nerve roots
Acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain– | Barré syndrome)
965
Weakness in the limbs (usually symmetrical) Paraesthesia or pain in the limbs (less common) Both proximal and distal muscles affected, usually starts peripherally and moves proximally Facial and bulbar paralysis (rare) Weakness of extraocular muscles (rarely) Reflexes depressed or absent Variable sensory loss but rare Within 3–4 weeks the motor neuropathy, which is the main feature, progresses to a maximum disability, possibly with complete quadriparesis and respiratory paralysis
Acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain– | Barré syndrome)
966
CSF protein is elevated; cells are usually normal. | Motor nerve conduction studies are abnormal
Acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain– | Barré syndrome)
967
Admit to hospital. Respiratory function (vital capacity) should be measured regularly (2–4 hours at first). Tracheostomy and artificial ventilation may be necessary. Physiotherapy to prevent foot and wrist drop and other general care should be provided.
Acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain– | Barré syndrome)
968
Treatment is with plasma exchange or IV immunoglobulin (0.4 g/kg/day for 5 days), which may need to be continued monthly.8 Corticosteroids are not generally recommended.
Acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain– | Barré syndrome)
969
About 80% of patients recover without significant disability. Approximately 5% relapse
Acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain– | Barré syndrome)
970
This is an inherited autosomal dominant polyneuropathy with an insidious onset from puberty. Clinical features include weakness in the legs, variable distal sensory loss and muscle atrophy giving the ‘inverted champagne bottle’ appearance of the legs. The features vary according to the various subgroups. Refer for electrodiagnostic studies and specific genetic testing.
Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome
971
is an acquired autoimmune disorder that usually affects muscle strength. Patients have fluctuating symptoms and variable distribution of muscle weakness. All degrees of severity, ranging from occasional mild ptosis to fulminant quadriplegia and respiratory arrest, can occur20 (see TABLE 22.8 ). It is associated with thymic tumour and other autoimmune diseases, for example, RA, SLE, thyroid and pernicious anaemia.
Myasthenia gravis
972
Painless fatigue with exercise Weakness also precipitated by emotional stress, pregnancy, infection, surgery Variable distribution of weakness: ocular: ptosis (60%) and diplopia (see FIG. 22.7 ); ocular myasthenia only remains in about 10% bulbar: weakness of chewing, swallowing, speech (ask to count to 100), whistling and head lolling limbs (proximal and distal) generalised respiratory: breathlessness, ventilatory failure Note: The classic MG image is ‘the thinker’—the hand used to hold the mouth closed and the head up.
Myasthenia gravis
973
Serum anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies Electrophysiological tests if antibody test negative CT scan to detect thymoma Edrophonium test still useful but potentially dangerous (atropine is the antidote)
Myasthenia gravis
974
Refer for consultant management. Detect possible presence of thymoma with CT or MR scan of thorax. If present, removal is recommended. Thymectomy is recommended early for generalised myasthenia, especially in all younger patients with hyperplasia of the thymus, even if not confirmed preoperatively. Plasmapheresis is useful for acute crisis or where temporary improvement is required or patients are resistant to treatment. Avoid drugs that are relatively contraindicated. Pharmacological agents: anticholinesterase inhibitor drugs, first-line (e.g. pyridostigmine, neostigmine or distigmine), should be used only for mild-to-moderate symptoms corticosteroids are useful for all
Myasthenia gravis
975
The combination of ocular and facial weakness should alert the family doctor to the possibility of a neuromuscular disorder, especially MG or mitochondrial myopathy.19 Look for weakness and fatigue. Beware of facioscapulohumeral dystrophy.
Practice tips for myasthenia gravis
976
Ptosis may develop only after looking upwards for a minute or longer. Smiling may have a characteristic snarling quality.
Practice tips for myasthenia gravis
977
It is worth remembering that the four major causes of ptosis are: 1. 3rd cranial nerve palsy—ptosis, eye facing ‘down and out’, dilated pupil, sluggish light reflex 2. Horner syndrome—ptosis, miosis (constricted pupil), ipsilateral loss of sweating 3. Mitochondrial myopathy—progressive external ophthalmoplegia or limb weakness, induced by activity—no pupil involvement 4. Myasthenia gravis—ptosis and diplopia, no pupil involvement
Ptosis
978
are sustained or intermittent abnormal repetitive movements or postures resulting from alterations in muscle tone. The dystonic spasms may affect one (focal) or more (segmental) parts of the body or the whole body (generalised).
Dystonia
979
Misdiagnosis is common as transient symptoms may be mistaken for an emotional or psychiatric disorder. Many cases take years to diagnose. Dystonias are often regarded as nervous tics. The cause is thought to be disorders of the basal ganglia of the brain, but mainly there is no known specific cause. Neuroleptic and dopamine receptor blocking agents (e.g. L-dopa, metoclopramide) can induce a severe generalised dystonia (e.g. oculogyric crisis) which is treated with benztropine 1–2 mg IM or IV.8 However, L-dopa is the drug of choice in some L-dopa responsive dystonias
Dystonia
980
Motor and vocal tics are a feature of Tourette disorder. If socially disabling, treat with: haloperidol 0.25 mg (o) nocte, very gradually increasing to 2 g (max.) daily7 or clonidine 25 mcg (o) bd for 2 weeks, then 50–75 mcg bd
Tics
981
Idiopathic facial (7th nerve) palsy, which is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone paresis or paralysis, is the commonest cranial neuropathy. The classic type is Bell palsy, which is usually idiopathic although attributed to an inflammatory swelling involving the facial nerve in the bony facial canal. In Ramsay–Hunt syndrome, which is due to infection with herpes zoster causing facial nerve palsy, vesicles may be seen on the ipsilateral ear.
Facial nerve (Bell) palsy15
982
``` Associations: herpes simplex virus (postulated) diabetes mellitus hypertension thyroid disorder, e.g. hyperthyroidism ```
Facial nerve (Bell) palsy
983
Abrupt onset (can worsen over 2–5 days) Weakness in the face (complete or incomplete) Preceding pain in or behind the ear Impaired blinking Bell phenomenon—when closing the eye it turns up under the half-closed lid Less common: difficulty eating loss of taste—anterior two-thirds of tongue hyperacusis
Facial nerve (Bell) palsy
984
prednisolone 1 mg/kg (o) up to 75 mg (usually 60 mg) daily in the morning for 5 days (start within 48 hours of onset) Note: This is controversial, but recent randomised trials and a Cochrane review support the use of prednis(ol) one. No good evidence for antiviral drugs, but low-grade evidence for benefit if combining with a corticosteroid. Patient education and reassurance Adhesive patch or tape over eye if corneal exposure (e.g. windy or dusty conditions, during sleep) Artificial tears if eye is dry and at bedtime
Facial nerve (Bell) palsy
985
Massage and facial exercises during recovery Note: At least 70–80% achieve full spontaneous recovery; higher if mild. Remission should begin within 1 week of onset. Electromyography and nerve excitability or conduction studies are a prognostic guide only. No evidence that nucleoside analogue, for example, aciclovir, is useful but should be used for Ramsay–Hunt syndrome. No evidence that surgical procedures to decompress the nerve are beneficial
Facial nerve (Bell) palsy
986
dysarthria + intention tremor + nystagmus
→ cerebellar disease | typical of MS
987
``` visual disturbance (blurred or transient loss) + weakness in limbs ± paraesthesia in limbs ```
→ multiple sclerosis
988
rigidity + bradykinesia + resting tremor
→ Parkinson disease
989
tremor (postural or action) + head tremor + absence of | Parkinsonian features
→ essential tremor
990
fatiguable and weakness of eyelids and eye movements + limbs + bulbar muscles (speech and swallowing)
→ myasthenia gravis
991
ascending weakness of limbs + of face + areflexia*
→ Guillain–Barré | syndrome (GBS)
992
(episodic) vertigo + tinnitus + hearing loss
→ Ménière syndrome
993
dementia + myoclonus + ataxia
→ Creutzfeldt–Jakob | disease
994
drowsiness + vomiting + headache (waking)
→ ↑ intracerebral | pressure
995
enophthalmos + meiosis + ptosis ± anhydrosis
→ Horner syndrome
996
blank spell + lip-smacking (or similar automation) + | olfactory/gustatory hallucination
→ complex partial | seizure
997
gradual spread (Jacksonian march) of focal jerking (mouth, arm or leg) or sensory disturbance or (rarely) visual field disturbance
→ simple partial | seizure
998
↑ intracranial pressure +/or focal signs +/or epilepsy
→ cerebral tumour
999
dysphagia + dysphonia/dysarthria + spastic tongue
→ pseudobulbar | palsy
1000
recurrent: headache (often unilateral) + nausea (± | vomiting) + visual aura*
→ migraine with aura | (formerly ‘classical
1001
recurrent: severe retro-orbital headache + rhinorrhoea | + lacrimation*
→ cluster headache
1002
instantaneous: headache ± vomiting ± neck stiffness
→ subarachnoid haemorrhage until disproven
1003
headache + visual obscurations + papilloedema (often | in obese young female)
→ benign intracranial | hypertension
1004
acute and transient: amaurosis fugax or dysphasia or | hemiplegia*
→ TIA (carotid)
1005
``` typical facies (temporalis atropy and frontal balding) + muscle weakness esp. hands (± myotonia) + cataracts ```
→ dystrophia myotonica (myotonic dystrophy)
1006
vertigo + provoked by movement (especially rolling in | bed) + Hallpike test +ve
→ BPPV
1007
UMN signs + LMN signs + fasciculations
→ motor neurone | disease
1008
leg weakness + ataxic gait + clumsiness (appears | about 12 years)
→ Friedreich ataxia
1009
limb weakness + flaccid paralysis (day after exercise in | a young person)
→ familial periodic | paralysis
1010
which is a disorder of iron overload, is the most common | serious single gene genetic disorder in our population.
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1011
It is a common condition in which the total body iron concentration is increased to 20–60 g (normal 4 g). The excess iron is deposited in and can damage several organs: liver—cirrhosis (10% develop cancer) pancreas—‘bronze’ diabetes
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1012
skin—bronze or leaden grey colour heart—restrictive cardiomyopathy pituitary—hypogonadism, impotence joints—arthralgia (especially hands), chondrocalcinosis It is usually hereditary (autosomal recessive = AR) or may be secondary to chronic haemolysis and multiple transfusions. Note: Hereditary haemochromatosis is the genetic condition; haemosiderosis is the secondary condition.
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1013
Being an autosomal recessive disorder, the patient must inherit two altered (mutated) copies of the gene. It is a problem mainly affecting Caucasians, usually from middle age onwards. About 1 in 10 people are silent carriers of one mutated gene, while 1 in 200 are homozygous and are at risk of developing haemochromatosis. These people can have it to a variable extent (the penetrance factor), and some are asymptomatic while others have a serious problem. It is rare for symptoms to manifest before the third decade.
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1014
homozygous C282Y—high risk for HHC homozygous H63D—unlikely to develop clinical HHC heterozygous C282Y and H63D—milder form of HHC The key diagnostic sensitive markers are serum transferrin saturation and the serum ferritin level. The serum iron level is not a good indicator. An elevated ferritin level is not diagnostic of HHC but is the best serum marker of iron overload.
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1015
Most patients are asymptomatic but may have extreme lethargy, abdominal discomfort, signs of chronic liver disease, polyuria and polydipsia, arthralgia, erectile dysfunction, loss of libido and joint signs. Signs: look for hepatomegaly, very tanned skin, cardiac arrhythmias, joint swelling, testicular atrophy.
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1016
Increased serum transferrin saturation: >50% (F); >60% (M)
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1017
Increased serum ferritin level: >200 mcg/L (F); >300 mcg/L (M) (see CHAPTER 13 ) CT, MRI or FerriScan—increased iron deposition in liver Liver biopsy (if liver function test enzymes are abnormal or ferritin >1000 mcg/L or hepatomegaly)—FerriScan now preferred Genetic studies: HFE gene—a C282Y and/or H63D mutation Screen first-degree relatives (serum ferritin levels and serum transferrin saturation in older relatives and genetic testing in younger ones). No need to screen before adulthood. HbEPG gene for pregnant patient and partner. Routine screening not recommended Note: Full blood count (FBE) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are normal.
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1018
Refer for specialist care Weekly venesection 500 mL (250 mg iron) until serum iron stores are normal (may take at least 2 years), then every 3–4 months to keep serum ferritin level <100 mcg/L (usually 40–80 mcg/L), serum transferrin saturation <50% and iron levels normal Desferrioxamine can be used but not as effective as venesection Normal, healthy low-iron diet Avoid or limit alcohol Avoid iron tablets and vitamin C Life expectancy is normal if treated before cirrhosis or diabetes develops
Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),
1019
is the result of a defect in an ion channel protein, the cystic fibrosis transmembrane receptor, which is found in the membranes of cells lining the exocrine ducts. The defect affects the normal transport of chloride ions, leading to a decreased sodium and water transfer, thus causing viscid secretions that affect the lungs, pancreas and gut.
Cystic fibrosis
1020
The most common AR paediatric illness | About 1 in 2500 Caucasians affected
Cystic fibrosis
1021
``` About 1 in 20–25 are carriers A mutation (δ-F508) of chromosome 7 is the most common of some 500 possible mutations of the gene. This deletes a single phenylalanine residue from a 1480-amino acid chain. ```
Cystic fibrosis
1022
General: malaise, failure to thrive, exercise intolerance Chronic respiratory problems: cough, recurrent pneumonia, bronchiectasis, sinus tenderness, nasal polyps Gastrointestinal: malabsorption, pale loose bulky stools, jaundice (pancreatic effect), meconium ileus (10% of newborn babies) Infertility in males (atrophy of vas deferens) Pancreatic insufficiency Early mortality but improving survival rates (mean age now 31 years)
Cystic fibrosis
1023
DxT failure to thrive + chronic cough + loose bowel actions →
Cystic fibrosis
1024
Screening for immunoreactive trypsin/trypsinogen in newborns detects 75% Sweat test for elevated chloride and sodium levels DNA testing for carriers identifies only the most common mutations (70–75%)
cystic fibrosis
1025
Early diagnosis and multidisciplinary team care are important Physiotherapy for drainage of airway secretions Hypertonic saline solution (by nebuliser) preceded by a bronchodilator Treatment of infections: therapeutic and prophylactic antibiotics Oral pancreatic enzyme replacement Dietary manipulation Lung and liver transplantation are considerations
cystic fibrosis
1026
NF1—peripheral neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disorder) NF2—central type, bilateral acoustic neuromas (schwannomas) (rare) The gene for NF1 is carried on chromosome 17 and NF2 on chromosome 22. Diagnostic genetic testing is not routinely available. Diagnosis is by clinical examination.
Neurofibromatosis
1027
DxT light-brown skin patches + skin tumours + axillary freckles →
NF1
1028
Six or more café-au-lait spots (increasing with age) Freckling in the axillary or inguinal regions Flesh-coloured cutaneous tumours (appear at puberty) Hypertension Eye features (iris hamartomas) Learning difficulty Musculoskeletal problems (e.g. scoliosis, fibrous dysplasia, pseudoarthrosis) Optic nerve gliomas
NF1
1028
Six or more café-au-lait spots (increasing with age) Freckling in the axillary or inguinal regions Flesh-coloured cutaneous tumours (appear at puberty) Hypertension Eye features (iris hamartomas) Learning difficulty Musculoskeletal problems (e.g. scoliosis, fibrous dysplasia, pseudoarthrosis) Optic nerve gliomas
NF1
1029
One-third asymptomatic, only have skin stigmata One-third minor problems, mainly cosmetic One-third significant problems (e.g. neurological tumours)
NF1
1030
No special treatment available Surgical excisions of neurofibromas as appropriate Refer to a special clinic, including neurofibroma clinic Careful surveillance—report new symptoms Yearly examination for children and adults, including blood pressure, neurological, skeletal and ophthalmological examination
NF1
1031
is a progressive proximal muscle weakness disorder with replacement of muscle by connective tissue. Becker muscular dystrophy is a less severe variant. Early diagnosis is important. First signs are delayed motor development, speech and language.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
1032
DMD is an X-linked recessive condition. It is caused by a mutation in the gene coding for dystrophin, a protein found inside the muscle cell membrane.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
1033
Usually diagnosed from 2–5 years Weakness in hip and shoulder girdles Walking problems: delayed onset or starting in boys aged 3–7 Waddling gait, falls, difficulty standing and climbing steps Pseudohypertrophy of muscles, especially calves Most in wheelchair by age 10–12 ± Intellectual retardation/learning difficulties Most die of respiratory problems by age 25 Gower sign: patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hands to climb up his or her legs when rising to an erect position from the floor
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
1034
DxT male child + gait disorder + bulky calves →
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
1035
Elevated serum creatinine kinase level Electromyography Direct dystrophin gene testing Muscle biopsy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
1036
Counselling, especially genetic counselling, education, screening (especially mother) No specific treatment available; support; corticosteroids delay progression
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
1037
Claimed to be the leading genetic cause of infant death, SMA includes several types, all manifesting as progressive muscle wasting and leading to early death in the more severe types
Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
1038
SMA is autosomal recessive and due to mutation in SMN1 gene on chromosome 5. Prevalence 1 in 6000–10 000; carriers 1 in 40.
Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
1039
Muscle weakness, poor tone and floppiness Feeding difficulties and feeble cry in babies Weak swallowing, coughing and breathing Normal intelligence and sensory modalities Diagnosis is by DNA screening at birth and EEG studies. There is no cure at present and treatment is mainly supportive. Zolgensma gene therapy is given as a single IV injection into children <2 years before symptoms appear. Intrathecal injections of nusinersen are available.
Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
1040
About 1 in 25 Ashkenazi Jews is a carrier of Tay–Sachs disease (gangliosidosis), an AR disorder caused by a total deficiency of hexosaminidase A resulting in an accumulation of gangliosides in the brain.
Tay–Sachs disease
1041
This autosomal recessive disorder of the catabolism of the amino acid, phenylalanine, is caused by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase activity, leading to an elevation of plasma phenylalanine, which if untreated can cause intellectual disability (often very severe) and other neurological symptoms, such as seizures. Neonatal screening for high blood phenylalanine levels (the Guthrie test) is performed routinely.
Phenylketonuria (PKU)10
1042
Tourette syndrome appears to be a genetic condition since a child of a person with TS has a 50% chance of developing it (possibly AD with variable penetrance).
Tourette syndrome
1043
Inherited as an AD disorder. The responsible mutant gene has been located on the short arm of chromosome 4. One genetic mutation accounts for the vast majority of cases, which means that there is an accurate diagnostic test. Both sexes are equally affected.
Huntington disease10
1044
DxT chorea + abnormal behaviour + dementia + family history →
Huntington disease
1045
Insidious onset and progression of chorea Onset most often between 35 and 55 years Mental changes—change in behaviour (can be as early as childhood or in very late life), intellectual deterioration leading to dementia Family history present in the majority Motor symptoms: flicking movements of arms, lilting gait, facial grimacing, ataxia, dystonia Usually a fatal outcome 15–20 years from onset
Huntington disease
1046
This is available, sensitive and important because offspring have a 1 in 2 risk and the onset may be late—after child-bearing years. It is appropriate to refer to expert centres for those seeking it. Of interest is that only 20% have undergone testing since it became available, indicating that those at risk generally prefer the uncertainty of not knowing the reality.
Huntington disease
1047
Early-onset familial Alzheimer disease (EoFAD), which accounts for less than 1% of all Alzheimer disease, is defined as the presence of two or more affected people with onset age <65 years in more than one generation of a family, with postmortem pathologically proven Alzheimer disease in at least one person. There are two forms of FAD: early onset (EoFAD <65 years) and late onset (LoFAD). Mutations in any one of three different forms (alleles) of the susceptible APOE gene are known to cause FAD
Familial Alzheimer disease (FAD)
1048
Most cases are sporadic, and the majority of cases with a family history do not have a clear inheritance pattern and could be the result of several factors including a genetic predisposition or simply a chance aggregation. Consider referral to a neurogenetics clinic for families with unusual features, such as familial aggregation and/or early-onset Parkinson disease.
Parkinson disease
1049
Five to 10% of motor neurone disease is inherited, with an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. Inherited MND shows familial aggregation and an earlier age of onset than average (40s or younger); otherwise clinical features are essentially the same as the sporadic form (see CHAPTER 22 ). If more than one family member presents with MND consider referral to a neurogenetic clinic.
Motor neurone disease (MND) (amyotrophic lateral | sclerosis)
1050
the most common human single-gene disorders in the world, are a group of hereditary disorders characterised by a defect in the synthesis of one or more of the globin chains (α or β)—there are two of each (α2, β2). This causes defective haemoglobin synthesis leading to hypochromic microcytic anaemia. α-thalassaemia is usually seen in people of Asian origin while β-thalassaemia is seen in certain ethnic groups from the Mediterranean, the Middle East, South- East Asia and the Indian subcontinent. However, in our multicultural communities one cannot assume a person’s origins. It is recommended that all women of child-bearing age be screened for thalassaemia. The thalassaemias are described as ‘trait’ when there are laboratory features without clinical expression.
Thalassaemia
1051
α-thalassaemia is usually due to the deletion of one or more of the four genes for α-globin, the severity depending on the number of genes deleted: deletion of all four genes—α-thalassaemia (hydrops fetalis); of three genes—haemoglobin H disease, which results in lifelong anaemia of mild-to-moderate degree; of one or two genes—a symptomless carrier. In β-thalassaemia, the β-chains are produced in decreased quantity rather than having large deletions. People who have two mutations (one in each β-globin gene) have β-thalassaemia major. β-thalassaemia minor—a single mutation (heterozygous)—the carrier or trait state β-thalassaemia major—two mutations (homozygous)—the person who has the disorder
Thalassaemia
1052
If both parents are carriers, there is a 1 in 4 chance that their child will have the disorder. Clinical features Carriers are clinically asymptomatic and do not need treatment apart from counselling. Patients with thalassaemia major present with symptoms of severe anaemia (haemolytic anaemia). Without treatment, children with thalassaemia major are lethargic and inactive, show a failure to thrive or to grow normally, and delayed puberty, hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice. Signs usually appear after 6 months and death from cardiac failure used to be common but with regular blood transfusions and iron-chelating treatment people can now live in good health
Thalassaemia
1053
DxT pallor + jaundice + hepatosplenomegaly →
thalassaemia major
1054
FBE: in most carriers the mean corpuscular haemoglobin/mean corpuscular volume is low but can be normal. There is usually mild hypochromic microcytic anaemia but this is severe with the homozygous type. Haemoglobin electrophoresis: measures relative amounts of normal adult haemoglobin (HbA) and other variants (e.g. HbA2, HbF). This will detect most carriers. Serum ferritin level: helps distinguish from iron deficiency, which has a similar blood film. DNA analysis: for mutation detection (mainly used to detect or confirm carriers).
thalassaemia major
1055
Treatment is based on a regular blood transfusion schedule for anaemia. Avoid iron supplements. Folate supplementation and a low-iron diet are advisable. Excess iron is removed by iron chelation (e.g. desferrioxamine). Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation has been used with success.16 Splenectomy may be appropriate.
Treatment for thalassaemia major
1056
The most important abnormality in the haemoglobin (Hb) chain is sickle-cell haemoglobin (HbS), which results from a single base mutation of adenine to thymine, leading to a substitution of valine for glutamine at position 6 on the β-globin chain. The defective Hb causes the red cells to become deformed in shape—‘sickled’. The sickled cells tend to flow poorly and clog the microcirculation, resulting in hypoxia, which compounds the sickling. Such attacks, which result in tissue infarction, are called ‘crises’. Sickling is precipitated by infection, hypoxia, dehydration, cold and acidosis, and may complicate operations. The autosomal recessive disorder occurs mainly in Africans (25% carry the gene), but it is also found in India, South-East Asia, the Middle East and southern Europe.
Sickle-cell disorders
1057
Heterozygous state for HbS = sickle-cell trait | Homozygous state = sickle-cell anaemia/disease
Sickle-cell disorders
1058
This varies from being mild or asymptomatic to a severe haemolytic anaemia and recurrent painful crises. It may present in children with anaemia and mild jaundice. Children may develop digits of varying lengths from the hand-and-foot syndrome due to infarcts of small bones. Features of infarctive sickle crises include: bone pain (usually limb bones) abdominal pain chest—pleuritic pain kidney—haematuria spleen—painful infarcts precipitated by cold, hypoxia, dehydration or infection Hb electrophoresis is needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Sickle-cell anaemia
1059
Hb electrophoresis is needed to confirm the diagnosis. Long-term problems include chronic leg ulcers, susceptibility to infection, aseptic necrosis of bone (especially head of femur), blindness and chronic kidney disease. The prognosis is variable. Children in Africa often die within the first year of life. Infection is the commonest cause of death.
Sickle-cell anaemia
1060
People with this usually have no symptoms unless they are exposed to prolonged hypoxia, such as anaesthesia and flying in non-pressurised aircraft. The disorder is protective against malaria
Sickle-cell trait
1061
This is the commonest cause of inherited haemolytic anaemia in northern Europeans. It is an autosomal dominant disorder of variable severity, although in 25% of patients neither parent is affected, suggesting spontaneous mutation in some instances. Jaundice may present at birth or be delayed or occur not at all. Splenomegaly is a feature and splenectomy is considered to be the treatment of choice in severe cases. Maintenance of folic acid levels is important
Hereditary spherocytosis
1062
is a common disorder affecting over 400 million people worldwide. It is the most common red cell enzyme defect that causes episodic haemolytic anaemia because of the decreased ability of red blood cells to cope with oxidative stresses. It is an X-linked recessive inherited disorder with a high prevalence among people of African, Mediterranean or Asian ancestry. In some countries such as Malaysia there is a national screening program.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
1063
The important clinical features are: asymptomatic in many neonatal jaundice—infants at risk should be observed after delivery (at least 5 days) episodic acute haemolytic anaemia—triggered by antioxidants and infections, and drugs, especially antimalarials, sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin, quinolones, traditional medicines, vitamins C and K, high dose aspirin, fava (broad) beans and naphthalene (e.g. moth balls) There is no specific treatment. Known precipitants should be avoided. Avoid penicillin and probenecid. Diagnosis is by G6PD assay and a blood film during an attack.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
1064
is an inborn error of metabolism in which the body is unable to metabolise galactose to glucose. There are three clinical syndromes caused by differing enzyme deficiencies, one of which is galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase, which causes the classic syndrome. It is an autosomal recessive disorder with an incidence of about 1 in 60 000 births. As lactose is the major source of galactose, the infant becomes anorexic and jaundiced within a few days or weeks of taking breast milk or lactose-containing formula. It can be rapidly fatal. Management is with a galactose (mainly lactose)-free formula such as soy with added calcium and vitamins.
Galactosaemia
1065
In inherited bleeding deficiency disorders, there are deficiencies of vital factors (see CHAPTER 29 ). The common significant disorders are: haemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency)—X-linked recessive haemophilia B (factor IX deficiency)—X-linked recessive von Willebrand disease (deficiency of factor VIII:C + defective platelet factor)—autosomal dominant Others to consider are: hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler–Weber–Rendu disease) inherited thrombocytopenia
Bleeding disorders
1066
This is an autosomal dominant disorder of the development of vasculature. A strong family history aids diagnosis. Key features: mucocutaneous telangiectasia (Osler–Weber–Rendu syndrome) recurrent epistaxis in children and adolescents visceral arteriovenous malformations, e.g. GIT, lips diagnosis is clinical, aided by imaging to detect AVMs
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
1067
This should be considered in patients with a past and/or family history of DVT or other thrombotic episodes (see CHAPTER 122 ). There are several causes, including important inherited factors, which are: factor V Leiden gene mutation (activated protein C resistance) prothrombin gene mutation protein C deficiency protein S deficiency antithrombin deficiency It is important to be aware of these factors, especially in people with a past history of unexplained thrombotic episodes. Prescribing the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is an issue but preliminary screening for thrombophilias is not recommended. In factor V Leiden, the most common factor in this group, there is a 35-fold increased risk of thrombosis for those taking the OCP.
Thrombophilia
1068
______________________ is based on typical facial features (flat facies, slanting eyes, prominent epicanthic folds, small ears), hypotonia, intellectual disability and a single palmar crease.
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
1069
DxT typical facies + hypotonia + single palmar crease →
Down syndrome
1070
95% have extra chromosome of maternal origin (trisomy 21) Remainder due to either unbalances, translocations or mosaicism Prenatal screening tests include early ultrasound (nuchal translucency) and maternal serum screening in first trimester (serum maternal and fetal DNA). Karyotyping of chorionic villus sampling on amniocytes for pregnancies at risk is available. Prevalence 1 in 650 live births
Down syndrome
1071
``` Seizures (usually later onset) Impaired hearing Leukaemia Hypothyroidism Congenital anomalies (e.g. heart, duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung, TOF) Alzheimer-like dementia (fourth–fifth decade) Atlantoaxial instability Coeliac disease Diabetes ```
Down syndrome
1072
Assess child’s capabilities Refer to agencies for assessment (e.g. hearing, vision, developmental disability unit) Advise on sexuality, especially for females (i.e. menstrual management, contraception) as fertility must be presumed
Down syndrome
1073
Trisomy 18 Clinical features These include: incidence 1 in 2000 live births (approx.) microcephaly facial abnormalities, e.g. cleft lip/palate malformations of major organs, e.g. heart malformations of hands and feet—clenched hand posture neural tube defect Prognosis is poor—about one-third die in first month, <10% live beyond 12 months. Prenatal diagnosis is available
Edward syndrome10
1074
``` Trisomy 13 Clinical features These include: incidence 1 in 7000 (approx.) microcephaly brain and heart malformation ```
Patau syndrome10
1075
presents as a classic physical phenotype with large prominent ears, long narrow face, macro-orchidism and intellectual disability. It is the most common inherited cause known of developmental disability and should always be considered. The cause is the result of an increase in the size of a trinucleotide repeat in the FMR-I gene on the X chromosome (the number of sequences determines carrier or full mutant status). Any individual with significant development delay should be tested for FXS.
Fragile X syndrome (FXS)
1076
DxT characteristic facies + intellectual disability + large testes →
FXS
1077
M:F ratio 2:1 Prevalence of full mutation 1 in 4000 Variable spectrum of characteristic features, making detection difficult in some cases 1 in 250 are pre-mutation carriers Family history of intellectual disability Affects all ethnic groups Females may appear normal but may be affected
FXS
1078
``` Cytogenetic testing (karyotyping) DNA test (specific for full mutation as well as carriers) ```
FXS
1079
``` Autism or autistic-like behaviour Attention deficit in 10% (with or without hyperactivity) Seizures (20%) Connective tissue abnormalities Learning disability and speech delay Coordination difficulty Primary ovarian insufficiency Late-onset tremor/ataxia syndrome ```
FXS
1080
Careful genetic appraisal and counselling Assessment of child’s capabilities Multidisciplinary assessment, including developmental disability unit Referral for integration of speech and language therapy, special education, behaviour management Pharmacological treatment of any epilepsy, or attention or mood behaviour disorders Medications may determine whether the child remains in the community or not
FXS
1081
This uncommon disorder (1 in 10 000–15 000) has classic features, especially a bizarre appetite and eating habits, of which the GP should be aware. It is probable that there are many undiagnosed cases in the community. The most common cause is a deletion of the short arm of chromosome 15.
Prader–Willi syndrome
1082
DxT neonatal hypotonia + failure to thrive + obesity (later) →
Prader–Willi syndrome
1083
Hypotonic infants with weak suction and failure to thrive, then voracious appetite causing morbid obesity Usually manifests at 3 years
Prader–Willi syndrome
1084
Intellectual disability Narrow forehead and turned-down mouth Small hands and feet Hypogonadism
Prader–Willi syndrome
1085
Early diagnosis and referral Multidisciplinary approach Expert dietetic control With proper care and support, longevity into the eighth decade is a reality
Prader–Willi syndrome
1086
This is a systemic connective tissue disorder characterised by abnormalities of the skeletal, cardiovascular and ocular systems. It has variable expressions and is a potentially lethal disorder. If untreated, death in the 30s and 40s is common.
Marfan syndrome10
1087
DxT tall stature + dislocated lens and myopia + aortic root dilatation →
Marfan syndrome
1088
Mutations in the fibrillin gene on chromosome 15 | Autosomal dominant
Marfan syndrome
1089
``` Disproportionally tall and thin Long digits—arachnodactyly Kyphoscoliosis Joint laxity (e.g. genu recurvatum) Myopia and ectopic ocular lens High arched palate Aortic dilatation and dissection Mitral valve prolapse ```
Marfan syndrome
1090
Needs surveillance of eyes, heart and thoracic aorta Echocardiography, possibly aortic root dilatation Long-term beta blockade therapy reduces rate of dilatation Consider prophylactic cardiovascular surgery Genetic counselling for the family
Marfan syndrome
1091
This is an AD disorder with mutation of chromosome 11. It has been described as a male Turner syndrome but affects both sexes
Noonan syndrome
1092
DxT facies + short stature + pulmonary stenosis →
Noonan syndrome
1093
Characteristic facies—down-slanting palpebral fissures, widespread eyes, low-set ears ± ptosis Short stature
Noonan syndrome
1094
``` Pulmonary valve stenosis Webbed neck Failure to thrive, usually mild Abnormalities of cardiac conduction and rhythm ± Intellectual disability ```
Noonan syndrome
1095
This is due to an extra X chromosome, resulting in a male phenotype and occurring in 1 in 800 live births. Approximately 2 out of 3 are never recognised.
Klinefelter syndrome10
1096
DxT lanky men + small testes + infertility →
Klinefelter syndrome10
1097
47, XXY genotype The extra X chromosome is usually of maternal origin About 30 or more variants of the disorder
Klinefelter syndrome
1098
tall men with long limbs small firm testes ≤2 cm (10 mL) infertility (azoospermia) There may be: sparse facial hair reduced libido learning difficulties, especially reading intellectual ability may range from normal to disability increased risk of DVT, breast cancer and diabetes (screening indicated)
Klinefelter syndrome
1099
Increased gonadotrophin, low to normal testosterone
Klinefelter syndrome
1100
Transdermal testosterone
Klinefelter syndrome
1101
This is due to only one X chromosome, occurring in 1 in 4000 live female newborns; 99% of conceptions are miscarried.
Turner syndrome (gonadal dysgenesis)
1102
DxT short stature + webbed neck + facies →
Turner syndrome
1103
45 chromosomes of XO karyotype (typical Turner karyotype in 50% of cases) Many are mosaics (e.g. 45X/46XX chromosomes) Phenotypes vary
Turner syndrome
1104
Short stature—average adult height 143 cm Primary amenorrhoea in XO patient; infertility Webbing of neck Typical facies: micrognathia, low hairline Lymphoedema of extremities Cardiac defects (e.g. coarctation of aorta) Mental deficiency is rare.
Turner syndrome
1105
Hormone-based (e.g. growth hormone, hormone replacement therapy)
Turner syndrome
1106
DxT abnormal facies + growth retardation + microcephaly + history of alcohol intake during pregnancy →
fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
1107
``` Markedly underweight until puberty Learning difficulties Microcephaly Characteristic facies (needs 2 of *) shortened palpebral fissures* long, smooth featureless philtrum ```
Fetal alcohol syndrome
1108
Hyperactivity Congenital heart disease often seen Skeletal abnormalities Diagnosis based on alcohol history in pregnancy
Fetal alcohol syndrome
1109
This is an autosomal dominant condition with predisposition to ventricular arrhythmias, syncopal/fainting spells and sudden death, particularly during exercise. Confirm or exclude by ECG when suspected—interval 0.5–0.7 seconds. Management includes sports restrictions, beta blockers and pacemaker or AICD.
Congenital long QT syndrome
1110
This is an AD disorder with several genetic mutations. It is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death among athletes.
Familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
1111
Fatigue Exertional dyspnoea and chest pain Palpitations Dizziness/syncope Diagnosis by ECG (LV hypertrophy) and doppler echocardiography. Insertion of AICD may prevent sudden death.
Familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
1112
There are several types of genetic disorder of lipid metabolism including the better-known familial hypercholesterolaemia and familial combined hyperlipidaemia. The former is identified by elevated cholesterol, corneal arcus juvenalis, tendon xanthomas in the patient or their firstand second-degree relatives and also by a DNA mutation. Homozygous patients present with atherosclerosis disease in childhood and early death from myocardial infarction. Heterozygotes may develop the disorder in their 30s or 40s
Familial hyperlipoproteinaemia20
1113
Mutations in either of the two genes—BRCA1 and BRCA2—result in a strong predisposition for both breast and ovarian cancer Mutations present in about 1 in 800 of the general population (male and female), who are carriers Dominant inheritance The risk of developing breast cancer is 10-fold and 40–80% of cases occur before the age of 70 years22 The prognosis in these women is the same as for sporadic cases Early age of onset of breast cancer Male breast cancer (6% in males with BRCA2 gene mutation) Coexistence of ovarian and breast cancer in the same family Carriers of mutations may be at an increased risk of prostate cancer, pancreatic cancer and colorectal cancer, although this is controversial for the latter two
Features of breast–ovarian cancer syndrome
1114
Two first-degree or second-degree relatives on one side of the family with cancer Individuals with age of onset of cancer <50 years Individuals with bilateral or multifocal breast cancer Individuals with ovarian cancer Breast cancer in a male relative Jewish ancestry
Risk indicators for familial breast–ovarian cancer
1115
Both sexes have a risk of approximately 5% of developing bowel cancer in their lifetime. In some this risk is increased due to an inherited predisposition. The two key disorders are HNPCC and FAP.
Colorectal cancer21
1116
Caused by a defect in one of the genes responsible for DNA mismatch repair Affects 1 in 1000 individuals Autosomal dominant Early age of onset Increased risk of certain extracolonic cancers, including endometrial, stomach, ovary and kidney tract cancers Screening should occur every 1–2 years from 25 years of age or 5 years earlier than affected family member developed it
Lynch syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer)
1117
Less common than HNPCC; affects about 1 in 10 000 Caused by a mutation in the APC gene Usually hundreds or thousands of polyps Eventually almost 100% of cases develop colon cancer without prophylactic colectomy Median age of diagnosis 40 years Small increased risk of other cancers (e.g. thyroid, cerebral) Screening should occur annually from between 12–15 and 30–35 years of age, and then every 3 years
Familial adenomatous polyposis
1118
For Lynch syndrome (HNPCC): Three or more close relatives with bowel cancer Two or more close relatives with bowel cancer and: more than one bowel cancer in same relative
Individuals at risk Familial adenomatous polyposis
1119
an inherited mutation in certain genes (e.g. BRAF gene) is considered to be involved in up to 5% of melanomas. Having a first-degree relative affected almost doubles a person’s risk.
Melanoma:
1120
family history is a risk factor; some genes (e.g. BRAC1 and BRAC2) are susceptible. Refer if a significant family history
Prostate:
1121
which is due to a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme glucocerebrosidase, leads to anaemia and thrombocytopenia as a result primarily of hypersplenism. There is chronic bone pain and ‘crises’ of bone pain. Consider it in children with fatigue, bone pain, delayed growth, epistaxis, easy bruising and hepatosplenomegaly. Replacement enzyme therapy is available.
Gaucher disease
1122
This is a group of inherited disorders caused by a deficiency of one or more enzymes involved in glycogen breakdown, leading to the deposition of abnormal amounts of glycogen in tissues, especially the liver. The best-known type is 1A (von Gierke disorder), an autosomal recessive disorder due to deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase (G-6-P). It is seen in several ethnic groups. It typically causes growth retardation, hepatomegaly, renomegaly, hypoglycaemia (can be severe), lactic acidosis and hyperlipidaemia. Children have characteristic morphological features —short, doll-like facies with fat cheeks, thin extremities and large abdomen (hepatomegaly
Glycogen storage disease (liver glycogenoses)
1123
Diagnosis is by abnormal plasma lactate and lipid levels, liver biopsy and recently by gene analysis for the G-6-P gene. Treatment is aimed to prevent hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis via frequent carbohydrate feedings, such as uncooked cornstarch and overnight nasogastric glucose infusion. The prognosis is poor.
Glycogen storage disease (liver glycogenoses)
1124
The three most common porphyrias are acute intermittent porphyria, porphyria cutanea tarda (the
The porphyrias
1125
DxT severe abdominal pain + abnormal illness behaviour + ‘red’ urine →
acute intermittent porphyria
1126
Approximately 2% of births are associated with congenital abnormalities, of which 1 in 7 are chromosomal, the most common of which is Down syndrome (trisomy 21). Antenatal screening tests that can now be performed for several conditions are mainly
Prenatal screening and diagnosis of genetic | disorders24
1127
screening tests for Down syndrome and other trisomies screening tests for thalassaemias/haemoglobinopathies second-trimester ultrasound scans for fetal abnormalities, such as neural tube defects (NTD) and abdominal wall defects (AWD)
Prenatal screening and diagnosis of genetic | disorders24
1128
This has a live birth incidence of 1.4 per 1000 in Australia.20 The risk of conceiving a child with Down syndrome increases proportionally with age. For a woman aged 21, it is 1 in 1000, while for a woman aged 35, it is 1 in 275 and for a woman aged 45, it is 1 in 20. The tests available to test for Down syndrome include the following’:5,25,26 1. combined first-trimester screening tests (maternal serum screening/MSST; cell-free fetal DNA at 10–12 weeks gestation; nuchal translucency ultrasound at 11–14 weeks) 2. second-trimester MSST (4 analytes): alpha fetoprotein, oestriol, free beta hCG, inhibin A. This test is basically for women presenting later in pregnancy. A final risk is calculated by a computer program which combines other factors such as EDD age and age of gestation 3. non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT) from 10–21 weeks maternal serum. This cell-free DNA screening should be offered as a choice to women. This aneuploidy test usually covers three trisomies: 21 Down syndrome, 18 Edward syndrome, 13 Patau syndrome. A follow-up ultrasound is recommended for Down syndrome. It has the potential to screen multiple disorders as it examines the genetic material of the fetus in maternal serum 4. diagnostic tests (chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis). The most reliable method is obtaining fetal tissue by these last means but there is a significant risk of miscarriage (1 in 100 for chorionic villus sampling and 1 in 200 for amniocentesis)
Screening for Down syndrome
1129
DxT odour + hypertonicity + seizures (infancy) →
maple syrup urine | disease
1130
Fish-like’ mouth with micrognathia
Turner syndrome
1131
‘Chipmunk’ facies
thalassaemia major
1132
``` The commonest causes of the acute abdomen in a general practice series were: acute appendicitis (21%), the colics (16%) and mesenteric adenitis (16%). ```
acute abdomen
1133
Colicky midline umbilical abdominal pain (severe) → vomiting → distension = small bowel obstruction (SBO). Midline lower abdominal pain → distension → vomiting = large bowel obstruction (LBO). If cases of acute abdomen have a surgical cause, the pain nearly always precedes the vomiting (contrast with gastroenteritis) Mesenteric artery occlusion must be considered in an older person with arteriosclerotic disease or in those with atrial fibrillation presenting with severe abdominal pain or following myocardial infarction. Up to one-third of presentations of abdominal pain have no specific cause found.
acute abdomen
1134
Common reasons are common: gastroenteritis/food poisoning accounts for so many GP presentations that occasionally a case will have examination findings of an acute abdomen. The other most common causes of acute abdomen are acute appendicitis, irritable bowel syndrome, the various ‘colics’ and ovulation pain (mittelschmerz). Mesenteric adenitis is common in children. The various causes of chronic or recurrent abdominal pain are presented in TABLE 24.2 . A study on chronic abdominal pain3 showed that the commonest reasons (approximate percentages) were no discoverable causes (50%), minor causes including muscle strains (16%), irritable bowel syndrome (12%), gynaecological causes (8%), peptic ulcers and hiatus hernia (8%).
acute abdomen
1135
Most of the causes of the acute abdomen are serious and early diagnosis is mandatory to reduce mortality and morbidity.
Serious disorders not to be missed
1136
It is vital not to misdiagnose a _________________________, which causes lower abdominal or suprapubic pain of sudden onset, or the life-threatening vascular causes, such as a ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm, mesenteric artery occlusion and myocardial infarction (which can present as epigastric pain).
ruptured ectopic pregnancy
1137
Perforated ulcers (now uncommon) and strangulated bowel, such as volvulus of the sigmoid and entrapment of the small bowel in a hernial orifice or around adhesions, also demand an early diagnosis.
acute abdomen
1138
rapid hypovolaemic shock
Ectopic pregnancy → rapid hypovolaemic shock | Ruptured AAA
1139
peritonitis/pelvic abscess
Gangrenous appendix → peritonitis/pelvic abscess Perforated ulcer → peritonitis Obstructed bowel → gangrene
1140
A very common pitfall is missing acute appendicitis, especially in the elderly, in children, in pregnancy and in those taking steroids, where the presentation may be ____________.
atypical
1141
Early _______________presents typically with central abdominal pain that shifts to the right iliac fossa (RIF) some 4–6 hours later. It can be difficult to diagnose early on. It can cause diarrhoea with abdominal pain, especially if a pelvic appendix, and can be misdiagnosed as acute gastroenteritis.
appendicitis
1142
________________deficiencies, such as lactase deficiency, are associated with cramping abdominal pain, which may be severe. The pain follows some time, maybe hours, after the ingestion of milk and is accompanied by the passage of watery stool. The association with milk may go unrecognised.
Disaccharidase
1143
_________________, especially in the older person with unilateral abdominal pain in the dermatomal distribution, is a trap. Referred pain from conditions above the diaphragm, such as myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism and pneumonia, can be misleading. The rare general medical causes—such as diabetes ketoacidosis, acute porphyria, Addison disease, lead poisoning, tabes dorsalis, sickle-cell anaemia, haemochromatosis and uraemia—often create a diagnostic dilemma.
Herpes zoster
1144
Misdiagnosing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy in a woman using contraception or with a history of normal menstruation or where the brownish vaginal discharge is mistaken for a normal period.
acute abdomen
1145
Failing to examine hernial orifices in a patient with intestinal obstruction. Misleading temporary improvement (easing of pain) in perforation of gangrenous appendix or perforated peptic ulcer. Overlooking acute mesenteric artery obstruction in an older person with colicky central abdominal pain. Attributing abdominal pain, frequency and dysuria to a urinary infection when the cause could be diverticulitis, pelvic appendicitis, salpingitis or a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Failing to examine testes.
acute abdomen
1146
__________________ is hospital admission by deception, often with severe abdominal pain without convincing clinical signs or abnormal investigation. Diagnosis requires a high level of suspicion.
Munchausen syndrome
1147
History The urgency of the history will depend on the manner of presentation, whether acute or chronic. Pain has to be analysed according to its quality, quantity, site and radiation, onset, duration and offset, aggravating and relieving factors and associated symptoms and signs. Special attention has to be paid to: anorexia, nausea or vomiting micturition bowel function menstruation/contraception drug intake
acute abdomen
1148
consider mesenteric artery obstruction
Atrial fibrillation:
1149
Pallor and ‘shock’:
acute blood loss
1150
If distension, consider the six Fs:
fat, fluid, flatus, faeces, fetus, frightening growths
1151
haemoglobin—anaemia with chronic blood loss (e.g. peptic ulcer, cancer, oesophagitis) blood film—abnormal red cells with sickle-cell disease WCC—leucocytosis with appendicitis (75%),4 acute pancreatitis, mesenteric adenitis (first day only), cholecystitis (especially with empyema), pyelonephritis ESR—raised with cancer, Crohn disease, abscess (but non-specific) C-reactive protein (CRP)—use in diagnosing and monitoring infection, inflammation (e.g. pancreatic). Preferable to ESR liver function tests—hepatobiliary disorder serum amylase and/or lipase (preferable)—if raised to greater than three times normal upper level acute pancreatitis is most likely; also raised partially with most intra-abdominal disasters (e.g. ruptured ectopic pregnancy, perforated peptic ulcers, ruptured empyema of gall bladder, ruptured aortic aneurysm) faecal elastase—chronic pancreatitis pregnancy tests—urine or serum β-HCG: for suspected ectopic Helicobacter pylori testing urine: blood: ureteric colic (stone or blood clot), urinary infection white cells: urinary infection, appendicitis (bladder irritation) bile pigments: gall bladder disease porphobilinogen: porphyria (add Ehrlich aldehyde reagent) ketones: diabetic ketoacidosis air (pneumaturia): fistula (e.g. diverticulitis, other pelvic abscess, pelvic cancer) faecal blood—mesenteric artery occlusion, intussusception (‘redcurrant jelly’), colorectal cancer, diverticulitis, Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis
Investigations acute abdomen
1152
``` The two main screening tests are ultrasound and CT scan.5 Plain abdominal X-ray is an alternative, if more readily available. The following tests can be considered according to the clinical presentation: ultrasound: good for hepatobiliary system, kidneys and female pelvis. Look for: gallstones ectopic pregnancy pancreatic pseudocyst aneurysm aorta/dissecting aneurysm hepatic metastases and abdominal tumours thickened appendix paracolic collection Note: can be affected by gas shadows ```
acute abdomen
1153
CT scan: gives excellent survey of abdominal organs including masses and fluid collection: pancreatitis (acute and chronic) undiagnosed peritoneal inflammation (best) trauma diverticulitis leaking aortic aneurysm retroperitoneal pathology appendicitis (especially with oral contrast)
acute abdomen
1154
plain X-ray abdomen (erect and supine): look for (see FIG. 24.1 ): kidney/ureteric stones—70% opaque4 biliary stones—only 10–30% opaque air in biliary tree calcified aortic aneurysm marked distension sigmoid → sigmoid volvulus
acute abdomen
1155
distended bowel with fluid level → bowel obstruction enlarged caecum with large bowel obstruction blurred right psoas shadow → appendicitis ‘coffee bean’ sign → volvulus a sentinel loop of gas in left upper quadrant (LUQ) → acute pancreatitis chest X-ray: air under diaphragm → perforated ulcer IVP contrast-enhanced CT or X-ray (e.g. Gastrografin meal): diagnosis of bowel leakage barium enema HIDA nuclear scan—diagnosis of acute cholecystitis (good when US unhelpful) ERCP: shows bile duct obstruction and pancreatic disease MRI scan (especially useful with contrast) Other tests: ECG endoscopy upper GIT sigmoidoscopy and colonoscopy
acute abdomen
1156
Upper abdominal pain is caused by lesions of the upper GIT. Lower abdominal pain is caused by lesions of the lower GIT or pelvic organs. Early severe vomiting indicates a high obstruction of the GIT. Acute appendicitis features a characteristic ‘march’ of symptoms: pain → anorexia, nausea → vomiting.
acute abdomen Diagnostic guidelines
1157
Colicky pain is a rhythmic pain with regular spasms of recurring pain building to a climax and fading. It is virtually pathognomonic of intestinal obstruction. Ureteric colic is a true colicky abdominal pain, but so-called biliary colic and kidney colic are not true colics at all.
acute abdomen
1158
Typical pain sites of abdominal pain (general guidelines only) are presented in FIGURE 24.3 . Epigastric pain usually arises from disorders of the embryologic foregut, such as the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum, hepatobiliary structures, pancreas and spleen. However, as some disorders progress the pain tends to shift from the midline to the right (gall bladder and liver) or left (spleen). Periumbilical pain usually arises from disorders of structures of the embryologic midgut, while structures from the hindgut tend to refer pain to the lower abdomen or suprapubic region.
acute abdomen
1159
The intra-abdominal sensory receptors can be considered as innervating visceral or parietal peritoneum. Visceral mechanoreceptors are triggered by intestinal distension or tension on mesentery or blood vessels while nociceptors are triggered by mechanical, thermal and chemical stimuli. The pain from viscera is felt as diffuse and poorly localised, while stimulation of parietal peritoneal nociceptors gives a pain that is experienced directly at the site of insult.
acute abdomen
1160
Abdominal pain is a common complaint in children, especially recurrent abdominal pain, which is one of the most common complaints in childhood. The problem causes considerable anxiety in parents and it is important to differentiate the severe problems demanding surgery from nonsurgical problems. About one in 15 will have a surgical cause for pain.6 A good rule is to rule out a urinary infection with urinalysis.
acute abdomen Abdominal pain in children
1161
The causes of abdominal pain can be considered in the diagnostic model category. 1 Common causes/probability diagnosis: infant ‘colic’
acute abdomen Abdominal pain in children
1162
``` gastroenteritis (all ages) mesenteric adenitis 2 Serious causes, not to be missed: intussusception (peaks at 6–9 months) acute appendicitis (mainly 5–15 years) bowel obstruction/strangulated hernia ```
acute abdomen Abdominal pain in children
1163
``` Pitfalls: child abuse constipation/faecal impaction torsion of testes lactose intolerance peptic ulcer infections: mumps, tonsillitis, pneumonia (esp. right lower lobe), EBM, UTI adnexal disorders in females (e.g. ovarian) acute pancreatitis 4 Rarities: Meckel diverticulitis Henoch–Schönlein purpura sickle crisis lead poisoning 5 Seven masquerades checklist: type 1 diabetes drugs UTI 6 Psychogenic consideration: important cause ```
acute abdomen Abdominal pain in children
1164
This is the occurrence in a well baby of regular, unexplained periods of inconsolable crying and fretfulness, usually in the late afternoon and evening, especially between 2 weeks and 16 weeks of age. No apparent cause can be found, and the word ‘colic’ refers to the historical assumption that the crying is caused by abdominal pain. It is very common, occurring in about one-third of infants and lasting for a period of at least three weeks.
Infant ‘colic’ (period of infant distress)
1165
Reassure and explain. Advise the parents: Use gentleness (such as subdued lighting where the baby is handled, soft music, speaking softly, quiet feeding times). Avoid quick movements that may startle the baby. Make sure the baby is not hungry—avoid underfeeding. Provide demand feeding (in time and amount). Make sure the baby is burped, and give posture feeding. Provide comfort from a dummy or pacifier. Provide plenty of gentle physical contact. Cuddle and carry the baby around (e.g. take a walk around the block). A carrying device such as ‘snuggly’ or ‘Mei Tai Sling’ allows the baby to be carried around at the time of crying. Make sure the mother gets plenty of rest during this difficult period. Do not worry about leaving a crying child for 10 minutes or so after 15 minutes of trying consolation. Medication Drugs are not generally recommended, but some preparations have tradition, if not much science, behind them (e.g. simethicone [Infacol wind drops]).
Infant ‘colic’ (period of infant distress)
1166
is the diagnosis that should be foremost in one’s mind with a child aged between 3 months and 2 years presenting with sudden onset of severe colicky abdominal pain, coming at intervals of about 15 minutes and lasting for 2–3 minutes. Early diagnosis, within 24 hours of onset, is essential, for after this time there is a significant rise in morbidity and mortality. A segment of bowel telescopes into the adjoining distal segment (e.g. ileocaecal segment), resulting in intestinal obstruction. It is usually idiopathic but can have a pathological lead point (4–12 years) (e.g. polyp, Meckel diverticulum).
Intussusception
1167
Male babies > female Range: birth to school age, usually 5–24 months Sudden-onset acute pain with shrill cry Vomiting
Intussusception
1168
Lethargy Pallor with attacks Intestinal bleeding: redcurrant jelly (60%)7
Intussusception
1169
DxT pale child + severe ‘colic’ + vomiting →
acute intussusception
1170
Signs Pale, anxious and unwell Sausage-shaped mass in right upper quadrant (RUQ) anywhere between the line of colon and umbilicus, especially during attacks (difficult to feel) Signe de dance (i.e. emptiness in RIF to palpation) Alternating high-pitched active bowel sounds with absent sounds Rectal examination: ± blood ± hard lump
acute intussusception
1171
Diagnosis Ultrasound Enema using oxygen or barium (with caution) used for diagnosis and treatment Treatment7 Hydrostatic reduction by air or oxygen from the ‘wall’ supply (preferred) or barium enema Surgical intervention may be necessary
acute intussusception
1172
Differential diagnosis Acute gastroenteritis: can be difficult in those cases where there is some loose stool with intussusception and with blood and mucus without much watery stool in gastroenteritis. However, usually attacks of pain are of shorter duration, and there is loose watery stool, fever and no abdominal mass. If doubtful, refer as possible intussusception. Impacted faeces can lead to spasms of colicky abdominal pain—usually an older child with a history of constipation. Other causes of intestinal obstruction (e.g. irreducible inguinal hernia, volvulus, intraabdominal band).
acute intussusception
1173
Drugs In any child complaining of acute abdominal pain, enquiry should be made into drug ingestion. A common cause of colicky abdominal pain in children is cigarette smoking (nicotine); consider other drugs such as marijuana, cocaine and heroin.
acute intussusception
1174
This may occur at any age, being more common in children of school age (10–12 years) and in adolescence, and uncommon in children under 3 years of age. Special problems of early diagnosis occur with the very young (younger than 3 years) and in intellectually disabled children, many of whom present with peritonitis.
Acute appendicitis in children
1175
Vomiting occurs in at least 80% of children with appendicitis and diarrhoea in about 20%. The temperature is usually only slightly elevated but in about 5% of cases it exceeds 39°C.
Acute appendicitis in children
1176
In children the physical examination, especially eliciting abdominal (including rebound) tenderness, and the rectal examination demand considerable tact, patience and gentleness. Jumping or hopping induces pain
Acute appendicitis in children
1177
A serious point of confusion can occur between pelvic appendicitis, causing diarrhoea and vomiting, and acute gastroenteritis. A high CRP level >50 mg/L is a feature of appendicitis.6 A particularly severe case of apparent gastroenteritis, especially if persistent, should be regarded as pelvic appendicitis until proved otherwise. Ultrasound is the preferred imaging.
Acute appendicitis in children
1178
This presents a difficult problem in differential diagnosis with acute appendicitis because the history can be very similar. At times the distinction may be almost impossible. In general, with mesenteric adenitis localisation of pain and tenderness is not as definite, rigidity is less of a feature, the temperature is higher, and anorexia, nausea and vomiting are also lesser features. The illness lasts about five days followed by a rapid recovery. Comparisons between the two are presented in TABLE 24.5 , but if in any doubt it is advisable to consider the problem as acute appendicitis, admit for observation and be prepared for laparoscopy/laparotomy.
Mesenteric adenitis
1179
can sometimes present an anaesthetic risk and patients are usually quite ill in the immediate postoperative period. Treatment is symptomatic and includes ample fluids and paracetamol.
Mesenteric adenitis
1180
can suffer from a wide spectrum of disorders. Ischaemic events, emboli, cancer (in particular) and diverticulae of the colon are more common in old age; duodenal ulcer is less so. Those causes of abdominal pain that occur with more frequency include: vascular catastrophies: ruptured AAA, mesenteric artery occlusion perforated peptic ulcer biliary disorders: biliary pain and acute cholecystitis diverticulitis sigmoid volvulus strangulated hernia
Abdominal pain in older people
1181
intestinal obstruction cancer, especially of the large bowel herpes zoster, causing unilateral root pain constipation and faecal impaction Problems arise with management because the pain threshold is raised (colic in particular is less severe) and there is an attenuated response to infection so that fever and leucocytosis can be absent. Non-specific signs, such as confusion, anorexia and tachycardia, might be the only systemic evidence of infection.
Abdominal pain in older people
1182
An AAA may be asymptomatic until it ruptures or may present with abdominal discomfort and a pulsatile mass noted by the patient. There tends to be a family history and thus screening is appropriate in such families. Ultrasound screening is advisable in first-degree relatives over 50 years.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
1183
The risk of rupture is related to the diameter of the AAA and the rate of increase in diameter. The normal diameter of the abdominal aorta, which is palpated just above the umbilicus, is 10–30 mm, being 20 mm on average in the adult; an aneurysm is greater than 30 mm in diameter.9 Refer if ≥40 mm. Greater than 50 mm is significantly enlarged and is chosen as the arbitrary reference point to operate because of the exponential rise in risk of rupture with an increasing diameter. Refer all cases. The patency of a Dacron graft after 5 years is approximately 95% (see FIG. 24.5 ). Newer techniques include endovascular aneurysm repair.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
1184
Investigations Ultrasound (good for screening) in relatives >50 years (obesity a problem) CT scan (clearer imaging). Helical/spiral scan is investigation of choice MRI scan (best definition)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
1185
This is a real surgical emergency in an elderly person who presents with acute abdominal and perhaps back pain with associated circulatory collapse (see FIG. 24.6 ). The patient often collapses at toilet because they feel the need to defecate and the resultant Valsalva manoeuvre causes circulatory embarrassment.
Rupture of aneurysm
1186
The patient should be transferred immediately to a vascular surgical unit, which should be notified in advance. Two important emergency measures for the ‘shocked’ patient are intravenous access for plasma expanding fluid (a central venous line is best if possible) and swift action.
Rupture of aneurysm
1187
DxT intense abdominal pain + pale and ‘shocked’ ± back pain →
Rupture of aneurysm
1188
Acute intestinal ischaemia arises from superior mesenteric artery occlusion from either an embolus or a thrombosis in an atherosclerotic artery. Another cause is an embolus from atrial fibrillation. Necrosis of the intestine soon follows if intervention is delayed.
Mesenteric artery occlusion
1189
Clinical features Central periumbilical abdominal pain—gradually becomes intense. Patients develop a ‘fear of eating’ Profuse vomiting Watery diarrhoea—blood in one-third of cases (eventually) (refer to CHAPTER 34 ) Patient becomes confused
Mesenteric artery occlusion
1190
DxT anxiety and prostration + intense central pain + profuse vomiting ± bloody diarrhoea →
Mesenteric artery occlusion
1191
Signs Localised tenderness, rigidity and rebound over infarcted bowel (later finding) Absent bowel sounds (later) Shock develops later Tachycardia (may be atrial fibrillation and other signs of atheroma)
Mesenteric artery occlusion
1192
Investigations CRP may be elevated intestinal alkaline phosphatase. X-ray (plain) shows ‘thumb printing’ due to mucosal oedema on gas-filled bowel. CT scanning gives the best definition while mesenteric arteriography is performed if embolus is suspected. However, it is commonly only diagnosed at laparotomy.
Mesenteric artery occlusion
1193
Management Early surgery may prevent gut necrosis but massive resection of necrosed gut may be required as a life-saving procedure. Early diagnosis (within a few hours) is essential. Note: Mesenteric venous thrombosis can occur but usually in people with circulatory failure. Inferior mesenteric artery occlusion is less severe and survival more likely.
Mesenteric artery occlusion
1194
with a volume of 600+ mL usually causes severe lower abdominal pain, which may not be apparent in a senile or dementing person. Find and treat the cause. Apart from the common cause of an enlarged prostate or prostatitis, it can also result from bladder neck obstruction by faecal loading or other pelvic masses or anticholinergic drugs.
Acute retention of urine
1195
Management Perform a rectal examination and empty rectum of any impacted faecal material. Catheterise with size 14 Foley catheter to relieve obstruction and drain (give antibiotic cover). Have the catheter in situ and seek a urological opinion. Send specimen for MCU. If there is any chance of recovery (e.g. if the problem is drug-induced), withdraw drug, leave catheter in for 48 hours, remove and give trial of prazosin 0.5 mg bd or terazosin. In some instances, it may be worth giving analgesics, ambulating the patient and attempting voiding by standing up to the sound of running water. A hot bath may also provide a simple solution. Check for prostate cancer and renal impairment. Perform neurological examination of lower limbs and perianal area.
Acute retention of urine
1196
is encountered typically in the aged, bedridden, debilitated person. Its clinical presentation may closely resemble malignant obstruction.10 Spurious diarrhoea can occur, which is known as ‘faecal incontinence’
Faecal impaction
1197
is mainly a condition of young adults but it affects all ages (although uncommon under 3 years). Despite its declining incidence, it is the commonest surgical emergency and special care has to be taken with the very young and the very old. The symptoms can vary because of the different positions of the appendix. It is basically a clinical diagnosis.
Acute appendicitis
1198
Clinical features See FIGURE 24.7 . Typical clinical features are: usually under 30 years of age initial pain is central abdominal (sometimes colicky)
Acute appendicitis
1199
increasing severity and then continuous shifts and localises to RIF within 6 hours may be aggravated by walking (causing a limp) or coughing sudden anorexia nausea and vomiting a few hours after the pain starts ± diarrhoea and constipation
Acute appendicitis
1200
DxT localised RIF pain + a/n/v + guarding →
Acute appendicitis
1201
Signs Patient looks unwell Flushed at first, then pale Furred tongue and halitosis May be febrile—low-grade fever Tenderness in RIF, usually at McBurney point Local rigidity and rebound tenderness Guarding ± Superficial hyperaesthesia ± Psoas sign: pain on resisted flexion of right leg, on hip extension or on elevating right leg (due to irritation of psoas especially with retrocaecal appendix) ± Obturator sign: pain on the examiner flexing patient’s right thigh at the hip with the knee bent and then internally rotating the hip (due to irritation of internal obturator muscle) Rovsing sign: rebound tenderness in RIF while palpating in LIF PR: anterior tenderness to right, especially if pelvic appendix or pelvic peritonitis
Acute appendicitis
1202
Abscess formation → localised mass and tenderness Retrocaecal appendix: pain and rigidity less and may be no rebound tenderness; loin tenderness; positive psoas test Pelvic appendix: no abdominal rigidity; urinary frequency; diarrhoea and tenesmus; very tender PR; obturator tests usually positive Elderly patients: pain often minimal and eventually manifests as peritonitis; can simulate intestinal obstruction Pregnancy (occurs mainly during second trimester): pain is higher and more lateral; harder to diagnose; peritonitis more common Perforation more likely in those who are very young, elderly or have diabetes
Acute appendicitis
1203
Investigations Investigations, including imaging, are of limited value: blood cell count shows a leucocytosis (75%) with a left shift urea and electrolytes—to assess hydration prior to surgery
Acute appendicitis
1204
CRP—elevated ultrasound shows a thickened appendix (86% sensitivity, 81% specificity);11 affected by gas shadow plain X-ray may show local distension, blurred psoas shadow and fluid level in caecum CT scan (94% sensitivity, 98% specificity) also allows other causes, especially in the female pelvis, to be evaluated12 laparoscopy β-HCG
Acute appendicitis
1205
Management Immediate referral for surgical removal—the gold standard. If perforated, cover with cefotaxime and metronidazole. If abscess, radiologic drainage, antibiotics ± interval appendicectomy. It is reasonable to offer a conservative approach for uncomplicated, low-grade cases, with careful monitoring and antibiotics in selected patients. One detailed study showed that surgery was the safest option
Acute appendicitis
1206
The symptoms depend on the level of the obstruction (see TABLE 24.6 ). The more proximal the obstruction, the more severe the pain.
Small bowel obstruction
1207
``` Main causes Outside obstruction (e.g. adhesions—commonest cause, previous laparotomy), strangulation in hernia or pockets of abdominal cavity (see FIG. 24.8 )—this may lead to a ‘closed loop’ obstruction.14 Lumen obstructions (e.g. foreign body, trichobezoar, gallstones, intussusception, malignancy). ```
Small bowel obstruction
1208
Clinical features Severe colicky epigastric and periumbilical (mainly) pain (see FIG. 24.9 ) Spasms every 3–10 minutes (according to level), lasting about 1 minute Vomiting Absolute constipation (nil after bowel emptied)
Small bowel obstruction
1209
DxT colicky central pain + vomiting + distension →
Small bowel obstruction
1210
Signs and tests Patient weak and sitting forward in distress Visible peristalsis, loud borborygmi Abdomen soft (except with strangulation) Tender when distended Increased sharp, tinkling bowel sounds Dehydration rapidly follows, especially in children and elderly
Small bowel obstruction
1211
PR: empty rectum, may be tender Note: check all hernial orifices, including umbilicus X-ray: plain erect film confirms diagnosis—‘stepladder’ fluid levels (4–5 for diagnosis) in 3–4 hours Gastrografin follow-through for precise diagnosis with caution. It can cause severe diarrhoea and may be therapeutic in adhesive obstruction. ± CT scan (especially if extrinsic causation)
Small bowel obstruction
1212
Management IV fluids and bowel decompression with nasogastric tube hernia repair
Small bowel obstruction
1213
``` Temporary arrest of peristalsis is common after abdominal surgery. Other causes include drugs, e.g. opioids, TCAs. Symptoms Nausea Vomiting Vague abdominal discomfort Distension Constipation/obstipation ```
Paralytic ileus
1214
``` Signs Silent abdomen ↓ Bowel sounds Tests X-ray: air accumulation in small bowel and colon ```
Paralytic ileus
1215
The cause is commonly colorectal cancer (75% of cases), especially on the left side, but it can occur in diverticulitis or in volvulus of the sigmoid colon (10% of cases) and caecum.10 Sigmoid volvulus is more common in older men and has a sudden and severe onset. The pain is less severe than in SBO. Be wary of the non-surgical causes, simple constipation or acute pseudoobstruction of the colon (Ogilvie syndrome). Consider ileus.
Large bowel obstruction
1216
Clinical features Sudden-onset colicky pain (even with cancer) Each spasm lasts less than 1 minute Usually hypogastric midline pain (see FIG. 24.10 ) Vomiting may be absent (or late) Absolute constipation (obstipation), no flatus
Large bowel obstruction
1217
DxT colicky pain + distension ± vomiting →
Large bowel obstruction
1218
Signs and tests Increased bowel sounds, especially during pain Distension early and marked Local tenderness and rigidity PR: empty rectum; may be rectosigmoid cancer or blood. Check for faecal impaction X-ray: distension of large bowel with separation of haustral markings, especially caecal distension
Large bowel obstruction
1219
``` sigmoid volvulus shows a distended loop and ‘coffee bean’ sign Gastrografin enema confirms diagnosis Management Drip and suction Surgical referral ```
Large bowel obstruction
1220
can cause acute abdominal pain both with and without a prior history of peptic ulcer. It is an acute surgical emergency requiring immediate diagnosis. Consider a history of drugs, especially NSAIDs. Perforated ulcers may follow a heavy meal. There is usually no back pain. May be painless with steroids. The maximal incidence is 45–55 years and more common in males, and a perforated duodenal ulcer is more common than a gastric ulcer. Consider the clinical syndrome in three stages: 1. prostration 2. reaction (after 4 hours)—symptoms may improve 3. peritonitis (after 4 hours)—severe pain
Perforated peptic ulcer
1221
Clinical features See FIGURE 24.11 . Typical clinical features are: sudden-onset severe epigastric pain continuous pain but lessens for a few hours epigastric pain at first, and then generalised to whole abdomen pain may radiate to one or both shoulders (uncommon) or right lower quadrant nausea and vomiting (delayed) hiccough is a common late symptom
Perforated peptic ulcer
1222
DxT sudden severe pain + anxious, still, ‘grey’, sweaty + deceptive improvement →
Perforated peptic ulcer
1223
``` Signs and tests (typical of peritonitis) Patient lies quietly (pain aggravated by movement and coughing) Pale, sweating or ashen at first Guarding, board-like rigidity Maximum signs at point of perforation No abdominal distension ```
Perforated peptic ulcer
1224
Contraction of abdomen (forms a ‘shelf’ over lower chest) Bowel sounds reduced (silent abdomen) Shifting dullness may be present Pulse, temperature and BP usually normal at first Tachycardia (later) and shock later (3–4 hours) Breathing is shallow and inhibited by pain PR: pelvic tenderness X-ray: chest X-ray may show free air under diaphragm (in 75%)—need to sit upright for prior 15 minutes limited Gastrografin meal can confirm diagnosis CT scan preferable, if available and safe
Perforated peptic ulcer
1225
Management Pain relief Drip and suction (immediate nasogastric tube) Broad-spectrum antibiotics Immediate surgery after resuscitation Conservative treatment may be possible (e.g. later presentation and Gastrografin swallow indicates sealing of perforation)
Perforated peptic ulcer
1226
Kidney (renal) colic is not a true colic but a constant pain due to blood clots or a stone lodged at the pelvic–ureteric junction; ureteric colic, however, presents as severe true colicky pain due to stone movement, dilatation and ureteric spasm. Fortunately, the majority of urinary calculi are small and will pass spontaneously.
Ureteric colic
1227
Guidelines: loin pain—stone in kidney kidney/ureteric colic—ureteric stone
Ureteric colic
1228
``` strangury—stone in bladder Clinical features Maximum incidence 30–50 years (M > F) Intense colicky pain: in waves, each lasting 30 seconds with 1–2 minutes respite Begins in loin and radiates around the flank to the groin, thigh, testicle or labia (see FIG. 24.12 ) Usually lasts <8 hours ± Vomiting ```
Ureteric colic
1229
DxT intense pain (loin) → groin + microscopic haematuria →
Ureteric colic
1230
``` Signs Restlessness: may be writhing in pain Pale, cold and clammy Tenderness at costovertebral angle ± Abdominal and back muscle spasm Smoky urine due to haematuria ```
Ureteric colic
1231
Diagnosis Urine: microscopy; blood testing strip (negative does not exclude calculus) Plain X-ray: most stones—kidney, ureter, bladder (75%)—are radio-opaque (calcium oxalate and phosphate) IVP: confirms opacity, level of obstruction, kidney function and any anatomical abnormalities Ultrasound: may locate calculus but will exclude obstruction Non-contrast spiral KUB-CT is the ‘gold standard’ (sensitivity 97%, specificity 96%) (will show easily missed radiolucent11 uric acid stones)
Ureteric colic
1232
Management If the diagnosis is in doubt (especially if narcotic addiction is suspected) get the patient to pass urine in the presence of an examiner and test for haematuria. While awaiting passage of urine, an indomethacin suppository may be tried for pain relief.
Ureteric colic
1233
Routine treatment (average size adult) Morphine 2.5 to 5 mg IV15 statim then titrate to effect or fentanyl 50–100 mcg IV then titrate to effect. Avoid high fluid intake, especially IV fluids—provokes distension of ureter and aggravates pain. Most cases settle and the patient can go home when pain relief is obtained and an IVP arranged for the next day. Further pain can be alleviated by indomethacin suppositories but should be limited to two a day. An effective alternative treatment is diclofenac 75 mg IM injection, then 50 mg (o) tds for 1 week. Several clinical trials have shown that NSAIDs by IM injection, including ketorolac (10–30 mg IM [or IV] 4–6 hourly), are effective and at least as efficacious as opioids.15,16,17
Ureteric colic
1234
The calculus is likely to pass spontaneously if <5 mm (90% <4 mm pass spontaneously).16 If >7 mm, intervention will usually be required by extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy or surgery. If the person passes the calculus, he or she should retrieve it and present it for analysis. A repeat IVP may be necessary if there is evidence of obstruction for more than 3 weeks. Persistent obstruction causes sepsis. The cause of the ‘stone’ should be considered. Search for causes such as hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcaemia, hyperoxaluria and UTI. Fever with ureteric colic indicates an obstructed infected kidney.
Ureteric colic
1235
``` Any of the following: stone >7 mm in diameter high-grade or bilateral obstruction gross hydronephrosis fever/UTI unremitting pain stone fails to progress type 2 diabetes staghorn calculus presence of solitary kidney ```
When to refer16
1236
``` Investigations Serum electrolytes, urea, creatinine Serum calcium, phosphate, uric acid, magnesium Serum alkaline phosphatase Urine sample—microbiology and culture At least two consecutive 24-hour urine samples Stone analysis IVP Dietary advice is given in ```
Recurrent urinary calculi
1237
``` Abdominal pain can be produced by contraction of the biliary tree upon an obstructing stone or inspissated bile (sludge). Although the stereotyped higher-risk person is female, 40, fat, fair and fertile, it can occur from adolescence to old age and in both sexes. ```
Biliary pain
1238
``` Typical clinical features are: acute onset severe pain postprandial or at night (often wakes 2–3 am) constant pain (not colicky) lasts 20 minutes to 2–6 hours ```
Biliary pain
1239
maximal RUQ or epigastrium Page 271 may radiate to tip of right shoulder or scapula painful episode builds to a crescendo for about 20 minutes; may recede or last for hours some relief by assuming flexed posture ± nausea and vomiting with considerable retching often a history of biliary pain (may be mild) or jaundice often precipitated by a fatty meal
Biliary pain
1240
DxT severe pain + vomiting + pain radiation →
Biliary pain
1241
Signs Patient anxious and restless, usually in a flexed position or rolling in agony Localised tenderness (Murphy sign) over fundus of gall bladder (on transpyloric plane) Slight rigidity Diagnosis Abdominal ultrasound (to diagnose gallstones) Helical CT Intravenous cholangiography if previous cholecystectomy LFTs may show elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase
Biliary pain
1242
Management Pain relief:18 morphine 2.5–5 mg IV statim then titrate to effect (age-dependent; use lower end of range if ≥70 years) or fentanyl 50–100 mcg IV statim then titrate to effect or
Biliary pain
1243
ketorolac 10–30 mg IM 4–6 hourly (max. 90 mg daily) Gallstone dissolution with ursodeoxycholic acid or lithotripsy (in those unable to have surgery) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (main procedure)
Biliary pain
1244
form from bile in the gall bladder and sometimes in the bile duct (especially postcholecystectomy) Two main types—cholesterol and pigment (bilirubin) Lifetime risk in first world countries is 12–20% 70% of people with gall bladder stones are asymptomatic, but risk of developing symptoms is about 15% over 20 years Cholecystectomy almost never indicated for asymptomatic stones Complications: acute cholecystitis (may lead to empyema, perforation, cholecystoenteric fistula), obstructive jaundice, cholangitis (infection with pain) and acute pancreatitis (pancreatic duct obstruction)
Gallstone facts
1245
This condition, which causes biliary ‘colic’ due to spasm of the sphincter of Oddi, often follows prolonged fasting. Cholecystectomy may be necessary
Microlithiasis (biliary ‘sludge’)
1246
is associated with gallstones in over 90% of cases18 and there is usually a past history of biliary pain. It occurs when a calculus becomes impacted in the cystic duct and inflammation develops. It is very common in the elderly. The acute attack is often precipitated by a large or fatty meal. The causative organisms are usually aerobic bowel flora (e.g. E. coli, Klebsiella species and Enterococcus faecalis).
Acute cholecystitis
1247
Clinical features Steady severe pain and tenderness Localised to right hypochondrium or epigastrium May be referred to the right infrascapular area Anorexia, nausea and vomiting (bile) in about 75%
Acute cholecystitis
1248
``` Aggravated by deep inspiration Signs Patient tends to lie still Localised tenderness over gall bladder (positive Murphy sign) Muscle guarding Rebound tenderness Palpable gall bladder (approximately 15%) Jaundice (approximately 15%) ± Fever ```
Acute cholecystitis
1249
``` Diagnosis Ultrasound: gallstones but not specific for cholecystitis HIDA scan: demonstrates obstructed cystic duct—the usual cause WCC and CRP: can be elevated Treatment Bed rest IV fluids Nil orally Analgesics Antibiotics Cholecystectomy If evidence of sepsis, use amoxi/ampicillin 1 g IV, 6 hourly plus gentamicin 4–6 ```
Acute cholecystitis
1250
With acute pancreatitis there may be a past history of previous attacks or a past history of alcoholism (35%) or gallstone disease (40–50%). It is commonly precipitated by fatty foods and alcohol, mumps, hypertriglyceridaemia and some antidiabetic medications, e.g. gliptins.
Acute pancreatitis
1251
``` Typical clinical features are: sudden onset of severe constant deep epigastric pain but onset can be steady lasts hours or a day or so pain may radiate to back pain may be relieved by sitting forwards ```
Acute pancreatitis
1252
nausea and vomiting | sweating and weakness
Acute pancreatitis
1253
DxT severe pain + nausea and vomiting + relative lack of abdominal signs →
Acute pancreatitis
1254
Signs Patient is weak, pale, sweating and anxious Tender in epigastrium Lack of guarding, rigidity or rebound Reduced bowel sounds (may be absent if ileus) ± Abdominal distension Fever, tachycardia ± shock
Acute pancreatitis
1255
Diagnosis WCC—leucocytosis Serum lipase (preferred as more sensitive and specific) or serum amylase CRP—elevated Serum glucose ↑, calcium ↓ Blood gases: PaO2 (?pulmonary complications) LFTs: ?obstructive pattern Plain X-ray, may be sentinel loop CT scan, best after 48 hours (especially for complications) Ultrasound better for detecting cysts and unsuspected gallstones
Acute pancreatitis
1256
Management19 Arrange admission to hospital (but many cases are mild). Basic treatment is bed rest, nil orally, nasogastric suction (if vomiting), IV fluids and analgesics (morphine). Treat hyperglycaemia or hypocalcaemia.
Acute pancreatitis
1257
Use morphine 2.5–5 mg IV or fentanyl 30–100 mcg IV statim then titrate to effect. May require ERCP if obstructive LFTs.
Acute pancreatitis
1258
This IgG4-related disorder presents with abdominal pain, jaundice and weight loss. Diagnosis is by a pancreatic mass or enlargement on imaging and serology (IgG4). Treatment is with corticosteroids.
Autoimmune pancreatitis
1259
In comparison to acute pancreatitis, the pain of chronic pancreatitis is milder but more persistent. There may be epigastric pain boring through to the back. Symptoms may relapse and worsen. Investigate with CT scan and ultrasound and faecal elastase (N >200 μg/g stool: pancreastic exocrine insufficiency < 200 μg/g stool). MRCP is the most sensitive imaging study. The person with this problem is often labelled as ‘gastritis’, ‘ulcer’ or even ‘neurotic’ because of the indeterminate nature of the pain. Malabsorption and diabetes may result from pancreatitis. Weight loss and steatorrhoea become prominent features.
Chronic pancreatitis
1260
Pain associated with pancreatic cancer is indistinguishable from that of chronic pancreatitis but generally tends to be more severe and more prominent in the back. Use paracetamol for pain. Give pancreatic enzyme supplements (e.g. pancrelipase) for malabsorption.
Chronic pancreatitis
1261
The person with acute diverticulitis is usually over 40 years of age, with longstanding, grumbling, left-sided abdominal pain and constipation, but can have an irregular bowel habit. It occurs in less than 10% of those with diverticular disorder
Acute diverticulitis
1262
Typical clinical features are: acute onset of pain in the left iliac fossa pain increased with walking and change of position usually associated with constipation
Acute diverticulitis
1263
DxT acute pain + left-sided radiation + fever →
Acute diverticulitis
1264
Signs Tenderness, guarding and rigidity in LIF Fever
Acute diverticulitis
1265
``` Investigations FBE: leucocytosis Elevated ESR Pus and blood in stools Abdominal ultrasound/CT scan (especially—can detect fistula, abscess or perforation) Erect chest X-ray Erect and supine abdominal X-ray ```
Acute diverticulitis
1266
``` Complications Bleeding (can be profuse, especially in elderly) Perforation (high mortality) Abscess Peritonitis Fistula (bladder, vagina, small bowel) Intestinal obstruction ```
Acute diverticulitis
1267
Treatment19 Hospital admission (unless mild) Rest the GIT: nil orally, drip and suction One landmark study showed that a ‘wait and see’ approach without antibiotics can be considered appropriate in patients with an uncomplicated initial attack of diverticulitis20 Analgesics Antibiotics: mild cases: amoxicillin + clavulanate 875/125 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days or metronidazole + cephalexin
Acute diverticulitis
1268
``` severe cases: amoxi/ampicillin 1 g IV 6 hourly + gentamicin 5–7 mg/kg IV/day + metronidazole 500 mg IV 12 hourly or metronidazole + ceftriaxone 1 g IV/day Surgery for complications Screening colonoscopy after acute episode ```
Acute diverticulitis
1269
Can be generalised due to intra-abdominal sepsis following perforation of a viscus, e.g. peptic ulcer, appendix, diverticulum. Typical signs are as for perforated peptic ulcer. Key investigations are peritoneal fluid culture and CT scan. Surgical intervention is usually required. Usual antibiotic treatment is IV cephalosporins or amoxi/ampicillin + gentamicin + metronidazole.21 Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can occur in any patient with ascites.
Peritonitis
1270
``` Older person Nocturnal pain or diarrhoea Progressive symptoms Rectal bleeding Fever Anaemia Weight loss Abdominal mass Faecal incontinence or urgency (recent onset) ```
Red flags for organic disease12
1271
It is possible to have recurrent episodes of subacute inflammation of the appendix. If suspected, laparoscopy performed during or soon after an attack is diagnostic.
Chronic appendicitis
1272
There is no firm evidence that intra-abdominal adhesions are painful apart from complications such as bowel obstruction. Sometimes patients are ‘cured’ by laparoscopic divisions of adhesions.
Adhesions
1273
Usually central epigastric pain Burning pain Relieved by antacids or food or milk DU: usually 2–3 hours after meals or wakes from sleep GU: may occur after meals but inconsistent relationship to eating
Peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal
1274
Special caution is required at the extremes of age when the symptoms and signs do not often reflect the seriousness of the underlying pathology. If an elderly person presents with intense acute abdominal pain, inadequately relieved by strong parenteral injections, likely causes include mesenteric artery occlusion, acute pancreatitis and ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm. When an inflamed appendix ruptures, the abdominal pain improves for a significant period of time. Consider gallstones and duodenal ulcer if the person is woken (e.g. at 2–3 am) with abdominal pain. Pus cells and red cells may be present in the urine with appendicitis when a pelvic appendix involves the bladder and a retrocaecal appendix involves the ureter. Consider diabetic ketoacidosis in a person with abdominal pain, tenderness and rigidity and deep sighing respiration.
Practice tips acute abdomen
1275
The commonest cause was osteoarthritis (OA), which affects 5–10% of the population.
Arthritis
1276
Almost 2% of Australians report having rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
Arthritis
1277
Systemic diseases that may predispose to, or present with, an arthropathy include the connective tissue disorders, diabetes mellitus, a bleeding disorder, previous tuberculosis, the spondyloarthropathies such as psoriasis, SBE, hepatitis B, rheumatic fever, the various vasculitic or arteritic syndromes (the vasculitides) such as Wegener granulomatosis, HIV infection, lung cancer, haemochromatosis, sarcoidosis, hyperparathyroidism, Whipple disease and
Arthritis
1278
The pain of inflammatory disease is worse at rest (e.g. on waking in the morning, also with stiffness) and improved by activity
Arthritis
1279
Early diagnosis and management of RA results in considerably better outcomes. Causes of monoarthritis include crystal deposition disease, sepsis, osteoarthritis, trauma and spondyloarthritis.
Arthritis
1280
Gout and septic arthritis have a recognised cause and cure. Acute gout is 4–6 times more prevalent in men than women; however, it becomes more common in postmenopausal women, particularly those on thiazide diuretics.
Arthritis
1281
OA is very common in general practice. It may be primary, which is usually symmetrical, and can affect many joints. This clinical pattern is different from secondary OA, which follows injury and other wear-and-tear causes.
Arthritis
1282
``` Acute onset Polyarthritis Symmetric inflammation Mainly hands and feet Rash—persists for 24 hours minimum Terminates rapidly—over days FBE: lymphopaenia, lymphocytosis, ± atypical lymphocytes ```
Clinical features (viral arthritis)
1283
``` It tends to terminate quickly and spontaneously without permanent damage to joints. It is caused by many viruses, including those causing influenza, mumps, rubella, varicella, hepatitis B and C, infectious mononucleosis (more muscle aching), cytomegalovirus, parvovirus, Australian epidemic polyarthritis due to the alphaviruses, Ross River virus and Barmah Forest virus. Adenovirus is common in children. COVID-19 causes arthralgia in around 15% of cases ```
Clinical features (viral arthritis)
1284
``` Fever Weight loss Profuse rash Lymphadenopathy Cardiac murmur Severe pain and disability Malaise and fatigue Vasculitic signs Two or more systems involved ```
Red flag pointers for polyarthritis
1285
A common pitfall is ________, particularly in older women taking diuretics, whose osteoarthritic joints, especially of the hand, can be affected. The condition is often referred to as nodular gout and does not usually present as acute arthritis.
gout
1286
Another ‘trap’ is ______________in a patient with a bleeding disorder.
haemarthrosis
1287
__________________________ usually affects the hands and is generally symmetrical. The drugs may induce autoantibodies (e.g. ANA, ANCA). Those that induce a lupus syndrome include the antiepileptics, chlorpromazine and some cardiac drugs. Various antibiotics have been associated with arthralgia, e.g. minocycline, while diuretics, especially frusemide and thiazides, can precipitate gout. The problem usually resolves promptly after withdrawal of the agent
Drug-induced arthritis
1288
Intravenous drug abuse may be associated with septic arthritis, hepatitis B and C, HIV-associated arthropathy, SBE with arthritis and serum sickness reactions.
Drug-induced arthritis
1289
A very hot, red, swollen joint suggests either infection or _______________arthritis.
crystal
1290
also known as juvenile chronic arthritis and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (US), is defined as a chronic arthritis persisting for a minimum of 6 weeks (some criteria suggest 3 months) in one or more joints in a child younger than 16 years.8 It is rare, affecting only about 1 in 1000 children, but produces profound medical and psychosocial problems.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
1291
The commonest types of JIA are oligoarticular (pauciarticular) arthritis, affecting four or fewer joints (about 50%), and polyarticular arthritis, affecting five or more joints (about 40%). Systemic onset arthritis, previously known as Still syndrome, accounts for about 10% of cases.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
1292
is usually seen in children under the age of 5 but can occur throughout childhood. The child can present with a high remittent fever and coppery red rash, plus other features, including lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly and pericarditis. Arthritis is not an initial feature but develops ultimately, usually involving the small joints of the hands, wrists, knees, ankles and metatarsophalangeal joints.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
1293
These children should be referred once the problem is suspected or recognised. JIA is not a benign disease—50% have persistent active disease as adults.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
1294
is an inflammatory disorder that typically occurs in children and young adults following a group A Streptococcus pyogenes infection. It is common in developing countries and among Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people (see CHAPTER 127 ) but uncommon in first world countries
Rheumatic fever
1295
Age 5–15 years (can be older) Acute-onset fever, joint pains, malaise Flitting arthralgia mainly in leg (knees, ankles) and arm (elbows and wrists) One joint settles as the other is affected May follow a sore throat However, the symptoms depend on the organs affected and arthritis may be absent
Rheumatic fever
1296
``` Based on clinical criteria: 2 or more major criteria or 1 major + 2 or more minor criteria in the presence of supporting evidence of preceding Group A streptococcal (GAS) infection. ```
Rheumatic fever
1297
Major criteria Carditis Polyarthritis Chorea (involuntary abnormal movements) Subcutaneous nodules—in crops on elbows, wrists, knees or ankles Erythema marginatum—spread in a circular fashion
Rheumatic fever
1298
``` Minor criteria Fever (≥38°C) Previous RF or rheumatic heart disease Monoarthralgia Raised ESR >30 mm/hr or CRP >30 mg/L ECG—prolonged PR interval ```
Rheumatic fever
1299
``` Investigations A selective combination of: FBC throat swab for GAS ESR/CRP streptococcal ASOT streptococcal anti-DNase B (repeat in 10–14 days) plus ECG and echocardiogram (if ↑ PR) and CXR ```
Rheumatic fever
1300
Treatment Rest in bed (if carditis, for up to 2 weeks) GAS sensitive antibiotics, e.g. benzathine penicillin 900 mg IM (450 mg in child <20 kg) statim or phenoxymethylpenicillin 500 mg (o) bd 10 days Paracetamol 15 mg/kg (o) 4 hourly (max. 60 mg/kg/day); aspirin or naproxen for arthritis Diuretics for carditis (may be ACE inhibitor and corticosteroids) Prophylactic long-term penicillin
Rheumatic fever
1301
can affect any joint at any age, although it is more common in children. It evolves over hours or days and can rapidly destroy a joint structure. It is an emergency in the hip joint of children. Check for IV drug use. The commonest organisms are S. aureus, Streptococci, Kingella kingae and N. gonorrhoea. Diagnosis is by blood culture and synovial fluid analysis and culture. Treatment is with drainage and washout of the joint and IV followed by oral antibiotics, e.g. di/flucloxacillin. Orthopaedic referral recommended
Septic arthritis
1302
OA is very common with advancing age and for this reason care has to be taken not to simply attribute other causes of arthritis to OA. Other musculoskeletal conditions that become more prevalent with increasing age are:
Arthritis in the elderly
1303
``` polymyalgia rheumatica Paget disease of bone avascular necrosis gout pseudogout (pyrophosphate arthropathy) malignancy (e.g. bronchial carcinoma) ```
Arthritis in the elderly
1304
This crystal deposition arthropathy (chondrocalcinosis) is noted by its occurrence in people over 60 years. It usually affects the knee joint but can involve other joints
Pseudogout
1305
Although it usually begins between the ages of 30 and 40 it can occur in older people, when it occasionally begins suddenly and dramatically. This is called ‘explosive’ RA and fortunately tends to respond to small doses of prednisolone and has a good prognosis.13 RA in the elderly can present as a polymyalgia rheumatica syndrome.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1306
is the most common type of arthritis, occurring in about 10% of the adult population and in 50% of those aged over 60.12 It is a degenerative disease of cartilage and may be primary idiopathic or secondary to causes such as trauma and mechanical problems, septic arthritis, crystallopathy or previous inflammatory disorders, or structural disorders such as SCFE and Perthes disorder. OA of the hips and knees has a strong association with being overweight or obese.
Osteoarthritis
1307
Primary OA is usually symmetrical and can affect many joints. Unlike other inflammatory disease the pain is worse on initiating movement and loading the joint, and eased by rest. OA is usually associated with stiffness, especially after activity, in contrast to RA.
Osteoarthritis
1308
``` In primary OA all the synovial joints may be involved, but the main ones are: first carpometacarpal (CMC) joint of thumb first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint of great toe distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of hands Other joints that are affected significantly are the proximal interphalangeal joints, the knees, hips, acromioclavicular joints and joints of the spine, especially the facet joints of the cervical (C5–6, C6–7) and lumbar regions (L3–4, L4–5, L5–S1) ```
Osteoarthritis
1309
Pain: worse by the end of the day, aggravated by use, relieved by rest, worse in cold and damp Variable morning stiffness Variable disability
Osteoarthritis
1310
Hard and bony swelling Crepitus Signs of inflammation (mild), warmth, pain Restricted movements; inability to weight bear Joint deformity Note: There should be no systemic manifestations
Osteoarthritis
1311
Crystal arthropathy can complicate OA, especially in the fingers of people taking diuretics (e.g. nodular gout).
Osteoarthritis
1312
OA does not exhibit the typical inflammatory pattern. The clinical diagnosis is based on: gradual onset of pain after activity (worse towards the end of the day) the pattern of joint involvement the lack of soft tissue swelling the transient nature of the joint stiffness or gelling takes <30 minutes to settle after rest while inflammatory arthritis takes at least 30 minutes
Osteoarthritis
1313
X-ray findings Joint space narrowing with sclerosis of subchondral bone Formation of osteophytes on the joint margins or in ligamentous attachments Cystic areas in the subchondral bone Altered shape of bone ends
Osteoarthritis
1314
Provide explanation and reassurance, including patient education hand-outs Correct modifiable risk factors: obesity, injury, overuse Control pain and maintain function with appropriate drugs Suggest judicious activity, exercise and physical therapy: regular exercise has strong evidence of benefit for hip and knee OA; discourage exercise avoidance14 For weight-bearing joints, there is evidence for weight loss of at least 5–7.5% for those with BMI >25 kg/m2 Consider factors lowering the coping threshold (e.g. stress, depression, anxiety, overactivity)
Osteoarthritis
1315
Referral for surgery should be used judiciously, as surgeons differ in their enthusiasm for following the best independent evidence for surgical interventions. For example, the Australian Knee Society’s arthroscopy ‘position statement’15 recommends against arthroscopy for knee OA except in a small number of circumstances (particularly knee locking), which goes against the vast majority of those having had debridement or meniscectomies in the age of arthroscopies. Refer for consideration of joint replacement and for advice on joints causing intractable pain or disability. Hand surgery can offer good pain relief and functional improvement. Osteotomies have a limited place for a varus or valgus deformity of the knee.
Osteoarthritis
1316
Explanation. Provide patient education and reassurance that arthritis is not the crippling disease perceived by most patients. Exercise. A graduated exercise program is essential to maintain joint function. Aim for a good balance of relative rest with sensible exercise. It is necessary to stop or modify any exercise or activity that increases the pain. Systematic reviews have found that both exercise and education may help reduce the pain and disability in people with OA of the hip or knee.16 Diet. If overweight it is important to reduce weight to ideal level. Obesity increases the risk of OA of the knee approximately fourfold and weight loss may slow progression;17 otherwise, no specific diet has been proven to cause or improve OA.
Osteoarthritis
1317
Rest. Prolonged bed rest is contraindicated, and exercise is important. However, rest during an active bout of inflammatory activity is reasonable as a pain reduction strategy. Heat. Recommended is a hot-water bottle or other heat pack, warm bath or electric blanket to soothe pain and stiffness. Advise against getting too cold. Do not advise using local cold packs, as they have been shown not to help. Physiotherapy. Referral should be made for specific purposes such as: correct posture and/or leg length disparity (but beware of the increasing unscientific use of this term) supervision of a hydrotherapy program heat therapy and advice on simple home heat measures teaching and supervision of isometric strengthening exercises (e.g. for the neck, back, quadriceps muscle) therapeutic ultrasound, kinesio taping and electrical or laser stimulation have not been demonstrated to work; discourage such practices. Occupational therapy. Refer for advice on aids in the home, more efficient performance of daily living activities, protection of joints and on the wide range of inexpensive equipment and
Osteoarthritis
1318
Braces, orthotics, walking aids. A walking stick or wheelie walker may help. However, realignment braces for medial compartment or patellofemoral OA have not been shown to be helpful, nor have lateral wedge shoe insoles or knee taping. Advise sensible, supportive footwear.
Osteoarthritis
1319
Paracetamol. Use paracetamol (acetaminophen) regularly, or before activity. Avoid combinations containing codeine or dextropropoxyphene. The newer 665 mg products marketed specifically for OA have no great advantage over the traditional 500 mg tablets; use either.
Osteoarthritis
1320
NSAIDs and COX-2 specific inhibitors (CSIs). These are second-line drugs for more persistent pain not relieved by paracetamol or where there is evidence of inflammation, such as pain worse with resting and nocturnal pain. Systematic reviews found that oral NSAIDs probably reduce the pain of OA but there is no good evidence that NSAIDs are superior to paracetamol or that any one of the many NSAIDs is more effective than others.16 The risk versus benefit equation always has to be weighed carefully. As a rule, use the lowest effective dose for a short period, then discontinue use if not effective. Evidence shows CSIs (celecoxib, etoricoxib) have a similar efficacy to other NSAIDs and a modest absolute reduction in GIT complications.18 Significant risks of NSAIDs are: gastric ulceration, erosion with bleeding depression of kidney function (check kidney function beforehand) hepatotoxicity Topical NSAIDs and capsaicin have been shown to have a small benefit in pain relief over topical placebo preparations.12 Note: Change to a suppository form will not necessarily render the upper GIT safe from irritation.
Osteoarthritis
1321
Intra-articular (IA) corticosteroids. Corticosteroid injections have a modest place for offering short-term pain relief, as an adjunct to other measures. They can be particularly useful during an inflammatory episode of distressing pain and disability (e.g. a flare-up in an osteoarthritic knee), or where a joint replacement is either under consideration or contraindicated due to comorbidities or age.
Osteoarthritis
1322
Surgery. Refer for surgical intervention if debilitating and intractable pain or disability, and when considering joint replacement. However, keep up to date with evidence from blinded ‘surgery vs sham-surgery trials’ and systematic reviews that suggest that the historic enthusiasm for knee and shoulder arthroscopies is no longer justifiable except in limited circumstances
Osteoarthritis
1323
Glucosamine, chondroitin, vitamin D, omega-3 fatty acids. Evidence originally supporting oral glucosamine was from small trials prone to bias, including publication bias. Systematic
Osteoarthritis
1324
Bisphosphonates. These are used to prevent osteoporotic fractures, where appropriate, but do not advise they will have any impact on OA symptoms. Contraindicated drugs. For OA these include the immunosuppressive and disease-modifying drugs such as oral corticosteroids, gold, antimalarials and cytotoxic agents. Avoid long-term opioids, which won’t help but will harm.
Osteoarthritis
1325
which is an autoimmune symmetrical polyarticular systemic disease of unknown aetiology, is the commonest chronic inflammatory polyarthritis and affects about 1–2% of the population. The disorder can vary from a mild to a most severe debilitating expression. About 10–20% of patients have a relentless progression and require aggressive drug therapy.21 Urgent referral to a specialist is recommended. Genetic factors may represent a risk of 15–70% of developing RA.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1326
generally presents with the insidious onset of pain and stiffness of the small joints of the hands and feet. The pain is persistent rather than fleeting and mainly affects the fingers where symmetrical involvement of the PIP joints produces spindling while the metacarpophalangeal joints develop diffuse thickening, as does the wrist (see FIG. 25.8 ). In 25% of cases RA presents as arthritis of a single joint such as the knee,13 a situation leading to confusion with a spondyloarthropathy. Differential diagnosis is polyarticular gout.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1327
``` Hands: MCP and PIP joints, DIP joints (30%) Wrist and elbows Feet: MTP joints, tarsal joints (not IP joints), ankle Knees (common) and hip (delayed—up to 50%) Shoulder (glenohumeral) joints Temporomandibular joints Cervical spine (not lumbar spine) ```
Rheumatoid arthritis
1328
Clinical features Insidious onset but can begin acutely (explosive RA) Any age 10–75 years: peak 30–50 years but bimodal 25–50 (peak age) and 65–75 Female to male ratio = 3:1 Joint pain: worse on waking, nocturnal pain, disturbed sleep; relieved with activity
Rheumatoid arthritis
1329
Morning stiffness—can last hours Rest stiffness (e.g. after sitting) General: malaise, weakness, weight loss, fatigue Disability according to involvement
Rheumatoid arthritis
1330
Soft swelling (effusion and synovial swelling), especially of wrist, MCP and PIP joints, nodules Warmth Tenderness on pressure or movement Limitation of movement Muscle wasting Later stages: deformity, subluxation, instability or ankylosing Look for swan necking, boutonnière and z deformities, ulnar deviation
Rheumatoid arthritis
1331
``` Check for a number of everyday functions, for example: power grip (lifting a jug of water) precision grip (using a key or pen), undoing buttons hook grip (carrying a bag) ```
Rheumatoid arthritis
1332
Investigations ESR/CRP usually raised according to activity of disease Anaemia (normochromic and normocytic) may be present Rheumatoid factor positive in about 70–80% (less frequent in early disease) 15–25% of RA patients will remain negative21
Rheumatoid arthritis
1333
``` Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies: more specific for RA (94% specificity)12 X-ray changes: erosion of joint margin loss of joint space (may be destruction) juxta-articular osteoporosis cysts advanced: subluxation or ankylosing MRI—helpful for early diagnosis ```
Rheumatoid arthritis
1334
Family history of inflammatory arthritis Symptom duration of >6 weeks Early-morning stiffness of >1 hour Arthritis in three or more regions Swelling in five or more joints Bilateral compression tenderness of the metatarsophalangeal joints Symmetry of the areas affected Presence of rheumatoid nodules Rheumatoid factor positivity Raised inflammatory markers (ESR/CRP) in absence of infection Anticyclic citrullinated peptide antibody positivity Bony erosions evident on radiographs of the hands or feet, although these are uncommon in early disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
1335
If the RA factor is positive, it is non-specific—order the anti-CCP antibody to confirm the diagnosis. RA has a strong cardiovascular risk factor.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1336
Give patient education support and appropriate reassurance. The diagnosis generally has distressful implications, and so the patient and family require careful explanation and support. Some have little or no long-term problems but even in mild cases, continuing care and medical supervision is important. There has been a radical shift from palliation to early induction of disease remission, to prevent joint damage and reduce morbidity from malignancy (especially lymphoma) and cardiovascular disease. Since many studies show disease progression in the first 2 years, relative aggressive treatment with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) from the outset is advisable, rather than to start stepwise with analgesics and NSAIDs only.23 Use a team approach where appropriate, including an early specialist referral for obvious or suspected RA or positive anti-CCP for diagnosis and collaborative support. Fully assess the person’s functional impairment and impact on home life, work and social activity. Involve the family in decision making. Make judicious use of pharmaceutical agents. For serious cases, consultant collaboration is essential. Review regularly, continually assessing progress and drug tolerance. The disease activity can be monitored with plain X-rays, ultrasound of hands (especially if hands are thick), CRP ± ESR.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1337
Rest and splinting. This is necessary where practical for any acute flare-up of arthritis.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1338
Exercise. It is important to have regular exercise, especially walking and swimming. Have hydrotherapy in heated pools.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1339
Smoking cessation. This is strongly recommended. Referral. Referring to physiotherapists and occupational therapists for expertise in exercise supervision, physical therapy and advice regarding coping in the home and work is important.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1340
Joint movement. Each affected joint should be put daily through a full range of motion to keep it mobile and reduce stiffness. Diet. Although there is no special diet that seems to cause or cure RA, a nourishing, wellbalanced diet is common sense and obesity must be avoided. Some evidence supports both a
Rheumatoid arthritis
1341
``` Education (rest, literature, weight loss, joint protection advice) NSAIDs Simple analgesics DMARDs: Conventional synthetic DMARDs Immunosuppressants: azathioprine cyclosporin leflunomide methotrexate Biological DMARDs Cytokine inhibitors anti-TNF α agents: abatacept, adalimumab, certolizumab, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, rituximab anti-interleukin-1 agents; tocilizumab ```
Rheumatoid arthritis
1342
``` Gold salts Quinolones: hydroxychloroquine chloroquine Others: D-penicillamine sulfasalazine Glucocorticoids: oral prednisolone intra-articular intravenous (steroid ‘pulses’) Fish body oil Physical therapy (hydrotherapy, isometric exercises) Occupational therapy (splints, aids and appliances) Orthopaedic surgery (synovectomy, joint replacement, arthrodesis, plastic hand surgery) ```
Rheumatoid arthritis
1343
Rheumatoid arthritis
1344
Beware of the increased risk of infection in patients on combination DMARD regimes. When indicated, vaccination for pneumococcus, influenza, hepatitis A and B and HPV is recommended for all DMARDs. Any pain should be managed with paracetamol or NSAIDs. Avoid opioid analgesics if possible. Glucocorticoids are appropriate for flares of RA.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1345
NSAIDs are effective and still have a place, but the adverse effects are a problem. The use of DMARDs and biological DMARDs improves long-term outcomes. Methotrexate is the ‘backbone’ of treatment, and should be continued when starting other DMARDs. Supplementation with folic acid can improve gastrointestinal symptoms and reduce the risk of liver dysfunction.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1346
Oral use should be considered in those with severe disease as a temporary adjunct to DMARD therapy and where other treatments have failed or are contraindicated. The dose is prednisolone 10 mg (o) daily. Avoid doses higher than 15 mg daily if possible. Intra-articular injections of depot preparations are effective in larger joints.
Rheumatoid arthritis
1347
These agents target synovial inflammation and prevent joint damage. The choice depends on several factors, but is best left to the specialist coordinating care. In most patients with recently diagnosed RA, methotrexate is the cornerstone of management and should be commenced as early as possible. Initial dose: methotrexate 5–10 mg (o) once weekly on a specified day, increasing to maximum of 25 mg weekly or SC depending on clinical response and toxicity. Add folic acid 5–10 mg twice weekly (not on the day methotrexate is given).12 Biological DMARDs (bDMARDs) are the newer agents, which should be considered if remission is not achieved with appropriate methotrexate monotherapy, ‘triple therapy’ or other combinations. All bDMARDs are more effective when combined with methotrexate. As a rule, don’t use two biologicals together
Rheumatoid arthritis
1348
Monotherapy with methotrexate (or occasionally another DMARD) is standard. Less than 20% will reach disease remission; if not achieved, increase the dose or consider combination therapy. Many people are managed on conventional DMARDs. Combination therapy Consider standard triple therapy: methotrexate + sulfasalazine + hydroxychloroquine. Triple therapy can be used if methotrexate monotherapy has failed or initially on diagnosis, depending on the severity of the disease. Monitoring for FBE, LFTs and annual eye checks is necessary. Several other double combinations may be used (e.g. methotrexate with cyclosporin, leflunomide or a bDMARD).
Rheumatoid arthritis
1349
``` Arthritis, which can be acute, chronic or asymptomatic, is caused by a variety of crystal deposits in joints. The three main types of crystal arthritis are monosodium urate (gout), calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) and calcium phosphate (usually hydroxyapatite). ```
Crystal arthritis
1350
is an abnormality of uric acid metabolism resulting in hyperuricaemia and urate crystal deposition.
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1351
``` Urate crystals deposit in: joints—acute gouty arthritis soft tissue—tophi and tenosynovitis urinary tract—urate stones Four typical stages of gout are recognised: Stage 1—asymptomatic hyperuricaemia Stage 2—acute gouty arthritis Stage 3—intercritical gout (intervals between attacks) Stage 4—chronic tophaceous gout ```
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1352
Clinical features Typical clinical features of gout include:12 mainly a disorder of men (5–8% prevalence) onset earlier in men (40–50) than women (60+) acute attack: excruciating pain in great toe (see FIG. 25.12 ), early hours of morning skin over joint—red, shiny, swollen and hot exquisitely tender to touch
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1353
relief with colchicine, NSAIDs, corticosteroids | can subside spontaneously (3–10 days) without treatment
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1354
``` Causes/precipitating factors Foods: seafood, meat, liver, kidney Alcohol excess (e.g. binge drinking) Surgical operation Starvation, dehydration, acute illness Drugs (FACT: frusemide, aspirin, alcohol, cytotoxic drugs, thiazide diuretics) Chronic kidney disease Myeloproliferative disorders Lymphoproliferative disorders (e.g. leukaemia) Sugary soft drinks,28 fruit juices containing fructose Cytotoxic agents (tumour lysis) Hypothyroidism ```
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1355
The arthritis Monoarthritis in 90% of attacks: MTP joint great toe—75% other joints—usually lower limbs: other toes, mid foot, ankles, knees Polyarticular onset is more common in old men and may occur in DIP and PIP joints of fingers. No synovial joint is immune.
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1356
Tophi in ears, elbows (olecranon bursa), big toes, fingers, Achilles tendon (can take many years) Can cause patellar bursitis Can get cellulitis (does not respond to antibiotics)
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1357
Nodular gout More common in postmenopausal women with kidney impairment taking diuretic therapy. Causes pain and tophaceous deposits around osteoarthritic interphalangeal (especially DIP) joints of fingers.
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1358
Diagnosis Synovial fluid aspirate of affected joint, bursa or tophus → typical uric acid crystals using compensated polarised microscopy; this should be tried first (if possible) as it is the only real diagnostic feature Elevated serum uric acid (up to 30% can be within normal limits with a true acute attack)27 X-ray: punched out erosions at joint margins
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1359
Management Management of gout includes these principles: good advice and patient education information provision of rapid pain relief preventing further attacks prevention of destructive arthritis and tophi dealing with precipitating factors and comorbid conditions (e.g. alcohol dependence, obesity, CKD, polycythaemia vera, diabetes, hypertension)
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1360
NSAIDs (except aspirin), in full dosage, are first-line and effective. Give orally until symptoms abate (up to 4–5 days) then continue for one week or Corticosteroids:
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1361
prednisolone 15–30 mg (o) daily until symptoms abate,30,31 then decrease gradually or local corticosteroid injection (but very painful) up to a maximum of two affected sites31 or intramuscular (in difficult cases) e.g. tetracosactrin 1 mg or Colchicine: colchicine 1 mg (o) statim, then 0.5 mg 1 hour later as a single dose 1-day course (total dose is 1.5 mg)
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1362
Must be given early Avoid if kidney impairment Avoid use with macrolide antibiotics, e.g. clarithromycin, especially in CKD Avoid long-term use Note: Avoid changes to urate-lowering therapy during an acute attack of gout Avoid aspirin and urate pool lowering drugs (probenecid, allopurinol, sulfinpyrazone)30 Monitor kidney function and electrolytes
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1363
When acute attack subsides, preventive measures with the aim of treating through diet include: weight reduction a healthy, well-balanced diet avoidance of purine-rich food, such as organ meats (liver, brain, kidneys, sweetbread), tinned fish (sardines, anchovies, herrings), shellfish and game reducing red and processed meats, fried chips and sweet treats reduced intake of alcohol
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1364
reduced intake of sugary soft drinks (fructose)32 good fluid intake (e.g. water—2 litres a day) avoidance of drugs such as diuretics (thiazides, frusemide) and salicylates/low-dose aspirin wearing comfortable shoes avoidance of prolonged fasting
1365
``` Prevention (drug prophylaxis) Allopurinol (a xanthine oxidase inhibitor) is the first-line drug of choice: dose 100–300 mg daily. Indications: frequent acute attacks (or even >1 attack in 12 months) tophi or chronic gouty arthritis kidney stones or uric acid nephropathy hyperuricaemia Adverse effects: rash (2%) severe allergic reaction (rare) ```
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1366
Precautions: beware of kidney insufficiency and elderly patients—use lower doses beware of drug interactions: azathioprine and 6 mercaptopurine—potentially lethal amoxicillin—prone to rashes avoid initiating or changing allopurinol during an acute attack
1367
Method: treatment of intercritical and chronic gout Commence allopurinol 6–8 weeks after last acute attack. Start with 50 mg daily for 4 weeks and then increase by 50 mg every 2 to 4 weeks to maximum 900 mg daily.
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1368
Check uric acid level after 4 weeks: aim for level <0.38 mmol/L. Temporarily add colchicine 0.5 mg bd or indomethacin 25 mg bd or other NSAIDs (to avoid precipitation of gout). Second-line agents Febuxostat (an alternative xanthine oxidase inhibitor): dose is 40 mg (o) daily initially for 2–4 weeks, increasing the daily dose by 40 mg every 2–4 weeks, to maximum dose 120 mg. Probenecid (uricosuric agent)—a second-line agent. Good for hyperexcretion of uric acid by blocking renal tubular reabsorption. Dose: 500 mg/day (up to 2 g). Note: Aspirin antagonises effect.
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1369
``` Prophylaxis of a flare of gout12 colchicine 0.5 mg (o) daily or bd or prednisolone 5mg (o) daily or an NSAID, e.g. diclofenac 25–50 mg (o) up to 200 mg/day ```
Gout (monosodium urate crystal disorder)
1370
The finding of calcification of articular cartilage on X-ray examination is usually termed chondrocalcinosis. This is mainly a disorder of the elderly superimposed on an osteoarthritic joint. The acute attack is similar to an acute attack of gout but it affects the following joints (in order): knee 2nd and 3rd MCP joints wrist shoulder ankle elbow It can affect tendons, especially the Achilles tendon, and cause a fever resembling septic arthritis
Calcium pyrophosphate crystal disorder (pseudogout)
1371
The crystals in synovial fluid are readily identified by phase-contrast microscopy. X-rays are helpful in showing calcification of the articular cartilage. Management is based on aspiration and installation of a depot glucocorticosteroid by injection into the joint (if joint infection excluded) plus analgesia. Be cautious of using NSAIDs in the elderly—paracetamol is preferred. Colchicine can be used. Treatment includes:12 indomethacin 50 mg (o) tds (if tolerated) until symptoms abate and/or colchicine 0.5 mg (o) tds until attack subsides and paracetamol 500–1000 mg (o) four times daily, if necessary
Calcium pyrophosphate crystal disorder (pseudogout)
1372
This usually presents with an insidious onset of inflammatory back and buttock pain (sacroiliac joints and spine) and stiffness in young adults (age <40 years), and 20% present with peripheral joint involvement before the onset of back pain. It usually affects the girdle joints (hips and shoulders), knees or ankles. At some stage, over 35% have joints other than the spine affected. The symptoms are responsive to NSAIDs
Ankylosing spondylitis
1373
Key clinical criteria12 Low back pain persisting for >3 months Associated morning stiffness >30 minutes Awoken with pain during second half of night Improvement with exercise and not relieved by rest Limitation of lumbar spine motion in sagittal and frontal planes Chest expansion ↓ relative to normal values Unilateral sacroiliitis (grade 3 to 4) Bilateral sacroiliitis (grade 2 to 4)
Ankylosing spondylitis
1374
is a form of arthropathy in which non-septic arthritis and often sacroiliitis develop after an acute urogenital infection (usually Chlamydia trachomatis) or an enteric infection (e.g. Salmonella, Shigella).
Reactive arthritis
1375
DxT urethritis + conjunctivitis ± iritis + arthritis →
Reactive arthritis
1376
The arthritis (Reiter syndrome), which commences 1–3 weeks post infection, tends to affect the larger peripheral joints, especially the ankle (talocrural) and knees, but the fingers and toes can be affected in a patchy polyarthritic fashion. Mucocutaneous lesions, including keratoderma blennorrhagica and circinate balanitis, may occur, although the majority develop peripheral arthritis only
Reactive arthritis
1377
Like reactive arthritis, this can develop a condition indistinguishable from ankylosing spondylitis. It is therefore important to look beyond the skin condition of psoriasis, for about 5% will develop psoriatic arthropathy. It can have several manifestations: 1. mainly DIP joints 2. identical RA pattern but RA factor negative 3. identical ankylosing spondylosis pattern with sacroiliitis and spondylitis 4. monoarthritis, especially knees 5. severe deformity or ‘mutilans’ arthritis
Psoriatic arthritis
1378
X-rays: radiological sacroiliitis is central to the diagnosis changes include narrowing of SIJs, margin irregularity, sclerosis of peri-articular bone and eventually bony fusion. Spondylitis usually follows ESR and CRP: most patients have an elevated ESR and CRP at some stage of their disease HLA-B27: this test has low specificity and has limited value except that it predicts risk to offspring if positive Microbiology: in patients with a history of reactive arthritis, cultures should be obtained fr
Investigations for spondyloarthritides
1379
Consider referral for occupational therapy. Pharmacological agents:12 NSAIDs (e.g. indomethacin 75–200 mg (o) daily or 100 mg rectally nocte daily or ketoprofen 100 mg rectally nocte to control pain, stiffness and synovitis) sulfasalazine (if NSAIDs ineffective) intra-articular corticosteroids for severe monoarthritis and intralesional corticosteroids for enthesopathy Refer for advice on above and especially for DMARD and bDMARD therapy
Investigations for spondyloarthritides
1380
Morning stiffness and pain, improving with exercise =
RA.
1381
Polyarthritis (usually PIPs) and rash =
viral arthritis or drug reaction
1382
``` pain lumps discharge bleeding pruritus ```
Anorectal problems include:
1383
The complaint may be that defecation is painful or almost impossible because of anorectal pain
Anorectal pain (Proctalgia)
1384
``` Causes Pain without swelling: anal fissure anal herpes ulcerative proctitis proctalgia fugax solitary rectal ulcer ```
Anorectal pain (Proctalgia)
1385
``` tenesmus Painful swelling: perianal haematoma strangulated internal haemorrhoids abscess: perianal, ischiorectal pilonidal sinus fistula-in-ano (intermittent) anal carcinoma ```
Anorectal pain (Proctalgia)
1386
cause pain on defecation and usually develop after a period of constipation (may be a brief period) and tenesmus. Other associations are childbirth and opioid analgesics.1 Sometimes the pain can be excruciating, persisting for hours and radiating down the back of both legs. Anal fissures, especially if chronic, can cause minor anorectal bleeding (bright blood) noted as spotting on the toilet paper.
Anal fissure
1387
On inspection the anal fissure is usually seen in the anal margin—90% are situated in the midline posteriorly (6 o’clock). The fissure appears as an elliptical ulcer involving the lower third of the anus from the dentate line to the anal verge
Anal fissure
1388
Digital examination and sigmoidoscopy are difficult because of painful anal sphincter spasm. If there are multiple fissures, Crohn disease should be suspected. Crohn fissures look different, being indurated, oedematous and bluish in colour.
Anal fissure
1389
In chronic anal fissures a sentinel pile is common and in longstanding cases, a subcutaneous fistula is seen at the anal margin, with fibrosis and anal stenosis.
Anal fissure
1390
The aim is to disrupt the cycle of anal sphincter spasm, allowing improved blood flow to assist healing. Management is conservative: patients should avoid hard stools, and use warm salt (sitz) baths after bowel movements to relax the internal anal sphincter. A high-residue diet and avoidance of constipation (aim for soft bulky stools) may lead to resolution and long-term prevention. A combined local anaesthetic and corticosteroid ointment applied to the fissure, particularly before passing a stool, can provide relief but may not promote healing. A conservative treatment is the application of diluted glyceryl trinitrate ointment (e.g. Rectogesic 2% three times daily for 6 weeks to the lower anal canal) with a gloved finger gently inserted into the anal canal. It achieves healing rates of 50–70%, significantly more than placebo ointment.2,3 Transient headache is the main adverse effect. An alternative is 2% diltiazem cream applied twice daily for 6–8 weeks. An acute anal fissure will usually heal spontaneously or within a few weeks of treatment involving a high-fibre diet, sitz baths or laxatives
Anal fissure
1391
Lateral internal sphincterotomy is indicated in patients with a recurrent fissure and a chronic fissure with a degree of fibrosis and anal stenosis.5 This surgical procedure is the gold-standard surgical procedure. An alternative ‘chemical’ sphincterotomy, which is as effective as surgical treatment, is injection of botulinum toxin into the sphincter
Anal fissure
1392
Clinical features Episodic fleeting rectal pain Varies from mild discomfort to severe spasm Last 3–30 minutes Often wakes the person from sound sleep Can occur any time of day A functional bowel disorder of unknown aetiology Affects adults, being more common in women
Proctalgia fugax (levator ani spasm)
1393
Explanation and reassurance re self-healing An immediate drink (preferably hot) and local warmth with firm flannel pressure to the perineum Salbutamol inhaler (2 puffs statim) worth a trial but anecdotal evidence only Alternatives include glyceryl trinitrate spray for the symptoms or possibly antispasmodics, calcium-channel blockers and clonidine.
Proctalgia fugax (levator ani spasm)
1394
_______________ is an unpleasant sensation of incomplete evacuation of the rectum. It causes attempts to defecate at frequent intervals. The most common cause is irritable bowel syndrome. Another common cause is an abnormal mass in the rectum or anal canal, such as cancer (e.g. prostate, anorectal), haemorrhoids or a hard faecal mass. In some cases, despite intensive investigation, no cause is found and it appears to be a functional problem.
Tenesmus
1395
(thrombosed external haemorrhoid) is a purple tender swelling at the anal margin caused by rupture of an external haemorrhoidal vein following straining at toilet or some other effort involving a Valsalva manoeuvre. The degree of pain varies from a minor discomfort to severe pain. It has been described as the ‘five-day, painful, self-curing pile’, which may lead to a skin tag. Spontaneous rupture with relief of symptoms can occur.
Perianal haematoma
1396
Surgical intervention is recommended, especially early in the presence of severe discomfort. The treatment depends on the time of presentation after the appearance of the haematoma. 1. Within 24 hours of onset. Perform simple aspiration without local anaesthetic using a 19 gauge needle while the haematoma is still fluid. 2. From 1 to 3 days of onset. The blood has clotted and a simple incision under local anaesthetic over the haematoma with deroofing with scissors (like taking the top off a boiled egg) to remove the thrombosis by squeezing is recommended. Removal of the haematoma reduces the chances of recurrence and the development of a skin tag, which can be a source of anal
Perianal haematoma
1397
A marked oedematous circumferential swelling will appear if all the haemorrhoids are involved. If only one haemorrhoid is strangulated, proctoscopy will help to distinguish it from a perianal haematoma. Initial treatment is with rest and ice packs and then haemorrhoidectomy at the earliest possible time. It is best to refer for urgent surgery.
Strangulated haemorrhoids
1398
This occurs mainly in preschool and school-aged children. It is usually caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Symptoms are perianal redness and pain on defecation. Check for a fissure. After swabbing, treat with oral cephalexin for 10 days.
Perianal cellulitis6
1399
This is caused by infection by polymicrobial organisms in one of the anal glands that drain the anal canal.
Perianal anorectal abscess
1400
Clinical features Severe, constant, throbbing pain Fever and toxicity Hot, red, tender swelling adjacent to anal margin Non-fluctuant swelling Careful examination is essential to make the diagnosis. Look for evidence of a fistula, Crohn disease and anorectal cancer.
Perianal anorectal abscess
1401
Drain via a cruciate incision, which may need to be deep (with trimming of the corners) over the point of maximal induration. A drain tube can be inserted for 7–10 days. Packing is not necessary.
Perianal anorectal abscess
1402
Antibiotics If a perianal or perirectal abscess is recalcitrant or spreading with cellulitis, use: metronidazole 400 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5–7 days plus cephalexin 500 mg (o) 6 hourly for 5–7 days7
Perianal anorectal abscess
1403
An ischiorectal abscess presents as a larger, more diffuse, tender, dusky red swelling in the buttock. The presence of an abscess is usually very obvious but the precise focus is not always obvious on inspection. Antibiotics are of little help and surgical incision and drainage under deep anaesthesia is necessary as soon as possible.
Ischiorectal abscess
1404
Recurrent abscesses and discharge in the sacral region (at the upper end of the natal cleft about 6 cm from the anus) can be caused by a midline pilonidal sinus, which often presents as a painful abscess. Once the infection has settled it is important to excise the pits, allow free drainage of the midline cavity and lateral tracks and remove all ingrown hair. Antibiotics, which should be guided by culture (e.g. cephalexin and metronidazole), are given to complement surgical drainage only if there is severe surrounding cellulitis.6 Pilonidal means ‘a nest of hairs’ and the problem is particularly common in hirsute young men (see FIG. 26.3 ). Refer for excision of the sinus network if necessary, possibly marsupialisation.
Pilonidal sinus and abscess
1405
is a tract that communicates between the perianal skin (visible opening) and the anal canal, usually at the level of the dentate line. It usually arises from chronic perianal infection, especially following discharge of an abscess. It is common in Crohn disease. Symptoms include: recurrent abscesses; discharge of blood, pus or serous fluid; swelling and anal pain. A surgical opinion is necessary to determine the appropriate surgical procedures, which may be complex if it traverses sphincter musculature. One method is the Seton management, whereby thin silicone, silk or latex slings are inserted under general anaesthetic. This allows drainage and then guides surgical removal of the tracts
An anal fistula
1406
are relatively common and patients are often concerned because of the fear of cancer. A lump arising from the anal canal or rectum, such as an internal haemorrhoid, tends to appear intermittently upon defecation, and reduce afterwards.1 Common prolapsing lesions include second- and third-degree haemorrhoids, hypertrophied anal papilla, polyps and rectal prolapse. Common presenting lumps include skin tags, fourth-degree piles and perianal warts
Anorectal lumps
1407
is usually the legacy of an untreated perianal haematoma. It may require excision for aesthetic reasons, for hygiene or because it is a source of pruritus ani or irritation. A tag may be associated with a chronic fissure.
Skin tags
1408
Treatment (method of excision) A simple elliptical excision at the base of the skin tag is made under local anaesthetic. Suturing of the defect is usually not necessary. Perianal incisions/excisions rarely become infected.
Skin tags
1409
It is important to distinguish the common viral warts from the condylomata lata of secondary syphilis. Local therapy includes the application of podophyllin every 2 or 3 days by the practitioner or imiquimod. Cryotherapy or diathermy are alternatives
Perianal warts
1410
This is protrusion from the anus to a variable degree of the rectal mucosa (partial) or the full thickness of the rectal wall.
Rectal prolapse
1411
It appears to be associated with constipation and chronic straining, leading to a lax sphincter.
Rectal prolapse
1412
Features can include mucus discharge, bleeding, tenesmus, a solitary rectal ulcer and faecal incontinence (75%).
Rectal prolapse
1413
Visualisation of the prolapse is an important part of the diagnosis.
Rectal prolapse
1414
Surgery such as rectopexy | (fixing the rectum to the sacrum) is the only effective treatment for a complete prolapse
Rectal prolapse
1415
Temporary shrinking of a visible prolapse in an emergency situation can be achieved by a liberal sprinkling of fine crystalline sugar.
Rectal prolapse
1416
Haemorrhoids or piles are common and tend to develop between the ages of 20 and 50 years.
Internal haemorrhoids
1417
In | developed nations, roughly one in two adults has had a haemorrhoid by the age of 50.2
Internal haemorrhoids
1418
Internal haemorrhoids are a complex of dilated arteries, branches of the superior haemorrhoidal artery and veins of the internal haemorrhoidal venous plexus
Internal haemorrhoids
1419
The commonest cause is | chronic constipation related to a lack of dietary fibre and inappropriate bowel habit.
Internal haemorrhoids
1420
Stage 1: First-degree internal haemorrhoids: three bulges form above the dentate line. ______________________is common.
Bright | bleeding
1421
Stage 2: Second-degree internal haemorrhoids: the bulges increase in size and slide downwards so that the person is aware of lumps when straining at stool, but they disappear upon relaxing. ________________is a feature.
Bleeding
1422
Stage 3: Third-degree internal haemorrhoids: the pile continues to enlarge and slide downwards, requiring manual replacement to alleviate discomfort. _____________is also a feature.
Bleeding
1423
Bleeding is the main and, in many people, the only symptom. The word ‘haemorrhoid’ means flow of blood. Other symptoms include prolapse, mucoid discharge, irritation/itching, tenesmus, incomplete bowel evacuation and pain
internal haemorrhoids
1424
Stage 4: Fourth-degree internal haemorrhoids: prolapse has occurred and replacement of the prolapsed pile into the anal canal is ___________________
impossible
1425
Bleeding is the main and, in many people, the only symptom
internal haemorrhoids
1426
Other symptoms include prolapse, mucoid discharge, irritation/itching, tenesmus, incomplete bowel evacuation and pain
internal haemorrhoids
1427
Invasive treatment of haemorrhoids is based on three main procedures: rubber band ligation, cryotherapy and _________________
sphincterotomy
1428
Injection is now not so favoured, while a meta-analysis | concluded that rubber band ligation was the most effective non-surgical therapy
haemorrhoids
1429
Surgery is | generally reserved for large strangulated piles
haemorrhoids
1430
The best treatment, however, is prevention; | softish bulky faeces that pass easily prevent _________________
haemorrhoids
1431
People should be advised to have an adequate intake of non-caffeinated fluids and a diet with enough fibre by eating plenty of fresh fruit, vegetables, wholegrain cereals or bran
haemorrhoids
1432
They should respond to the urge to defecate and avoid straining at stool, complete their bowel action within a few minutes and avoid using laxatives
haemorrhoids
1433
Anal discharge refers to the involuntary escape of fluid from or near the anus.
Anal discharge
1434
``` Continent Anal fistula Pilonidal sinus STIs: anal warts, gonococcal ulcers, genital herpes Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome Cancer of anal margin ```
Anal discharge
1435
Incontinent Minor incontinence—weakness of internal sphincter Severe incontinence—weakness of levator ani and puborectalis 3. Partially continent Faecal impaction Rectal prolapse
Anal discharge
1436
Apart from ageing, risk factors include perianal injury, such as childbirth injury, anal surgery,irritable bowel syndrome and neurological disorders.
Anal (faecal) incontinence
1437
If there are symptoms of anal incontinence postnatally, early referral to a physiotherapist, continence nurse adviser or colorectal surgeon is advisable
Anal (faecal) incontinence
1438
``` Among the various treatments there are surgical possibilities, which vary from direct sphincter repair, directed injections such as collagen and silicone into the anal sphincter, and an artificial anal sphincter (e.g. Acticon Neosphincter). ```
Anal (faecal) incontinence
1439
Patients present with any degree of bleeding from a smear on the toilet tissue to severe haemorrhage.
Rectal bleeding
1440
Common causes are polyps, colon | and rectal cancer, ischaemic colitis, diverticular disease and haemorrhoids.
Rectal bleeding
1441
Local causes of bleeding include excoriated skin, anal fissure, a burst perianal haematoma and anal cancer.
Various causes of rectal bleeding
1442
``` Black tarry (melaena) stool indicates bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal tract and is rare distal to the lower ileum. Those with melaena should be admitted to hospital. ```
rectal bleeding
1443
Bright red blood in toilet | separate from faeces
Internal haemorrhoids
1444
Bright red blood on toilet paper
``` Internal haemorrhoids Fissure Anal cancer Pruritus Anal warts and condylomata ```
1445
Blood and mucus on | underwear
``` Third-degree haemorrhoids Fourth-degree haemorrhoids Prolapsed rectum Mucosal prolapse Prolapsed mucosal polyp ```
1446
Ulcerated perianal haematoma | Anal cancer
Blood on underwear (no | mucus)
1447
``` Colorectal cancer Proctitis Colitis, ulcerative colitis Large mucosal polyp Ischaemic colitis ```
Blood and mucus mixed with | faeces
1448
Blood mixed with faeces (no | mucus)
Small colorectal polyps | Small colorectal cancer
1449
Melaena (black tarry stools)
``` Gastrointestinal bleeding (usually upper) with long transit time to the anus ```
1450
Large volumes of mucus in | faeces (little blood)
Villous papilloma of rectum | Villous papilloma of colon
1451
Blood in faeces with | menstruation
Rectal endometriosis
1452
Frequent passage of blood and mucus indicates a rectal tumour or ______________,
proctitis
1453
_____________ are 5 mm collections of dilated mucosal capillaries and thick-walled submucosal veins, found usually in the ascending colon of elderly people who have no other bowel symptoms.
Angiodysplasias
1454
bleeding is persistent and recurrent. The site is identified by technetium-labelled red cell scan or colonoscopy.
Angiodysplasias
1455
``` Age >50 years, especially new bleeding Change of bowel habit Weight loss Weakness, fatigue Brisk bleeding Constipation Haemorrhoids (may be sinister) Family history of cancer ```
Red flag pointers for rectal bleeding
1456
which is itching of the anus, can be a distressing symptom that is worse at night, during hot weather and during exercise
Pruritus ani
1457
It is seen typically in adult males with considerable inner | drive, often at times of stress and in hot weather when sweating is excessive.
Pruritus ani
1458
In children, | threadworm infestation should be suspected.
Pruritus ani
1459
Consider also the more uncomfortable lichen sclerosus with its ivory white sclerotic plaques, which may also be present in the genital region.
Pruritus ani
1460
``` Causes and aggravating factors Psychological factors: stress and anxiety fear of cancer Generalised systemic or skin disorders: seborrhoeic dermatitis eczema lichen sclerosus diabetes mellitus candidiasis psoriasis (look for fissures in natal cleft) ```
Pruritus ani
1461
Urinalysis (?diabetes) Anorectal examination Scrapings and microscopy to detect organisms Stool examination for intestinal parasites
Pruritus ani
1462
Treat the cause (if known) and break the scratch cycle. Avoid local anaesthetics, antiseptics. Advise aqueous cream or a soap substitute to wash anus (instead of soap). Most effective preparations (for short 13 courses): methylprednisolone aceponate 0.1% in a fatty ointment; once daily until symptoms settle (up to 4 weeks)
Pruritus ani
1463
If an isolated area and resistant, infiltrate 0.5 mL of triamcinolone intradermally
Pruritus ani
1464
Most cases of uncomplicated pruritus ani resolve with simple measures, including explanation and reassurance. Avoid perfumed soaps and powders. Use bland aqueous cream or a mild soap substitute. Otherwise prescribe a corticosteroid, especially methylprednisolone aceponate 0.1%. Once symptoms are controlled, use hydrocortisone 1%. 13 Lifestyle stress and anxiety underlie most cases. In obese people with intertrigo and excessive sweating, strap the buttocks apart with adhesive tape. Consider perianal lichen simplex and lichen sclerosus in those presenting with ‘a sore bottom’.
Practice tips for pruritus ani
1465
Pain of ___________spinal origin may be referred anywhere to the chest wall, but the commonest sites are the scapular region, the paravertebral region 2–5 cm from midline and, anteriorly, over the costochondral region.
thoracic
1466
Intervertebral disc prolapse is very uncommon in the ____________spine.
thoracic
1467
The __________spine is the commonest site in the vertebral column for metastatic disease.
thoracic
1468
The commonest cause of ____________ back pain is musculoskeletal, due usually to musculoligamentous strains caused by poor posture.
thoracic
1469
pathological fracture, especially in people over 60 years, including both men and women, must always be considered in acute thoracic pain.
Osteoporotic
1470
_________conditions that can involve the spine include osteomyelitis, tuberculosis, brucellosis, syphilis and Salmonella infections.
Infective
1471
The three common primary malignancies that metastasise to the spine are those originating in the ______________ and the prostate (all paired structures).
lung, breast
1472
back pain occurring in an older person unrelenting back pain, unrelieved by rest (this includes night pain) rapidly increasing back pain constitutional symptoms (e.g. unexplained weight loss, fever, malaise) a history of treatment for cancer (e.g. excision of skin melanoma)
The symptoms and signs that should alert the clinician to malignant disease are
1473
``` malignant disease (e.g. multiple myeloma, lung, prostate) osteoporosis vertebral pathological fractures polymyalgia rheumatica Paget disease (may be asymptomatic) herpes zoster ```
Thoracic back pain in adults
1474
The asymmetry may not be apparent until the patient tries to contract the serratus anterior against resistance by pushing the outstretched arm against a wall.
Winging of the scapula
1475
The common cause is neurogenic paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle
Winging of the scapula
1476
Paralysis may result from injury to the long thoracic nerve (from C5, 6, 7 nerve roots) such as a neck injury or a direct blow to the suprascapular area and from injury to the brachial plexus such as excessive carrying of heavy packs, severe traction on the arm or forceful cervical manipulation
Winging of the scapula
1477
trigger point is characterised by local tenderness in a muscle that twitches upon stimulation and causes referred pain when subjected to pressure.
Myofascial trigger points
1478
AKA chronic diffuse non-inflammatory pain. Its pathophysiology is poorly understood.
Fibromyalgia syndrome
1479
a history of widespread pain (neck to low back) affecting all four body quadrants 2. fatigue, sleep problems, cognitive disturbance 3. pain in 11 of 18 tender points on digital palpation (the original definition in 1990) 4. pain for at least 3 months
Fibromyalgia syndrome
1480
Female to male ratio = 4:1 Usual age onset 29–37 years: diagnosis 44–53 years Positive family history Psychological disorders (e.g. anxiety, depression, tension headache, irritable digestive system)
Fibromyalgia syndrome
1481
Management requires considerable explanation, | support (counselling) and reassurance
Fibromyalgia syndrome
1482
``` Treat pain (simple analgesics—paracetamol) and depression (psychologist referral, antidepressants) on their merits ```
Fibromyalgia syndrome
1483
Investigations should include an ESR, Bence–Jones protein analysis and immunoglobulin electrophoresis
Multiple myeloma
1484
Osteoporotic vertebral body collapse should be diagnosed only when multiple myeloma has been excluded.
Multiple myeloma
1485
Early treatment of multiple myeloma can hold this disease in remission for many years and prevent crippling vertebral fractures
Multiple myeloma
1486
Severe back pain in an unwell patient with fluctuating temperature (fever) should be considered as infective until proved otherwise.
Infective discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis and | epidural/subdural abscess
1487
Investigations should include blood cultures, serial X-rays | and nuclear bone scanning
Infective discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis and | epidural/subdural abscess
1488
Biphasic bone scans using technetium with either indium or gallium scanning for white cell collections usually clinch this diagnosis.
Infective discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis and | epidural/subdural abscess
1489
Strict bed rest with high-dose antibiotic therapy is usually curative.
Infective discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis and | epidural/subdural abscess
1490
Upper thoracic pain and stiffness is common after ‘__________’.
whiplash
1491
Symptoms due to a fractured vertebra usually last 3 months and to a fractured rib ____________.
6 weeks
1492
Consider ____________ as a cause of an osteoporotic collapsed vertebra.
multiple myeloma
1493
______________ accounts for 2.6% of all presenting problems in Australian general practice
Back pain
1494
Approximately 85–90% of the population will experience ___________ at some stage of their lives
back pain
1495
At least 50% of these people will recover within 2 weeks and 90% within 6 weeks, but recurrences are frequent and have been reported in 40–70%
Back pain
1496
It most commonly occurs in those aged 30–60 years, the average age being 45 years.
Back pain
1497
L5 and S1 nerve root lesions represent most of the cases of sciatica presenting in general practice.
Back pain
1498
An intervertebral disc prolapse is causative in only 6–8% of cases of back pain, 3 and only a small fraction of those require urgent diagnosis and surgical treatment.
Back pain
1499
The commonest cause of low back pain is vertebral dysfunction or mechanical pain, which then has to be further analysed.
low back pain
1500
Degenerative changes in the lumbar spine (lumbar spondylosis) are commonly found in the older age group
low back pain
1501
It is important to consider malignant disease, especially in an older person
low back pain
1502
Age >50 years or <20 years; consider osteoporosis History of cancer Temperature >37.8°C Constant pain—day and night esp. severe night pain Unexplained weight loss Symptoms in other systems, e.g. cough, breast mass Significant trauma; sometimes mild trauma Features of spondyloarthropathy, e.g. peripheral arthritis (e.g. age <40 years, nighttime waking) Neurological deficit, e.g. numbness, paraesthesia in limb Drug or alcohol abuse, especially IV drug use Use of anticoagulants Use of corticosteroids No improvement over 1 month Possible cauda equina syndrome: saddle anaesthesia recent onset bladder dysfunction/overflow incontinence bilateral or progressive neurological deficit
low back pain
1503
Chronic back pain is more likely to occur in people who have become anxious about their problem or who are under excessive stress.
Psychogenic considerations
1504
aching throbbing pain =
inflammation (e.g. sacroiliitis)
1505
deep aching diffuse pain =
referred pain (e.g. dysmenorrhoea)
1506
superficial steady diffuse pain =
= local pain (e.g. muscular strain)
1507
boring deep pain =
bone disease (e.g. neoplasia, Paget disease)
1508
intense sharp or stabbing (superimposed on a dull ache) =
radicular pain (e.g. sciatica)
1509
Continuous pain, present day and night, is suggestive of
neoplasia or infection
1510
Pain provoked by activity and relieved by rest | suggests __________
mechanical dysfunction
1511
while pain worse at rest and relieved by moderate activity is typical of ____________
inflammation
1512
Pain aggravated by standing or walking that is relieved by sitting is suggestive of ____________.
spondylolisthesis
1513
Pain of the calf that travels proximally with walking indicates _____________
vascular claudication
1514
pain in the | buttock that descends with walking indicates _____________claudication
neurogenic
1515
This test is a passive test by the practitioner. The patient lies supine with both knees extended and the ankle dorsiflexed. The affected leg is raised slowly, keeping the knee extended. If sciatica with dural irritation is present, 20° to 60° of elevation causes reproduction of pain.
Straight leg raising (SLR) test (Lasègue test)
1516
The slump test is an excellent provocation test for lumbosacral pain and is more sensitive than the __________
SLR test
1517
It is a screening test for a disc lesion and dural tethering. It should be performed on those who have low back pain with pain extending into the leg, and especially for posterior thigh pain.
Slump test
1518
A positive result is reproduction of the patient’s pain, and may appear at an early stage of the test (when it is ceased)
Slump test
1519
The unaffected leg is straightened. 4. The affected leg only is then straightened Both legs are straightened together. 6. The foot of the affected straightened leg is dorsiflexed.
The slump test
1520
It is positive if the back or leg pain is reproduced.
Significance of the slump test
1521
If positive, it suggests disc disruption. If negative, it may indicate lack of serious disc pathology. If positive, one should approach manual therapy with caution.
Significance of the slump test
1522
femoral stretch test (prone, flex knee, extend hip) motor: extension of knee sensation: anterior thigh reflex: knee jerk (L3, L4)
Significance of the slump test
1523
motor: resisted inversion foot sensation: inner border of foot to great toe reflex: knee jerk
L4
1524
motor: walking on heels, resisted extension great toe sensation: middle three toes (dorsum) reflex: nil
L5:
1525
sensation: little toe, most of sole reflex: ankle jerk (S1, S2)
S1:
1526
_____________ of the lumbar spine are not recommended in acute non-specific low back pain (pain <6 weeks) in the absence of ‘red flags’ as they are of limited diagnostic value and no benefits in physical function are observed
Plain X-rays
1527
These are most important for the patient presenting with chronic back pain, especially in the presence of ‘red flags’,
``` plain X-ray urine examination (office dipstick) FBE; ESR/CRP serum alkaline phosphatase PSA in males >50 years ```
1528
____________ test for ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis
HLA-B27 antigen
1529
serum electrophoresis for _________________ (paraprotein)
multiple myeloma
1530
__________ for possible prostate cancer
PSA
1531
______________ for pyogenic infection and bacterial endocarditis
blood culture
1532
_________________ to demonstrate inflammatory or neoplastic disease and infections (e.g. osteomyelitis) before changes are apparent on plain X-ray
bone scanning
1533
__________________ studies to screen leg pain and differentiate neurological diseases from nerve compression syndromes
electromyographic (EMG)
1534
technetium pyrophosphate scan of SIJ for ____________________
ankylosing spondylitis
1535
The big three metastases are from lung, breast and prostate.
diagnostic guidelines for spinal pain
1536
The other three metastases are from thyroid, kidney/adrenal and melanoma
diagnostic guidelines for spinal pain
1537
Pain with standing/walking (relief with sitting) =
spondylolisthesis
1538
Pain (and stiffness) at rest, relief with activity =
inflammation
1539
In a young person with inflammation, think of __________________.
ankylosing spondylitis
1540
Stiffness at rest, pain with or after activity, relief with rest = __________________.
osteoarthritis
1541
Pain provoked by activity, relief with rest = ___________________.
mechanical dysfunction
1542
Pain in bed at early morning = _______________________.
inflammation, depression or malignancy/infection
1543
Pain in periphery of limb = discogenic → radicular or vascular → claudication or spinal canal stenosis → _________________
claudication
1544
Pain in calf (ascending) with walking = ___________________
vascular claudication.
1545
Pain in buttock (descending) with walking = ____________________
neurogenic claudication
1546
The rule of thumb for the lumbar nerve root lesions is L3 from L2–3 disc, L4 from L3–4, L5 from L4–5 and ___________ from L5–S1.
S1
1547
___________________ protrusion can cause bladder symptoms, either incontinence or retention.
A large disc
1548
__________________ is still the most common cause of back pain in the elderly and may represent a recurrence of earlier dysfunction
Mechanical spinal dysfunction
1549
Special problems to consider are malignant disease, degenerative spondylolisthesis, vertebral pathological fractures and occlusive vascular disease
the most common cause of back pain in the elderly
1550
Mechanical disruption of the vertebral segment or segments is the foremost cause to consider, while the main serious clinical syndromes are secondary to disruption with or without prolapse of the intervertebral disc, usually L4–5 or L5–S1.
Acute back and leg pain due to vertebral dysfunction
1551
caused by nerve root compression from a disc protrusion (most common cause), tumour or narrowed intervertebral foramina typically produces pain in the leg related to the dermatome and myotome innervated by that nerve root.
Radicular pain
1552
The two nerve roots that account for most of these problems are L5 and S1, and the commonest disc lesion is L4–5, closely followed by L5–S1
Radiculopathy
1553
About 5% of the population have spondylolisthesis but not all are symptomatic. The pain is caused by extreme stretching of the interspinous ligaments or of the nerve roots.
Spondylolisthesis
1554
The onset of back pain in many of these people is due to concurrent disc degeneration rather than a mechanical problem
Spondylolisthesis
1555
The pain is typically aggravated by prolonged standing, walking and exercise.
Spondylolisthesis
1556
Extension of the spine should be avoided, especially hyperextension.
Spondylolisthesis
1557
also known as degenerative osteoarthritis or osteoarthrosis, is a common problem of wear and tear that may follow vertebral dysfunction, especially after severe disc disruption and degeneration.
Lumbar spondylosis
1558
____________of the low back is the main feature of lumbar spondylosis.
Stiffness
1559
Basic analgesics (depending on patient response and tolerance) NSAIDs (judicious use) Appropriate balance between light activity and rest Exercise program and hydrotherapy (if available)—physiotherapy supervision Regular mobilisation therapy may help Consider trials of electrotherapy such as TENS Consider decompressive surgery for spinal canal stenosis
Lumbar spondylosis
1560
It is important to identify malignant disease and other space-occupying lesions as early as possible because of the prognosis and the effect of a delayed diagnosis on treatment.
Malignant disease
1561
If malignant disease is proved and ________is excluded, a search should be made for the six main primary malignancies that metastasise to the spine
myeloma
1562
The aim of treatment is to reduce pain, maintain function, and minimise disability and work absenteeism and importantly the risk of chronicity.
Treatment options for back pain
1563
Advice to stay active. Evidence from randomised controlled trials confirms that, in people with acute low back pain, advice to stay active speeds symptomatic recovery, reduces chronic disability and results in less time off work compared with bed rest or usual care.
Treatment options for back pain
1564
Appropriate educational material leads to a clear insight into the causes and aggravation of the back disorder plus coping strategies
Patient education | Treatment options for back pain
1565
Thermography is beneficial. Heat in the form of heat bags, hot flannels and similar methods can be of benefit, especially in the first 2–4 weeks of acute low back pain.
Treatment options for back pain
1566
Exercises. An early graduated exercise program as soon as the acute phase settles has reasonable evidence supporting it in primary care
Treatment options for back pain
1567
Evidence indicates that paracetamol is ineffective for non-specific low back pain.
Treatment options for back pain
1568
NSAIDs fare somewhat better than paracetamol in systematic reviews, showing some improvements in pain and disability compared to placebo
Treatment options for back pain
1569
``` Muscle relaxants (benzodiazepines, e.g. diazepam, or baclofen) are effective in the management of non‐specific low back pain ```
Treatment options for back pain
1570
The role of opioids is limited because any pain-control benefits are outweighed by the potential risks.
Treatment options for back pain
1571
Corticosteroid injection under radio-image intensification is widely used in some clinics
Treatment options for back pain
1572
Injections of local anaesthetic with or without corticosteroids are sometimes used for chronic pain, especially for nerve root pain
Treatment options for back pain
1573
Active exercises are the best form of physical therapy (see FIG.28.12a, b ). Passive spinal stretching at the end range is a safe, effective method (see FIG. 28.14 ). Spinal mobilisation is a gentle, repetitive, rhythmic movement within the range of movement of the joint. It is safe and modestly effective, and a variation of stretching.
Treatment options for back pain
1574
Spinal manipulation is a high-velocity thrust at the end range of the joint. It seems to produce a faster response, but requires greater skill.
Treatment options for back pain
1575
= pain less than 6 weeks
Acute pain
1576
= pain 6–12 weeks
Subacute pain
1577
pain greater than 12 weeks
Chronic pain =
1578
Explanation and reassurance about no evidence of serious damage or disease; cognitive behaviour therapy Back education program Encouragement of normal daily activities, including work, and taking responsibility for own management Optional non-opioid analgesics (NSAIDs) Prescribe exercises (provided non-aggravating) Physical therapy: stretching of affected segment, consider spinal mobilisation or manipulation (if no contraindication) 8,14,25 Review in about 5 days (probably best time for consideration of physical therapy) No investigation needed initially
Management of non-specific acute low back pain
1579
is a more complex and protracted problem to treat, but most cases will gradually settle within 12 weeks
Sciatica
1580
Explanation and reassurance Back education program Resume normal activities as soon as possible Regular non-opioid analgesics with review as the patient mobilises NSAIDs for 10–14 days, then cease and review (low-quality evidence for mild improvement, but with side effects) 28 If severe pain unrelieved, add an opioid that works well for the patient, such as tapentadol SR 50 mg (o) bd as necessary, for short-term use 27 Walking and swimming Weekly or 2-weekly follow-up Consider: a course of corticosteroids for very severe pain, 8 e.g. prednisolone 50 mg for 5 days, then 25 mg for 5 days, gradually tapering to 3 weeks in total
Sciatica with or without low back pain
1581
back education program and ongoing support encouragement of normal activity exercise program mindfulness-based stress reduction (evidence based) paracetamol (e.g. 500 or 665 mg (o) 8 hourly) although not tested in any RCT NSAIDs for 14 days (especially if inflammation, i.e. pain at rest—relieved by activity and poor response to non-pharmacological treatment) and review antidepressants (but only if depressed) 30 trial of mobilisation or manipulation (at least three treatments)—if no contraindications 19,31 (low-quality evidence) consider a multidisciplinary rehabilitation team approach or a ‘back school’ (but evidence again suggests just trivial improvement)
Chronic back pain
1582
Absolute Bladder/bowel control disturbance; perineal sensory change Progressive motor disturbance (e.g. significant foot drop, weakness in quadriceps)
General guidelines for surgical intervention for radiculopathy
1583
Relative Severe prolonged pain or disabling pain Failure of conservative treatment with persistent pain (problem of permanent nerve damage) If all four of the following criteria are met: 8 leg pain equal to or worse than back pain positive straight leg raise test no response to conservative therapy after 4–6 weeks imaging shows a lesion corresponding to symptoms
General guidelines for surgical intervention for radiculopathy
1584
Myelopathy, especially acute cauda equina compression syndrome Severe radiculopathy with progressive neurologic deficit Spinal fractures
Urgent referral
1585
Back pain that is related to posture, aggravated by movement and sitting, and relieved by lying down is due to __________________, especially a disc disruption.
vertebral dysfunction
1586
The pain from most disc lesions is generally relieved by _________.
rest
1587
Plain X-rays are of limited use, especially in younger patients, and may appear normal in __________.
disc prolapse
1588
Remember the possibility of depression as a cause of back pain; if suspected, consider a trial of ________________
antidepressants
1589
If back pain persists, possibly worse during bed rest at night, consider _____________ disease, depressive illness or other systemic diseases.
malignant
1590
Pain that is worse on standing and walking, but relieved by sitting, is probably caused by _________.
spondylolisthesis
1591
If pain and stiffness is present on waking and lasts longer than 30 minutes upon activity, consider __________
inflammation
1592
Bilateral back pain is more typical of systemic diseases, while unilateral pain typifies _________causes.
mechanical
1593
Back pain at rest and morning stiffness in a young person demand careful investigation: consider inflammation such as ankylosing spondylitis and ______________
reactive | arthritis
1594
A large central disc protrusion can cause bladder symptoms, either _____________ or retention.
incontinence
1595
The T12–L1 and L1–2 discs are the ___________pain discs.
groin
1596
The L4–5 disc is the _______pain disc
back
1597
The L5–S1 disc is the ________pain disc.
leg
1598
Severe limitation of SLR (especially to less than 30°) indicates _________disc prolapse.
lumbar
1599
When someone describes ‘bruising easily’ it is important to exclude thrombocytopenia due to bone marrow disease and clotting factor deficiencies such as ____________.
haemophilia
1600
The commonest cause of an acquired bleeding disorder is ___________ (e.g. aspirin, NSAIDs, cytotoxics and oral anticoagulants)
drug therapy
1601
Bleeding secondary to _____defects is usually spontaneous, associated with a petechial rash and occurs immediately after trauma or a cut wound
platelet
1602
Bleeding caused by _________factor deficiency is usually traumatic and delayed
coagulation
1603
``` coagulation deficiencies (reduction or inhibition of circulatory coagulation factors) platelet abnormalities: of platelet number or function vascular defects: of vascular structure or endothelium ```
Bleeding disorders can result from
1604
___________ haemostatic disorders which are the most common include von Willebrand disease (vWD), thrombocytopenia and platelet function disorders.
Primary
1605
A common condition is haemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which is a self-limiting disease usually presenting on the second or third day of life because of a deficiency of coagulation factors dependent on ____________. The routine use of prophylactic __________________ in the newborn infant has virtually eliminated this problem.
vitamin K
1606
_____________________ is the commonest of the primary platelet Page 346 disorders in children. Both acute and chronic forms have an immunological basis. The diagnosis is based on the peripheral blood film and platelet count. The platelet count is commonly below 50 000/mm3 (50 × 10 9 /L). Spontaneous remission within 4 to 6 weeks occurs with acute ITP in childhood.
Idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
1607
which is a type of IgA vasculitis, is the commonest vasculitis of children.
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1608
It affects the small vessels, producing a leucocytoclastic vasculitis with a classic triad of nonthrombocytopenic purpura, large joint arthritis and abdominal pain
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1609
It is diagnosed clinically by the characteristic distribution of the rash (palpable purpura) over the lower limbs, extending onto the buttocks
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1610
All ages, mainly in children 2–8 years Rash, mainly on buttocks and legs (see FIG. 29.4 ) 5 Rash can occur on hands, arms and trunk Arthritis (in two-thirds): mainly ankles and knees Abdominal pain—colicky (vasculitis of GIT) Haematuria (in 90%): reflects nephritis
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1611
Kidney involvement—deposition of IgA immune complex (a serious complication) Melaena Intussusception Scrotal involvement
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1612
Largely symptomatic—analgesics No specific therapy Short course of steroids for abdominal pain (if intussusception excluded) If haematuria: follow-up urine microscopy and kidney function especially if no resolution (in approximately 5%)
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1613
DxT arthralgia + purpuric rash ± abdominal pain →
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
1614
Acute onset in children Easy bruising and petechiae Epistaxis, bleeding gums and menorrhagia common Isolated thrombocytopenia: platelets may be <20 000/mm3 Other blood cells normal Otherwise normal physical examination Normal bone marrow with normal or increased megakaryocytes (acute leukaemia and aplastic anaemia should be excluded)
Immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura
1615
DxT bruising + oral bleeding + epistaxis →
Immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura
1616
The two distinct types caused by immune destruction of the platelets are: acute thrombocytopenia of childhood—usually in children, usually postviral chronic ITP—autoimmune disorder, usually in adult women; all cases should be referred to a specialist unit
Immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura
1617
This is caused by a reaction to a viral infection resulting in the production of cross-reacting antibodies against platelets.
Immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura
1618
Bleeding is treated with immunoglobulin IV or steroids (prednisolone or dexamethasone).
Immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura
1619
_______________ is a relapsing illness that rarely undergoes spontaneous remission and may require treatment with steroids, intravenous immunoglobulin or biological agents, e.g. rituximab.
Chronic ITP
1620
Some require splenectomy, but this operation is avoided where possible, especially in young children, because of the subsequent risk of severe infection, particularly with Streptococcus pneumoniae
``` Chronic idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura ```
1621
This is an uncommon life-threatening syndrome of haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia and extremely high LDH. Clinical features include fever (non-infectious) and neurologic and kidney abnormalities. The defect is in the absence of a specific protease in the plasma.
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
1622
This is the most common disorder of haemostasis (incidence 1% of population) and is usually a mild problem with an excellent prognosis. 7 There are multiple subtypes—type I, the mildest, accounts for about 75%.
von Willebrand disease
1623
``` Autosomal dominant inheritance (common types) Equal sex incidence Classically presents with mucocutaneous bleeding Prolonged bleeding time Bleeding tendency exacerbated by aspirin Platelets normal (common types) Defective platelet adhesion at site of trauma combined with factor VIII deficiency 7 aPTT prolonged Positive vW factor antigen (low) vW factor ristocetin (low) vW factor collagen binding assay Menorrhagia and epistaxis common Haemarthroses rare ```
von Willebrand disease
1624
DxT menorrhagia + bruising + increased bleeding—1. incisions 2. dental 3. mucosal →
von Willebrand disease
1625
Avoid aspirin, NSAIDs, IM injections Be cautious of surgical and dental procedures Preparations that help include desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), factor VIII concentrates and tranexamic acid (especially for minor procedures)
von Willebrand disease
1626
Spontaneous haemarthroses, especially knees, ankles and elbows, are almost pathognomonic X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance Invariably only males affected (1 in 5000) Females theoretically affected if haemophiliac father and carrier mother The human factor gene has long been identified Severity levels: severe—bleed spontaneously moderate—bleed with mild trauma or surgery mild—bleed after major trauma or surgery Deficiency of factor VIII aPTT prolonged Normal prothrombin time and fibrinogen Many seropositive for HIV, hepatitis B or C (factor VIII concentrate transmission) Low platelet count should suspect HIV-associated ITP
Haemophilia A
1627
Infusion of recombinant factor VIII concentrates
Haemophilia A
1628
Identical clinical features to haemophilia A Also an X-linked recessive hereditary disorder Incidence of 1 in 30 000 Deficiency of coagulation factor IX Same laboratory findings as haemophilia A apart from specific factor assays Treatment is with recombinant factor IX concentrates
Haemophilia B (Christmas disease)
1629
Splenectomy | Main indications:
``` immune thrombocytopenic purpura haemolytic anaemias, esp. hereditary spherocytosis hypersplenism trauma Hodgkin/non-Hodgkin lymphoma ```
1630
Immediate problem is thrombocytosis (↑ platelets to 600–1000 × 10 9 /L) for 2–3 weeks with risk of thromboembolism. Long-term risk is overwhelming infection (S. pneumoniae [especially], Haemophilus influenzae and meningococcus), especially in young children in the first 2–3 years post-splenectomy. For elective surgery give immunisation at least 2 weeks before surgery. Best under specialist guidance. Lifelong prophylaxis should be considered in select patients such as those severely immunocompromised.
Post-splenectomy management
1631
Pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines—depends on age and should be guided by immunisation guidelines Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine—once only if not immunised Influenza vaccine—annual Long-term penicillin may be indicated: amoxicillin daily or phenoxymethylpenicillin bd Urgent hospital admission if infection develops
Post-splenectomy management
1632
Control bleeding episodes with appropriate drugs, blood products and local measures, such as simple compression or topical haemostatic agents. Infuse appropriate blood components for the treatment of coagulation factor deficiencies and some platelet disorders (e.g. factor VIII for haemophilia A, fresh frozen plasma for multiple factor deficiency). Refer patients with identified defects to a consultant haematologist or haemophilia centre. Supervise advanced planning in patients intending pregnancy, surgery or dental extraction.
Management principles for abnormal bleeding
1633
Think of ____________________ in any acutely ill patient with abnormal bleeding from sites such as the mouth or nose, venepuncture or with widespread ecchymoses. The clinical situations are numerous, such as septicaemia, obstetric emergencies, disseminated malignant disease, falciparum malaria and snake bites.
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
1634
Chest pain represents an _______________ until proved otherwise
acute coronary event
1635
Immediate life-threatening causes of spontaneous chest pain are
``` myocardial infarction (MI) and unstable angina (acute coronary syndromes: ACS) pulmonary embolism aortic dissection tension pneumothorax ```
1636
The commonest causes encountered in general practice are musculoskeletal or chest wall pain and psychogenic disorders
Probability diagnosis | for acute chest pain
1637
``` Dizziness/syncope Pain or heaviness/pressure in arms L > R, jaw Thoracic back pain Sweating/diaphoresis Palpitations Syncope Haemoptysis Dyspnoea Pain on inspiration Pallor Past history: ischaemia, diabetes, hypertension ```
Red flag pointers for acute chest pain
1638
Spontaneous pneumothorax should also be considered, especially in a young male of slight build.
acute chest pain
1639
This is the key test for defining chest pain as cardiac in origin. Physical stress, such as the motordriven treadmill or a bicycle ergometer, is used to elicit changes in the ECG to diagnose myocardial ischaemia
Exercise stress test
1640
This radionuclide myocardial perfusion scan using thallium can complement the exercise ECG
Exercise thallium scan
1641
Damaged (necrosed) myocardial tissue releases cellular enzymes, which are markers of this damage: troponin T and troponin I (the key marker)–on arrival and 2 hours later (ADAPT trial protocol) creatinine kinase (CK) and creatinine kinase–myocardial bound fraction (CK–MB) myoglobin
Serum enzymes
1642
Coronary artery disease includes the acute coronary syndromes (unstable angina and myocardial infarction), stable angina and other variants of angina.
Myocardial ischaemia
1643
The pain of angina tends to last a few minutes only (average 3–5 minutes) and is relieved by rest and glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin). The pain may be precipitated by an arrhythmia.
Stable angina
1644
Ischaemic pain lasting longer than 15–20 minutes is usually infarction. However, it can resolve in a few minutes or within 24 hours. The pain is typically heavy and crushing, and can vary from mild to intense. Occasionally the attack is painless, typically with diabetes. Pallor, sweating and vomiting may accompany the attack.
Myocardial infarction
1645
This term includes rest angina, new onset effort angina, post-infarct angina and post-coronary procedure angina
Unstable angina.
1646
For management purposes it is best to classify the clinical presentation of acute ischaemic chest pain as an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or a non-ST elevation acute coronary syndrome (NSTEACS), which includes NSTEMI and ________.
unstable angina
1647
Chest pain is present in 75% of dissections. The pain—which is usually sudden, unrelenting, severe and midline—has a tearing or ripping sensation and is usually situated retrosternally and between the scapulae
Aortic dissection
1648
It radiates to the abdomen, flank and legs. An important | diagnostic feature is the inequality in the pulses (e.g. carotid, radial and femoral).
Aortic dissection
1649
Investigations include transoesophageal | electrocardiogram, CT angiogram and MRI.
Aortic dissection
1650
This may have a dramatic onset following occlusion of the pulmonary artery or a major branch, especially if more than 50% of the cross-sectional area of the pulmonary trunk is occluded.
Pulmonary embolism
1651
The diagnosis can present clinical difficulties, especially when dyspnoea is present without pain.
Pulmonary embolism
1652
It can be asymptomatic. Embolism usually presents with retrosternal chest pain (see FIG. 30.6 ) and may be associated with syncope and breathlessness
Pulmonary embolism
1653
The diagnosis is usually confirmed by a CT pulmonary angiogram (best) and/or V/Q scan (see later in chapter) and ECG (look for T-wave inversion V1–V4).
Pulmonary embolism
1654
Inflammation of the pleura is due to underlying pneumonia (viral or bacterial), pulmonary infarction, tumour infiltration or connective tissue disease (e.g. SLE).
Pleuritis
1655
Often sudden onset Pain usually localised without radiation Sharp knife-like pain Continuous pain with sharp exacerbations Aggravated by inspiration, sneezing and coughing May be associated dyspnoea, cough, haemoptysis
Pleuritis
1656
The clinical presentation depends on the cause, whether viral (commonest), a connective tissue disorder, bacterial, uraemia or post-AMI. It may be idiopathic. There may be fever, malaise, fatigue and anxiety
Acute pericarditis
1657
Signs: friction rub, tachycardia, paradoxical pulse Investigations: ECG, CXR, echocardiography
Acute pericarditis
1658
pleuritic (the commonest), aggravated by cough and deep inspiration, sometimes brought on by swallowing; worse with lying flat, relieved by sitting up and leaning forward 2. steady, crushing, retrosternal pain radiating to neck and arms that mimics myocardial infarction 3. pain synchronous with the heartbeat and felt over the praecordium and left shoulder
Pericarditis
1659
The cardinal sign is a pericardial friction rub (often transient). Treatment depends on the cause— Table 30.3 Page 358 Page 359 may be colchicine (3 months) plus aspirin or ibuprofen (1–2 weeks).
Pericarditis
1660
The acute onset of pleuritic pain and dyspnoea in a person with a history of asthma or emphysema is the hallmark of a pneumothorax
Spontaneous pneumothorax
1661
It is due to a rupture of a subpleural ‘bleb’ or a | small air-containing cyst
Spontaneous pneumothorax
1662
It often occurs in young, slender males without a history of lung disorders. The pain varies from mild to severe and can be felt anywhere in the chest, sometimes being retrosternal
Spontaneous pneumothorax
1663
If a tension pneumothorax becomes painful and dyspnoea becomes rapidly more intense, urgent decompression of air is essential (see later in chapter)
Spontaneous pneumothorax
1664
can cause oesophagitis characterised by a burning epigastric or retrosternal pain that may radiate to the jaw
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
1665
Consider oesophageal rupture if sudden onset after | endoscopy
Oesophageal pain
1666
The pain is aggravated or precipitated by lying flat or bending over, especially after meals, and is more frequent at night.
Oesophageal pain
1667
The pain is worse if oesophageal spasm is present. Oesophageal motor disorders, including spasm, may occur in isolation. The pain may radiate uncommonly to the back
Oesophageal pain
1668
It may be precipitated by eating, especially hot or cold food and drink, and may be relieved by eating or by glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin) and other nitrates
Oesophageal pain
1669
The commonest cause of pain of spinal origin is vertebral dysfunction of the lower cervical or upper dorsal region
Spinal pain
1670
The spinal problem may be a disc prolapse (relatively common in the lower cervical spine, but rare in the upper thoracic spine) or dysfunction of the facet joints or costovertebral joints causing referred pain.
Spinal pain
1671
This referred pain can be present | anywhere in the chest wall, including anterior chest, which causes confusion with cardiac pain
Spinal pain
1672
The pain is dull and aching. It may be aggravated by exertion, certain body movements or deep inspiration. The old trap for unilateral nerve root pain is herpes zoster.
Spinal pain
1673
This causes mild to moderate anterior chest wall pain that may radiate to the chest, back or abdomen.
Costochondritis
1674
It is usually unilateral, sharp in nature and exaggerated by breathing, physical activity or a specific position
Costochondritis
1675
It is diagnosed by eliciting tenderness at the costochondral junction of the affected ribs and needs to be differentiated from Tietze syndrome, where there is a tender, fusiform swelling at the costochondral junction
Costochondritis
1676
Chest pain is a very important symptom in the elderly as the life-threatening cardiovascular conditions—myocardial infarction and angina, dissecting aneurysm and ruptured aorta—are an increasing manifestation with age.
Chest pain in the elderly
1677
The elderly patient presenting with chest pain is most likely to have angina or myocardial infarction.
Chest pain in the elderly
1678
There is a 2–3% incidence between 25 and 64 years. 10 The history is the basis of diagnosis. Angina is an oppressive discomfort rather than a pain, typically transient and lasting <10 mins. It is mainly retrosternal: radiates to arms, jaw, throat, back. It may be associated with shortness of breath, nausea, faintness and sweating.
Chest pain in the elderly | Angina pectoris
1679
Pain occurs with exertion and is usually predictable with no symptom change during the past month.
Stable angina
1680
It is increasing angina (severity and duration) over a short period of time, precipitated by less effort and may come on at rest, especially at night. It may eventually lead to complete infarction, often with relief of symptoms. It is due to unstable plaque.
Unstable angina
1681
This is positive in about 75% of those with severe coronary artery disease and should be performed if the diagnosis is in doubt, for prognostic reasons or to aid in the timing of additional investigations (e.g. coronary angiography). A normal stress test does not rule out coronary artery disease.
Exercise ECG
1682
Occasionally useful for detecting intermittent rhythm disturbances.
Ambulatory ECG Holter monitoring
1683
This assesses global and regional wall motion abnormalities, valvular dysfunction and pericardium status
Echocardiography
1684
This test accurately outlines the extent and severity of coronary artery disease (see FIG. 30.13 ). It is usually used to determine the precise coronary artery anatomy prior to surgery. CT angiography provides a safer alternative in many circumstances.
Coronary angiography
1685
Strong positive exercise stress test Suspected left main coronary artery disease Angina resistant to medical treatment Suspected but not otherwise proven angina Acute coronary syndromes Angina after myocardial infarction Patients over 30 years with aortic and mitral valve disease being considered for valve surgery
Indications for coronary angiography
1686
``` This is especially important for those with a positive family history and an unsatisfactory lifestyle. Modification of risk factors: no smoking weight reduction healthy eating/optimal low-fat diet exercise control of hypertension control of diabetes control of blood lipids ```
Management of stable angina
1687
``` Nitrates: glyceryl trinitrate 300–600 mcg tab sublingually, max 1800 mcg or glyceryl trinitrate SL 400 mcg metered dose spray: 1 spray; repeat after 5 minutes if pain persists (maximum three doses) or isosorbide dinitrate 5 mg sublingually; repeat every 5 minutes if pain persists (maximum 3 tablets) or aspirin 150 mg (o) or if intolerant to nitrates nifedipine 5 mg capsule (suck or chew) ```
The acute attack and episodic angina
1688
if pain persists for longer than 10 minutes despite two doses of nitrates, take a third dose and call for an ambulance warn about headache and other side effects sit down while administering take ½ (initially) or 1 tablet or 1 spray every 5 minutes take a maximum of 3 doses in 15 minutes keep tablets out of light and heat—discard the bottle after being opened for 3 months or after 2 days if carried on the person
Tips about glyceryl trinitrate:
1689
Regular predictable attacks precipitated by moderate exertion. For prevention: add to aspirin (if not contraindicated) beta blocker, e.g. atenolol 25 mg (o) once daily, increasing to 100 mg if required or metoprolol 25 mg (o) twice daily, increasing to 100 mg if required plus nitrates glyceryl trinitrate 5–15 mg (transdermal patch) daily (use for 14 hours only) or isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg (o) SR tablet mane, increasing to 120 mg if required Note: Aim for a daily nitrate-free interval.
Moderate stable angina
1690
``` Not prevented by beta blocker: add a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB) nifedipine CR 30–60 mg (o) once daily or amlodipine 2.5–10 mg (o) once daily plus nitrates If beta blocker contraindicated (use a non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker): diltiazem MR 180–360 mg (o) daily ```
Persistent angina
1691
Includes onset of angina at rest, abrupt worsening of angina and angina following acute myocardial infarction. Should be hospitalised for stabilisation and further evaluation. May need IV nitrate therapy. The objectives are to optimise therapy and consider coronary angiography with a view to a corrective procedure.
Unstable angina
1692
As a rule, avoid the combination of verapamil and a beta blocker (risk of tachycardia and _________).
heart | block
1693
Do not combine a ______________CCB with a non-dihydropyridine CCB
dihydropyridine
1694
______________to nitrate use is a problem, so 24-hour coverage with long-acting preparations is not recommended.
Tolerance
1695
________can be used prophylactically prior to any exertion that is likely to provoke angina (e.g. glyceryl trinitrate spray or tablet or isosorbide dinitrate 5 mg tablet)
Nitrates
1696
Avoid ________if the patient has used a 5 phosphodiesterase inhibitor in the past 1–5 days.
nitrates
1697
Avoid ________if the patient has used a 5 phosphodiesterase inhibitor in the past 1–5 days.
nitrates
1698
A common technique is dilating coronary atheromatous obstructions by inflating a balloon against the obstruction—percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)
Percutaneous intervention (PCI) and coronary angioplasty (the gold standard)
1699
Two complications of the balloon inflation angioplasty are acute coronary occlusion (2–4%) and restenosis, which occurs in 30% in the first 6 months after angioplasty
Percutaneous intervention (PCI) and coronary angioplasty (the gold standard)
1700
``` PTCA followed by stenting is the most favoured procedure to maintain patency of the obstructed coronary vessel (see FIG. 30.15 ). Drug eluting stents, which include drugs such as pimecrolimus, sirolimus or paclitaxel, can be used as well as the bare metal stent. ```
Percutaneous intervention (PCI) and coronary angioplasty (the gold standard)
1701
Stent patients | require long-term antiplatelet agents (e.g. aspirin plus clopidogrel) (specialist advice is required).
Percutaneous intervention (PCI) and coronary angioplasty (the gold standard)
1702
The main surgical techniques in current use are coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) using either a vein (usually the saphenous) (see FIG. 30.16 ) or internal mammary arterial implantation (see FIG. 30.17 ) or both, and endarterectomy.
Coronary artery surgery
1703
Symptomatic patients with significant left main coronary obstruction should undergo bypass surgery, and those with two or three vessel obstruction and good ventricular function are often considered for angioplasty or surgery
Coronary artery surgery
1704
Variable pain; may be mistaken for indigestion Similar to angina but more oppressive So severe, patient may fear imminent death—angor animi
Myocardial infarction
1705
About 20% have no pain. These have a high mortality rate ‘Silent infarcts’ in females, elderly and those with diabetes or hypertension. 60% of those who die do so before reaching hospital, within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms In those who arrive alive, hospital mortality is 8–10%12 Like CVA, seems to peak at 6–10 am Diagnosis is based on 2 out of 3 criteria: history of prolonged ischaemic pain, typical ECG appearance, and rise and fall of cardiac enzymes.
Myocardial infarction
1706
Thrombosis with occlusion Haemorrhage under a plaque Rupture of a plaque Coronary artery spasm
Myocardial infarction
1707
large infarcts tend to produce high serum enzyme levels. The elevated enzymes can help time the infarct
Cardiac enzymes
1708
starts rising at 3–12 hours, peaks at 24 hours and persists for about 5–14 days positive in unstable angina raised in aortic dissection and kidney impairment may have to wait until 10 hours before recording a negative result not useful for repeat MI both proteins, I and T, provide same information reference interval <0.1 µg/L
troponin I or T:
1709
after delay of 6–8 hours from the onset of pain it peaks at 20–24 hours and usually returns to normal by 48 hours CK–MB: myocardial necrosis is present if >15% of total CK; unlike CK, it is not affected by intramuscular injectionsFurther management of STEMI
creatinine kinase (CK)
1710
This is used to assist diagnosis when other tests are not diagnostic.
Echocardiography
1711
Aim for immediate attendance if suspected. Pre-hospital: make diagnosis, assess risk, ensure stability. A 12-lead ECG should be arranged ASAP. Call a mobile coronary care unit. Achieve coronary perfusion and minimise infarct size. Prevent and treat cardiac arrest; have a defibrillator available to treat ventricular fibrillation
Management of acute coronary syndromes
1712
Optimal treatment is in a modern coronary care unit (if possible) with continuous ECG monitoring (first 48 hours) and a peripheral IV line (consider intranasal oxygen only if hypoxaemic <94% saturation). Pay careful attention to relief of pain and apprehension. Establish a caring empathy with the patient. Give aspirin as early as possible (if no contraindications): 300 mg chewed or dissolved sublingually. Prescribe a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor early (if no contraindications).
Management of acute coronary syndromes
1713
As for first-line management. Confirm ECG diagnosis: STEMI or NSTEACS. Take blood for cardiac enzymes, particularly troponin, urea and electrolytes. Organise an urgent cardiology consultation for risk stratification and a decision whether to proceed to coronary angiography and coronary reperfusion with PCI (or CABG) or with thrombolysis.
Management of acute coronary syndromes
1714
The optimal first-line treatment for the patient with a STEMI is urgent referral to a coronary catheter laboratory ideally within 60 minutes (the golden hour) of the onset of pain for assessment after coronary angiography for percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). If available and performed by an interventional cardiologist it has the best outcomes (level I evidence).
Management of STEMI
1715
Within 60 minutes of symptom onset STEMI: PCI (optimal) Page 368 Within 90 minutes of onset STEMI: PCI (acceptable) If these targets are not reached: fibrinolysis within 30 minutes of arrival For patients presenting >12 hours after onset of symptoms, consider reperfusion if: continuing ischaemia viable myocardium major complications, e.g. cardiogenic shock
Urgent reperfusion guidelines
1716
Perform an ECG and classify ACS into STEMI or NSTEACS, and notify the medical facility that will receive the patient (discuss over the telephone). The ECG is the sole test required to select patients for emergency perfusion
First-line management acute chest pain of possible cardiac | origin (e.g. outside hospital)
1717
Oxygen 4–6 L/min only if hypoxaemic (aim to keep PaO2 >90%) Secure an IV line (withdraw blood for tests, especially troponin levels) Glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin) 300 mcg (½ tab) SL or spray 400 mcg (every 5 minutes as necessary to maximum of three doses). Beware of sildenafil (Viagra) and related drugs use and bradycardia—correct with atropine Aspirin 300 mg Morphine 2.5–5 mg IV statim bolus: then 1 mg/min every 5–10 mins until pain relief (up to 15 mg) or fentanyl 25–50 mcg IV (If feasible, it is preferable to give IV morphine 1 mg/min until relief of pain; this titration is easier in hospital.)
First-line management acute chest pain of possible cardiac | origin (e.g. outside hospital)
1718
All patients with acute myocardial infarction should be considered for admission to a coronary care unit for monitoring and expert care. The decision of reperfusion therapy by PCI or fibrinolytic therapy will be determined by unit policy based on availability of PCI.
Reperfusion therapy
1719
If angioplasty is unachievable either through timing or the unavailability of the service (such as in rural locations), thrombolysis is an indication for STEMI and the sooner the better, but preferably within 12 hours of the commencement of chest pain. 5,13 The decision should be made by an experienced consultant, especially as PCI is not usually possible once fibrinolytic therapy has been given.
Fibrinolytic therapy
1720
Second-generation fibrin-specific agents (reteplase, alteplase or tenecteplase) are the agents of choice. Streptokinase can be used but it is inappropriate for use in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people and those who have received it on a previous occasion. There are several other contraindications for the use of fibrinolytic agents.
Fibrinolytic therapy
1721
Full heparinisation for 24–36 hours (after rt-PA—not after streptokinase), especially for large anterior transmural infarction with risk of embolisation, supplemented by warfarin. Use LMW heparin (e.g. enoxaparin 1 mg/kg SC bd or unfractionated heparin 5000–7500 units SC 12 hourly). Further management of STEMI (?myocardial infarction): Antiplatelet therapy: aspirin + clopidogrel Beta blocker (if no thrombolytic therapy or contraindications) as soon as possible: atenolol 25–100 mg (o) daily or metoprolol 25–100 mg (o) twice daily Consider glyceryl trinitrate IV infusion if pain recurs Start early introduction of ACE inhibitors (within 24–48 hours) in those with significant left ventricular (LV) dysfunction (and other indications) Statin therapy to lower cholesterol Treat hypokalaemia Consider magnesium sulphate (after thrombolysis) Consider frusemide
management acute chest pain of possible cardiac | origin
1722
beta blockers—within 12 hours ACE inhibitors—within 24 hours after stabilisation aspirin 75–150 mg and clopidogrel 75 mg (o) daily or both (alternatives to clopidogrel: ticagrelor or prasugrel) lipid-lowering drugs (e.g. statins) anticoagulants (for specific indications, e.g. atrial fibrillation) Targets: BP <140/90 (lower if tolerated); TC <4 mmol/L; LDLC <2 mmol/L; TG <2 mmol/L
Post-AMI drug management
1723
Education and counselling Bed rest 24–48 hours Continuing ECG monitoring Check serum potassium and magnesium Early mobilisation to full activity over 7–12 days Light diet Sedation Beta blocker (o): atenolol or metoprolol Anticoagulation where indicated (certainly if evidence of thrombus with echocardiography) ACE inhibitors for left ventricular failure and to prevent remodelling Monitor psychological issues (e.g. anxiety)
Post-AMI drug management
1724
``` ACE inhibitors (even if no CCF) Radionuclide studies (to assess left ventricular function) Beta blockers (proven value in severe infarction) if no contraindications or LV dysfunction Anticoagulation ```
Management of the extensive infarction
1725
Signs: extra (third or fourth) heart sounds, X-ray changes Treatment (according to severity) (refer to CHAPTER 76 ): oxygen diuretic (e.g. frusemide) morphine IV glyceryl trinitrate: IV, SL (o) or topical ACE inhibitors
Treating and recognising complications of STEMI | Acute left ventricular failure
1726
``` Requires early specialist intervention which may include: adrenaline—titrated to BP treat hypotension with inotropes intra-aortic balloon pump urgent angiography ± angioplasty/surgery ```
``` Treating and recognising complications of STEMI Cardiogenic shock (a major hospital management procedure) ```
1727
This occurs in first few days after AMI (usually anterior AMI), with onset of sharp pain. Signs: pericardial friction rub Treatment: anti-inflammatory medication (e.g. aspirin, indomethacin or ibuprofen for pain) with caution Note: Avoid anticoagulants.
Treating and recognising complications of STEMI | Pericarditis
1728
This occurs weeks or months later, usually around 6 weeks. Features: pericarditis, fever, pericardial effusion (an autoimmune response) Treatment: as for pericarditis
Treating and recognising complications of STEMI | Post-AMI syndrome (Dressler syndrome)
1729
This is a late complication. Clinical: cardiac failure Features: arrhythmias, embolisation Signs: double ventricular impulse, fourth heart sound, visible bulge on X-ray
Left ventricular aneurysm
1730
Right ventricular infarction This may accompany inferior MI and is life-threatening. Ventricular septal rupture and mitral valve papillary rupture This presents with severe cardiac failure and a loud pansystolic murmur. Both have a poor prognosis and early surgical intervention may be appropriate. Cardiac arrhythmias All types are common with STEMI and require treatment according to guidelines in CHAPTER 59 . Methods may include defibrillation, cardioversion and pacemaking. Post infarct prophylaxis with IV lignocaine is not indicated. 5,16 Anxiety and depression Patients require anticipatory guidance and support including education, reassurance and counselling. If necessary, anxiolytic agents and antidepressants may help recovery.
Treating and recognising complications of STEMI
1731
Early definitive diagnosis is necessary: best achieved by transoesophageal echocardiography. 50% of patients are hypertensive; so need pharmacological control of hypertension with IV nitroprusside and beta blockers. Emergency surgery needed for many, especially for type A (ascending aorta involved). Note: Increased incidence during pregnancy.
Aortic dissection
1732
Investigations to diagnose suspected pulmonary embolus (choose from): 6,17,18 chest X-ray and ECG CT pulmonary angiography (first-line study) radionucleide imaging—the ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) study digital subtraction angiography D-dimer assay—sensitive for ‘ruling out’ in low risk, but not specific for ‘ruling in’ Doppler sonography of lower limbs arterial blood gases Wells score: if >3, highly probable; if >6, diagnostic
Pulmonary embolus
1733
Needs supportive medical care and anticoagulation: DOACs or heparin IV: 5000 U as immediate bolus, continuous infusion 30 000 U over 24 hours or 12 500 U (sc) bd or low molecular weight heparin Note: Thrombolytic therapy either IV or into the pulmonary artery can be used for major embolism. Surgical embolectomy is rarely necessary but needed if very extensive.
Pulmonary embolus
1734
Can be spontaneous (more common in COPD or asthma) or traumatic. Most episodes resolve spontaneously without drainage. Spontaneous pneumothoraces in a healthy adult should initially be managed conservatively with analgesia (and oxygen if necessary) even if large.
Pneumothorax
1735
Recent trials have shown conservative management to be superior to pleural intervention in terms of adverse events, complications and days in hospital. Pleural intervention with a catheter is necessary for clinical deterioration: falling BP and oxygen saturation, rising pulse and respiratory rate. For recurrent attacks, excision of cysts or pleurodesis may be necessary. Statistics indicate a 30–50% recurrence rate of spontaneous pneumothorax (most within 12 months), 35% on the same side, 10–15% on the opposite side. Recurrence should not recur after a pleurodesis where the lung surface has been rendered adherent to the chest wall
Pneumothorax
1736
For urgent cases insert a 12–16 gauge needle into the pleural space through the second intercostal space on the affected side. Replace with a formal intercostal catheter connected to underwater seal drainage.
Acute tension pneumothorax
1737
Achieve normal weight if overweight. Avoid coffee, alcohol and spicy foods. Avoid large meals and overeating (keep to small meals). Use antacids or alginate compounds (e.g. Gaviscon, Mylanta Plus). If persistent: acid suppression—H2 -receptor blockers (e.g. ranitidine) or proton-pump inhibitors (e.g. omeprazole) Reassess PPIs after 4–6 weeks; consider deprescribing long-term PPIs
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
1738
Long-acting nitrates (e.g. isosorbide dinitrate 10 mg tds) or Table 30.9 Page 371 calcium-channel blockers (e.g. nifedipine CR 20–30 mg once daily) Note: Attend to lifestyle and dietary factors, as for reflux.
Oesophageal spasm
1739
Musculoskeletal chest pain is typically aggravated or provoked by movements such as stretching, deep inspiration, sneezing and coughing. The pain tends to be sharp and stabbing in quality but can have a constant aching quality.
Musculoskeletal causes of chest wall pain
1740
Costochondritis is a common cause of anterior pain, which is generally well localised to the costochondral junction and may also be a component of an inflammatory disorder, such as one of the spondyloarthropathies.
Musculoskeletal causes of chest wall pain
1741
Management is generally conservative with analgesics, gentle massage with analgesic creams and NSAIDs if there is an inflammatory component. Other measures that can help for very painful chest wall problems are localised injections of local anaesthetic with or without corticosteroids (with care not to penetrate the parietal pleura) and a modified support (especially for rib injuries) in the form of a special elasticised rib belt (called a universal rib belt) that gives support and symptom relief while permitting adequate lung expansion
Musculoskeletal causes of chest wall pain
1742
Disorders of the musculoskeletal system represent the most common cause of thoracic (dorsal) back pain, especially dysfunction of the joints of the thoracic spine. Refer to CHAPTER 27 for more detail. Probably the commonest cause is costovertebral dysfunction caused by overstress of rib articulations with vertebrae (the costovertebral joints). This fact is clearly demonstrated with the midline thoracic back pain following cardiac surgery when these joints are compressed during sternotomy and splaying of the chest walls. The back pain may be associated with simultaneous referred anterior chest pain or abdominal pain.
Posterior chest (thoracic back) pain
1743
Although posterior pain is invariably caused by vertebral dysfunction, there are several other important causes, including serious bone disease (leading to compression fractures) and lifethreatening visceral and vascular causes. Refer to red flag pointers and TABLE 27.3 and management guidelines in CHAPTER 27 . Note: Intervertebral disc protrusions are rare in the thoracic spine. Rarely, a penetrating peptic ulcer can present with mid to lower thoracic back pain.
Acute thoracic back pain
1744
All sudden acute chest pain is cardiac (and potentially fatal) until proven otherwise.
Practice tips
1745
Calcium antagonists can cause peripheral oedema, so be careful not to attribute this to heart failure.
Practice tips
1746
The pain of oesophageal spasm can be very severe and mimic myocardial infarction.
Practice tips
1747
Oesophageal spasm responds to glyceryl trinitrate: do not confuse with angina.
Practice tips
1748
Infective endocarditis can cause pleuritic posterior chest pain.
Practice tips
1749
Use antiplatelet agents indefinitely—100–300 mg aspirin daily or, if contraindicated, clopidogrel 75 mg daily
Practice tips
1750
n is the difficult passage of small hard stools.
Constipation
1751
The Rome III criteria define it has having two or more of the following, for at least 12 weeks: infrequent passage of stools <3/week passage of lumpy or hard stools at least 25% of time straining >25% of time sensation of incomplete evacuation >25% of time use of manual manoeuvres >25% of time sensation of anorectal obstruction/blockage >25% of time
Constipation
1752
Constipation from infancy may be due to Hirschsprung disorder.
Constipation
1753
Diet is the single most important factor in preventing constipation.
Constipation
1754
Bleeding suggests cancer, haemorrhoids, diverticular disorder and inflammatory bowel disease
Constipation
1755
The commonest is ‘idiopathic’ constipation where there is no structural or systemic disease. This is also referred to as ‘functional’ constipation.
Constipation
1756
Probably the most frequent single factor causing constipation in Western society is deficiency in dietary fibre, including fruit, green leafy vegetables and wholemeal products
Constipation
1757
It is obvious that colonic or anorectal neoplasms must not be missed, especially in a middle-aged or elderly person presenting with constipation or change in bowel habit. Undetected neoplasias eventually present with bowel obstruction (complete or incomplete).
Constipation
1758
In children it is important to detect the presence of megacolon, for example, megacolon secondary to Hirschsprung disorder. Symptoms dating from birth suggest Hirschsprung disorder, which occasionally may present for the first time in adult life.
Constipation
1759
Constipation, often with faecal impaction, is a common accompaniment to paraplegia, multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy and autonomic neuropathy.
Constipation
1760
``` Alarm symptoms Recent constipation in >40 years of age Rectal bleeding/haematochezia (fresh blood) Family history of cancer Positive FOBT ```
Constipation
1761
Ensure the person is truly constipated, and not having unrealistic expectations of regularity. Ensure that the anthraquinone group of laxatives, including ‘Ford pills’, is never used long term because they cause melanosis coli and associated megacolon. Be very wary of alternating constipation and diarrhoea (e.g. colon cancer).
Constipation
1762
Rectal examination | The most important first step is to do the examination
Constipation
1763
Prostate examination It feels larger if the patient has a full bladder. The normal prostate is a firm smooth rubbery bilobed structure (with a central sulcus) about 3 cm in diameter. A craggy hard mass suggests cancer. An enlarged smooth mass suggests benign hypertrophy. A tender, nodular or boggy mass suggests prostatitis.
Constipation
1764
Sigmoidoscopy—in particular, flexible sigmoidoscopy with examination of the rectosigmoid—is important in excluding local disease; search for abnormalities such as blood, mucus or neoplasia. The insufflation of air sometimes reproduces the pain of the irritable bowel syndrome. It is worth noting that 60% of polyps and cancers will occur in the first 60 cm of the bowel 4 and diverticular disorder should be evident with the flexible sigmoidoscope. The presence of melanosis coli is an important sign—it may give a pointer to the duration of the constipation and the consequent chronic intake (perhaps denied) of anthraquinone laxatives.
Constipation
1765
``` Investigations These can be summarised as follows: Haematological: haemoglobin ESR Stools for occult blood ```
Constipation
1766
Biochemistry (where suspected): thyroid function tests serum calcium serum potassium carcinoembryonic antigen (a targeted tumour marker rather than a screen) Radiological: CT colonography (virtual colonography) double contrast barium enema (especially for primary colonic disease, e.g. megacolon) bowel transit studies, using radio-opaque shapes taken orally and checking progress by abdominal X-ray or stool collection
Constipation
1767
Physiological tests: Page 378 anal manometry—test anal tone rectal sensation and compliance, using an inflatable rectal balloon dynamic proctography, to determine disorders of defecation rectal biopsy, to determine aganglionia
Constipation
1768
It is best to classify idiopathic constipation into three subgroups: 1 simple constipation 2 slow transit constipation 3 normal transit constipation (irritable bowel syndrome) Of these, the commonest is simple constipation, which is essentially related to a faulty diet and bad habit. Avery Jones, 5 who defined the disorder, originally described it as being due to one or more of the following causes: faulty diet—inadequate dietary fibre unfavourable living and working conditions lack of exercise travel
Constipation
1769
Dyschezia, or lazy bowel, is the term used to describe a rectum that has become unresponsive to faecal content, and this usually follows repeated ignoring of calls to defecate.
Constipation
1770
Most patients have simple constipation and require reassurance and education once an organic cause has been excluded. Encourage modification of lifestyle. Provide psychological counselling and biofeedback for dyssynergic problems
Constipation
1771
Adequate exercise, especially walking, is important. Develop good habits: answer the call to defecate as soon as possible. Develop the ‘after breakfast habit’. Allow time for a good relaxed breakfast and then sit on the toilet. Don’t miss meals—food stimulates motility. Avoid codeine compounds (tablets or mixture). Take plenty of fluids, especially water and fruit juices (e.g. prune juice). Eat an optimal bulk diet. Eat foods that provide bulk and roughage, such as vegetables and salads, cereals (especially wheat fibre), fresh and dried fruits, and wholemeal bread. Enough fibre should be taken to convert stools that sink into stools that float.
Constipation
1772
First-line therapy 7 Use a general bulking agent, e.g. psyllium or ispaghula granules 1–2 teaspoons (o) once or twice daily, or commercial products as per suggested dose.
Constipation
1773
Second-line therapy Use an osmotic laxative or a fibre-based stimulant preparation, e.g. macrogol 3350 + 1–2 sachets, each dissolved in 125 mL water once daily or lactulose syrup 15–30 mL (o) daily until response, then 10–20 mL daily or dried fruits with senna leaf (Nu-Lax) 10 g nocte or docusate + senna (50–80 mg), 1–2 tabs nocte
Constipation
1774
Third-line therapy (Recheck cause.) Magnesium sulphate 1–2 teaspoons (15 g) in water once or twice daily (if normal kidney function) or as capsules (Colocap Balance) 15 caps over 15 minutes Page 379 or combined bulking/stimulating agent (e.g. frangula/sterculia [Normacol plus]) or glycerin suppository (retain for 15–20 minutes) or sodium citrate or phosphate enema (e.g. Fleet Enema) or Microlax enema
Constipation
1775
Constipation is quite common in children and is idiopathic in 95%. The most common factor is diet. Constipation often begins after weaning or with the introduction of cow’s milk. It is rare with breastfeeding. Low fibre intake and a family history of constipation may be associated factors. 8 Most children develop normal bowel control by 4 years of age (excluding any physical abnormality). It is normal to have a bowel movement every 2–3 days, providing it is of not unusual consistency and is not painful.
Constipation in children
1776
Constipation usually appears between 2 and 4 years of age, and up to a third of primary schoolaged children will report constipation over a 12-month period. In toddlers, the gender distribution is equal, but by age 5, boys are more likely to get constipation than girls, with the frequency of faecal incontinence three times higher in boys. Consider constipation in a child who has recently recommenced bedwetting.
Constipation in children
1777
Constipation in children is defined as having two or more of the following over the previous 2 months: <3 bowel motions per week >1 episode of faecal incontinence per week (previously referred to as encopresis) large stools in rectum or palpable on abdominal examination retentive posturing (e.g. ‘stiff as a board’ standing/lying, tip toes, crossed legs, braces against furniture) and withholding behaviour (e.g. refuses, hides, requests nappy, denies need to go) painful defecation
Constipation in children
1778
Faecal incontinence, which is a consequence of chronic constipation, is the passage of stool in an inappropriate place in children who have been toilet trained. It can present as soiling (encopresis) Page 380 due to faecal retention with overflow of liquid faeces (spurious diarrhoea).
Constipation in children
1779
Constipation is nearly always functional (>95%), 7 though the GP should check for any red flags for a pathological cause (see below). The key feature in functional constipation is chronic faecal retention leading to rectal dilatation and insensitivity to the normal defecation reflex
Constipation in children
1780
``` Blood in stools Perianal disease Fever Weight loss/delayed growth Delayed meconium/thin strip-like stools Vomiting Urinary symptoms (although bedwetting fairly common) Abnormal neurological findings in legs Medications used for children with behavioural/developmental issues ```
Red flag pointers for organic causes in children | Constipation in children
1781
Hirschsprung disorder: consider if delay in passing first meconium stool and subsequent constipation Anal fissure in infants: consider if stool hard and associated with pain or bleeding the mainstay of treatment is dietary manipulation
Constipation in children
1782
Laxatives—if constipation has been brief in duration, treat for 3 months, but for chronic constipation, treat for 6 months minimum. Can use macrogol 3350 (Movicol), paraffin oil or lactulose. For acute faecal impaction, high-dose laxatives can be used until liquid stools are achieved, and then revert back to maintenance treatment. Enemas are suitable only for children with acute severe rectal pain or distress and are rarely required. Use a pharmaceutical preparation as a last resort to achieve regularity.
Constipation in children
1783
First line 6 Paraffin oil (e.g. Parachoc): RCT evidence indicates suitable and better than stimulant laxative or osmotic laxative (e.g. lactulose): 1–3 mg/kg 1–5 years: 10 mL per day >5 years: 15 mL per day or macrogol 3350 with electrolytes: 2–12 years: 1 sachet Movicol-Half in 60 mL water once daily >12 years: 1 sachet Movicol (or 2 Movicol-Half) daily Severe constipation/faecal impaction: consider admission to hospital abdominal X-ray macrogol 3350 with electrolytes (double above doses and water) Microlax enema If unsuccessful, add ColonLYTELY via nasogastric tube or sodium phosphate enema (Fleet Enema) (not <2 years)
Constipation in children
1784
Constipation and abdominal distension from infancy Possible anorexia and vomiting Male to female ratio = 8:1 Rectal examination—narrow or normal rectum Abdominal X-ray/barium enema—distended colon full of faeces to narrow rectum Diagnosis, confirmed by full thickness biopsy, shows absence of ganglion cells Absent rectoanal reflex on anal manometry
Congenital megacolon Hirschsprung disorder | aganglionosis
1785
``` In older children and adults Mainly due to bad habit Can be caused by: chronic laxative abuse milder form of Hirschsprung disorder Chagas disease (Latin America) 2 hypothyroidism (‘cretinism’) systemic sclerosis Marked abdominal distension Rectal examination—dilate loaded rectum, lax sphincter Abdominal X-ray/barium enema—distended colon full of faeces but no narrowed segment ```
Acquired megacolon
1786
Constipation is a common problem in the elderly, with a tendency for idiopathic constipation to increase with age. In addition, the chances of organic disease increase with age, especially colorectal cancer, so this problem requires attention in the older patient. Faecal impaction is a special problem in the aged confined largely to bed. Constipation is often associated with Parkinson disease, and various medications. In the elderly, an osmotic laxative such as sorbitol or lactulose may be required for longstanding refractory constipation, but avoid stimulant and other non-osmotic laxatives.
Constipation in the elderly
1787
This is a difficult problem, particularly in the older person who may not be aware of the problem, especially if they have spurious diarrhoea. Symptoms include malaise, anorexia and nausea, confusion, headache, abdominal discomfort ± colic and bloating, a sense of inadequate defecation and frequent amounts of small stool. Complications include spurious diarrhoea, faecal incontinence, bowel obstruction, urinary incontinence or retention. It often follows opioid medication. Confirm with rectal examination ± plain X-ray of abdomen. Treat with oral or osmotic laxatives (e.g. 8 sachets of macrogol 3350 for 3 days with or without rectal suppositories) or enema, e.g. Fleet Enema, Microlax
Faecal impaction
1788
If manual disimpaction should be necessary, the unpleasant procedure can be rendered virtually odourless if the products are ‘milked’ or scooped directly into a container of water. A large plastic cover helps restrict the permeation of the smell. Discomfort and embarrassment are reduced by this method and by adequate premedication (e.g. IV midazolam and IV fentanyl) if large faecaliths are present.
Manual disimpaction
1789
Commonest GIT malignancy: mainly adenocarcinoma Second most common cause of death from cancer in Western society Generally men over 50 years (90% of all cases) Mortality rate about 30% in the 5 years 9 after diagnosis Good prognosis if diagnosed while localised (5-year mortality 10%) Two-thirds in descending colon and rectum
Colorectal cancer
1790
``` Ulcerative colitis (longstanding) Familial: familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer Colonic adenomata Decreased dietary fibre Age >50 years ```
Colorectal cancer
1791
Symptoms Blood in the stools Mucus discharge Recent change in bowel habits (constipation more common than diarrhoea) Alternating constipation with spurious diarrhoea Bowel leakage when flatus passed Unsatisfactory defecation (the mass is interpreted as faeces) Abdominal pain (colicky) or discomfort (if obstructing) Rectal discomfort Symptoms of anaemia Rectal examination—this is appropriate because many cancers are found in the lowest 12 cm and most can be reached by the examining finger
Colorectal cancer
1792
Spread Lymphatics → epigastric and para-aortic nodes Direct → peritoneum Blood → portal circulation
Colorectal cancer
1793
Investigations FOBT: immunochemical tests (e.g. Inform and InSure) do not require dietary or medication restriction Colonoscopy ± biopsy CT colonography (investigation of choice) Serum CEA level is not useful for diagnosis but is useful for monitoring response to treatment Sigmoidoscopy, especially flexible sigmoidoscopy Double contrast barium enema may miss tumours and is being superseded by other imaging Page 383 Table 31.6 Ultrasonography and CT scanning not useful in primary diagnosis; valuable in detecting spread, especially hepatic metastases PET-CT scanning (if available) is useful for follow-up Consider defecography If FOBT is positive—investigate by colonoscopy or by flexible sigmoidoscopy
Colorectal cancer
1794
An FOBT every 2 years is now recommended for all people from 50–74 years (see guidelines in CHAPTER 6 ). FOBT is safer, cheaper and more convenient than colonoscopy. Do not use the CEA blood test as a screening tool. Colonoscopy as screening is only recommended in 2% of the population, as follows: Moderate risk (family history category 2): 2 yearly FOBT from 40–49, then colonoscopy every five years from 50–74 years. High risk (family history category 3): 2 yearly FOBT from 35–44, then colonoscopy every 5 years from 45–74 years. 11 In addition, flexible sigmoidoscopy and rectal biopsy for those with ulcerative colitis. Refer to a bowel cancer specialist to plan appropriate surveillance.
Colorectal cancer
1795
The objectives of treatment should be to exclude organic disease and then reassure and re-educate the patient about normal bowel function. Discourage long-term use of laxatives, suppositories and microenemas.
Practice tips
1796
The laxatives to discourage should include anthraquinone derivatives, bisacodyl, phenolphthalein, magnesium salts, castor oil and mineral oils. First-line treatment of functional constipation (unresponsive to simple measures) is a bulking agent. An osmotic laxative is good second-line therapy.
Practice tips
1797
Bleeding with constipation indicates associated organic illness—exclude bowel cancer. Bright red blood usually means haemorrhoids. Beware of hypokalaemia causing constipation in the older person on diuretic treatment. If cancer can be felt on rectal examination, an abdominal perineal procedure with colostomy usually follows; if not, an anterior resection is generally the rule.
Practice tips
1798
``` Upper respiratory tract infection Lower respiratory tract infection: viral some bacteria (e.g. mycoplasma) Inhaled irritants: smoke, dust, fumes Drugs Inhaled foreign body Bronchial neoplasm Pleurisy Interstitial lung disorders: fibrosing alveolitis extrinsic allergic alveolitis pneumoconiosis sarcoidosis ```
Non-productive (dry cough)
1799
``` Chronic bronchitis Bronchiectasis Pneumonia (especially bacterial) Asthma Foreign body (later response) Bronchial carcinoma (dry or loose) Lung abscess Tuberculosis (when cavitating) ```
Productive cough
1800
Cough is the commonest manifestation of lower respiratory tract infection
Key facts and checkpoints
1801
Cough is the cardinal feature of chronic bronchitis.
Key facts and checkpoints
1802
Cough may persist for many weeks following an acute upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) as a result of persisting bronchial inflammation and increased airway responsiveness.
Key facts and checkpoints
1803
Postnasal drip is a common cause of a persistent or chronic cough, especially causing nocturnal cough due to secretions (mainly from chronic sinusitis) tracking down the larynx and trachea during sleep.
Key facts and checkpoints
1804
The commonest causes of haemoptysis are URTI (24%), acute or chronic bronchitis (17%), bronchiectasis (13%), TB (10%). Unknown causes totalled 22%
Key facts and checkpoints
1805
The most common cause of cough is an acute respiratory infection, whether a URTI or acute bronchitis. 3 Persistent coughing with a URTI is usually due to the development of sinusitis with a postnasal drip. Chronic bronchitis is also a common cause of cough.
Probability diagnosis
1806
Bronchial carcinoma must not be overlooked. A worsening cough is the commonest presenting problem. A bovine cough is suggestive of cancer: the explosive nature of a normal cough is lost when laryngeal paralysis is present, usually resulting from bronchial carcinoma infiltrating the left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
chronic cough
1807
``` Chronic postnasal drip* Asthma* Asthma + postnasal drip Postinfective bronchial hyper-responsiveness Gastro-oesophageal reflux:* symptomatic asymptomatic Chronic bronchitis Chronic heart failure Drugs (e.g. ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, salazopyrin) Snoring and obstructive sleep apnoea Irritants: occupational and household Smoker’s cough Whooping cough (pertussis) Habit Functional Idiopathic ```
chronic cough
1808
``` Abnormal chest X-ray Bronchiectasis Cancer: bronchial, larynx Cardiac failure COPD Cystic fibrosis Inhaled foreign body Interstitial lung disorders (e.g. sarcoidosis) Tuberculosis ```
chronic cough
1809
``` Age >50 years Smoking history Asbestos exposure history Persistent cough Overseas travel ```
Red flag pointers for cough
1810
``` TB exposure Haemoptysis Unexplained weight loss Dyspnoea Fever ```
Red flag pointers for cough
1811
→ laryngeal disorders (e.g. laryngitis)
Barking
1812
Croupy (with stridor) →
laryngeal disorders (e.g. laryngitis, croup)
1813
Weak cough →
indicates bronchial carcinoma
1814
Paroxysmal with whoops →
whooping cough
1815
Dry chronic →
GORD, drugs (e.g. ACEI)
1816
``` asthma left ventricular failure postnasal drip chronic bronchitis whooping cough ```
Nocturnal cough →
1817
bronchiectasis, asthma chronic bronchitis GORD habitual
Waking cough →
1818
Changing posture → bronchiectasis lung abscess
cough
1819
Meals → hiatus hernia (possible) oesophageal diverticulum tracheo-oesophageal fistula
cough
1820
``` Wheezing → asthma Breathlessness → asthma left ventricular failure COPD ```
cough
1821
A healthy, non-smoking individual produces approximately 100–150 mL of mucus a day. This normal bronchial secretion is swept up the airways towards the trachea by the mucociliary clearance mechanism and is usually swallowed. The removal from the trachea is assisted also by occasional coughing, although this is carried out almost subconsciously
Sputum
1822
Excess mucus is expectorated as sputum. The commonest cause of excess mucus production is cigarette smoking. Mucoid sputum is clear and white.
Sputum
1823
Clear white (mucoid) → normal or uninfected bronchitis
Character of sputum
1824
Yellow or green (purulent) → due to cellular material (neutrophils or eosinophil granulocytes) ± infection (not necessarily bacterial infection) asthma due to eosinophils bronchiectasis (copious quantities)
Character of sputum
1825
Rusty → lobar pneumonia (S. pneumoniae): due to blood
Character of sputum
1826
Redcurrant jelly → bronchial carcinoma
Character of sputum
1827
Profuse and offensive → bronchiectasis; lung abscess
Character of sputum
1828
Pink frothy sputum → pulmonary oedema
Character of sputum
1829
Bloodstained sputum (haemoptysis), which varies from small flecks of blood to massive bleeding, requires thorough investigation. Always consider malignancy or TB. Often the diagnosis can be made by chest X-ray.
Haemoptysis
1830
``` Probability diagnosis Acute chest infection: URTI (24%) bronchitis Chronic bronchitis Trauma: chest contusion, prolonged coughing Cause often unknown (22%) ```
Haemoptysis (adults): diagnostic | strategy model
1831
Chronic bronchitis: mucoid or purulent; rarely exceeds 250 mL per day 6 Bronchiectasis: purulent sputum; up to 500 mL/day Asthma: mucoid or purulent; tenacious sputum Lung abscess: purulent and foul-smelling Foreign body: can follow impaction
Productive cough
1832
``` Toddler/preschool Foreign body inhalation Asthma Viral induced wheeze Bronchiolitis/bronchitis Whooping cough Cystic fibrosis Croup ```
Cough in children
1833
``` Older children Asthma Acute or chronic bronchitis Chronic rhinitis Smoke exposure Atypical pneumonia ```
Cough in children
1834
``` asthma recurrent viral bronchitis acute URTIs allergic rhinitis croup ```
Common causes of cough generally are:
1835
If asthma is suspected, a therapeutic trial of salbutamol 200 mcg 4 hourly via a spacer may be worthwhile.
cough in children
1836
``` Characteristic harsh barking inspiratory cough with stridor Prodrome of URTI for 2 days Sounds like a dog barking or a seal Children 6 months to 6 years Fever variable (rarely >39°) Usually 11 pm to 2 am Auscultation confirms inspiratory stridor Occurs in small local epidemics ```
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
1837
Clinical features Tachypnoea, expiratory grunt Possible focal chest signs Diagnosis often only made by chest X-ray Pathogens Viruses are the most common cause in infants. Mycoplasma is common in children over 5 years. S. pneumoniae is a cause in all age groups.
Pneumonia in children
1838
Minimal handling Careful observations including pulse oximetry Attend to hydration Antibiotics indicated in all cases, even though many are viral. Refer to Therapeutic Guidelines for various age groups, tropical regions and specific confirmed bacterial species. A simplified overview follows: Mild to moderate: amoxicillin 25 mg/kg up to 1 g orally, 8 hourly for 3 days (mild) or 5–7 days (moderate) plus (if atypical bacteria suspected) azithromycin or clarithromycin or doxycycline Severe: 10 cefotaxime IV or ceftriaxone IV (if staphylococcus aureus suspected, add clindamycin or lincomycin)
Pneumonia in children
1839
Minimal handling Careful observations including pulse oximetry Attend to hydration Antibiotics indicated in all cases, even though many are viral. Refer to Therapeutic Guidelines for various age groups, tropical regions and specific confirmed bacterial species. A simplified overview follows: Mild to moderate: amoxicillin 25 mg/kg up to 1 g orally, 8 hourly for 3 days (mild) or 5–7 days (moderate) plus (if atypical bacteria suspected) azithromycin or clarithromycin or doxycycline Severe: 10 cefotaxime IV or ceftriaxone IV (if staphylococcus aureus suspected, add clindamycin or lincomycin)
Pneumonia in children
1840
``` Infants: RR > 70 Intermittent apnoea Not feeding Older children: RR > 50 Grunting Signs of dehydration ```
Pneumonia in children | guidelines for hospitalisation
1841
SaO2 ≤92% Cyanosis Difficulty breathing Family/social issues
Pneumonia in children | guidelines for hospitalisation
1842
Important causes of cough to consider in the elderly include chronic bronchitis, lung cancer, pulmonary infarct (check calves), bronchiectasis and left ventricular failure, in addition to the acute upper and lower respiratory infections to which they are prone. It is important to be surveillant for bronchial carcinoma in an older person presenting with cough, bearing in mind that the incidence rises with age. One study found the causes of chronic cough in the elderly to be postnasal drip syndrome 48%, gastro-oesophageal reflux 20% and asthma 17%
Cough in the elderly
1843
Respiratory infections, especially those of the upper respiratory tract, are usually regarded as trivial, but they account for an estimated one-fifth of all time lost from work and three-fifths of time lost from school, and are thus of great importance to the community. 13 The majority of respiratory infections are viral in origin and antibiotics are therefore not indicated. URTIs are those involving the nasal airways to the larynx, while lower respiratory tract infections (LRTIs) affect the trachea downwards. Combined URTIs and LRTIs include influenza, measles, whooping cough and laryngotracheobronchitis
Common respiratory infections
1844
This highly infectious URTI, which is often mistakenly referred to as ‘the flu’, produces a mild systemic upset and prominent nasal symptoms
The common cold (acute coryza)
1845
``` 24–48 hours of weakness Malaise and tiredness Sore, runny nose Sneezing Sore throat Slight fever Other possible symptoms: headache hoarseness cough ```
The common cold (acute coryza)
1846
Advice to the patient includes: rest—adequate sleep and rest, especially if weak Table 32.6 Page 392 drink adequate fluids stop smoking (if applicable) analgesics—paracetamol (acetaminophen) or aspirin (max. 8 tablets a day in adults) steam inhalations for a blocked nose cough drops or syrup for a dry cough gargle aspirin in water or lemon juice for a sore throat (avoid aspirin in children <16 years) vitamin C powder or tablets (e.g. 2 g daily) does not reduce the risk of catching an URTI, but regular usage may possibly reduce duration—but only if used prophylactically before the URTI 14 clinical trials of zinc lozenges and echinacea have been unpromising
The common cold (acute coryza)
1847
Commonly due to influenza A or influenza B viruses, influenza causes a relatively debilitating illness and should not be confused with the common cold.
Influenza
1848
``` fever >38°C plus at least one respiratory symptom and one systemic symptom cough (dry) sore throat coryza prostration or weakness myalgia headache rigors or chills ```
Influenza
1849
``` Complications Page 393 Tracheitis, bronchitis, bronchiolitis Secondary bacterial infection Pneumonia due to Staphylococcus aureus (mortality up to 20%) 1 Toxic cardiomyopathy with sudden death (rare) Encephalomyelitis (rare) Depression (a common sequela) ```
Influenza
1850
Diagnosis | Nasopharyingeal swabs for PCR or other rapid specific tests
Influenza
1851
Advice to the patient includes: rest in bed until the fever subsides and patient feels better analgesics: paracetamol and aspirin or ibuprofen are effective, especially for fever fluids: maintain high fluid intake (water and fruit juice) freshly squeezed lemon juice and honey preparation
Influenza
1852
Antiviral agents 5 Neuraminidase inhibitors (cover influenza A and B): zanamivir (Relenza) 10 mg by inhalation bd for 5 days oseltamivir (Tamiflu) 75 mg (o) bd (child 2 mg/kg) for 5 days Both should be commenced within 36 hours of onset and given for 5 days. Note: These antiviral agents have questionable benefit in a low-risk population, but treatment for vulnerable patients during an epidemic may be appropriate.
Influenza
1853
Prevention Influenza vaccination for influenza A and B (recommended annually) offers some protection for up to 70% of the population for about 12 months
Influenza
1854
Known for the past severe influenza syndromes MERS-CoV and SARS, it has emerged as COVID-19. This respiratory illness has had more worldwide impact than any other in the 21st century, in terms of both individual morbidity and mortality, and the subsequent socioeconomic effects. Prevention of the spread of this coronavirus is via public health measures (handwashing, social distancing, personal protective equipment) and a number of novel vaccines. At the time of writing there is no effective treatment specific to SARS-CoV-2, although various supportive interventions including medications can reduce the severity for hospitalised patients. Prevention through population vaccination is being addressed.
Coronavirus respiratory infections
1855
This is acute inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree that usually follows an upper respiratory infection. Although generally mild and self-limiting, it may be serious in debilitated patients.
Acute bronchitis
1856
``` Clinical features Features of acute infectious bronchitis are: cough and sputum (main symptoms) wheeze and dyspnoea usually viral infection can complicate chronic bronchitis—often due to Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae scattered wheeze on auscultation fever or haemoptysis (uncommon) ```
Acute bronchitis
1857
It improves spontaneously in 4–8 days in healthy patients
Acute bronchitis
1858
Treatment 5 Symptomatic treatment Inhaled bronchodilators for airflow limitation Distinguish acute bronchitis from bacterial pneumonia and bacterial infective exacerbations of COPD, where antibiotics are useful
Acute bronchitis
1859
This is a chronic productive cough for at least 3 successive months in 2 successive years: wheeze, progressive dyspnoea recurrent exacerbations with acute bronchitis occurs mainly in smokers
Chronic bronchitis
1860
This is inflammation of lung tissue. It usually presents as an acute illness with cough, fever and purulent sputum plus physical signs and X-ray changes of consolidation. It can be broadly classified as typical or atypical, which are caused by different bacteria, viruses or other organisms.
Pneumonia
1861
The initial presentation of pneumonia can be misleading, especially when the patient presents with constitutional symptoms (fever, malaise and headache) rather than respiratory symptoms. A cough, although usually present, can be relatively insignificant in the total clinical picture. This diagnostic problem applies particularly to atypical pneumonia but can occur with bacterial pneumonia, especially lobar pneumonia.
Pneumonia
1862
occurs in people who are not or have not been in hospital recently, and who are not institutionalised or immunocompromised, i.e. the majority of people in general practice. The choice of antibiotic is initially empirical. CAP is usually caused by a single organism, especially Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is demonstrating increasing antibiotic resistance. 10 Treatment is usually for 5–10 days for most bacterial causes, 2 weeks for Mycoplasma or Chlamydia infection and 2–3 weeks for Legionella. Viruses are often present in CAP (25–44%), whether as a sole cause or as a predecessor to bacteria
Community-acquired pneumonia
1863
Typical pneumonia The commonest community-acquired infections are Streptococcus pneumoniae (majority), Haemophilus influenzae 10 (mainly in COPD), M. pneumoniae (young adults) and Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Community-acquired pneumonia
1864
Rapidly ill with high temperature, dry cough, pleuritic pain, rigors or night sweats 1–2 days later may be rusty-coloured sputum Rapid and shallow breathing follows Examination: focal chest signs, consolidation Investigations: CXR, sputum M&C, oxygen saturation, specific tests/serology, PCR Complications: pleural effusion, empyema, lung abscess, respiratory failure A particular complication of influenza is a streptococcus pneumoniae infection 2–4 weeks later
Community-acquired pneumonia
1865
Clinical features Fever without chills, malaise Headache Minimal respiratory symptoms, non-productive cough Signs of consolidation absent Chest X-ray (diffuse infiltration) worse than chest signs
The atypical pneumonias
1866
``` Causes Virus, e.g. influenza Mycoplasma pneumoniae—the commonest: adolescents and young adults treat with: roxithromycin 300 mg (o) daily or doxycycline 100 mg bd for 14 days Legionella pneumophila (legionnaire disease): ```
The atypical pneumonias
1867
Diagnostic criteria include: prodromal influenza-like illness a dry cough, confusion or diarrhoea very high fever (may be relative bradycardia) lymphopaenia with moderate leucocytosis hyponatraemia Patients can become prostrate with complications. Treat with: azithromycin IV (first line) or erythromycin (IV or oral) plus (if very severe) ciprofloxacin or rifampicin Chlamydia pneumoniae: similar to Mycoplasma Chlamydia psittaci (psittacosis): treat with doxycycline, roxithromycin or erythromycin Coxiella burnetti (Q fever): treat with doxycycline 200 mg (o) statim, then 100 mg daily for 14 days
The atypical pneumonias
1868
This does not require hospitalisation. Amoxicillin 1 g 8 hourly for 5–7 days plus (if atypical pneumonia suspected, or suboptimal improvement in 2 days) doxycycline 100 mg bd for 5–7 days
Mild pneumonia
1869
This requires hospitalisation (see Guidelines box for severe pneumonia and hospital admission). Monitor with CXR; oximeter (keep O2 saturation ≥94%). Neonates Age over 65 years Coexisting illness High temperature: >38°C Clinical features of severe pneumonia Involvement of more than one lobe Inability to tolerate oral therapy benzylpenicillin 1.2 g IV 4–6 hourly for 7 days (switch to oral amoxicillin when improved) or procaine penicillin 1.5 g IM daily (drugs of choice for S. pneumoniae) plus doxycycline or ceftriaxone 1 g IV daily for 7 days (in penicillin-allergic patient)
Moderately severe pneumonia
1870
The criteria for severity (with increased risk of death) are presented in the box on Guidelines for severe pneumonia and hospital admission. 11,17 The CORB score indicates severity (Confusion, Hypoxia pO2<90%, Respiratory rate ≥30/min, BP <90/60 mmHg, Age ≥65). 19 cefotaxime 1 g IV 8 hourly or ceftriaxone 1 g IV daily
Severe pneumonia
1871
plus azithromycin 500 mg IV daily (covers Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Legionella) add flucloxacillin for Staphylococcus aureus
Severe pneumonia
1872
``` Altered mental state/acute onset confusion Rapidly deteriorating course Respiratory rate >30 per minute Pulse rate >100 per minute BP <90/60 mmHg CORB ≥2 Hypoxia PaO2 <60 mmHg or O2 saturation <92% Leucocytes <4 × 10 8L or >20 × 10 9 /L Multilobular involvement on CXR ```
Guidelines for severe pneumonia and hospital admission in | adults: the red flags
1873
A cough associated with a viral respiratory infection should last no more than 2 weeks. If it does, it is termed persistent. A cough lasting 2 months or more is defined as a chronic cough. A cough that lasts longer than 3–4 weeks requires scrutiny. TABLE 32.3 includes some causes of chronic cough.
Chronic persistent cough
1874
A chronic cough can be divided into productive and non-productive. The presence of purulent sputum increases the probability of a bacterial infection in the bronchi and/or sinuses. 4 The main organisms are Haemophilus influenzae (the most common), S. pneumoniae and Moraxella. Such infections are most susceptible to amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate or parenteral cephalosporins.
Chronic persistent cough
1875
Some of the many causes of a non-productive cough are included in TABLE 32.1 and more than one may be operative simultaneously; for example, an allergic snorer with oesophageal reflux taking an ACE inhibitor for hypertension may have a viral respiratory infection. 4 It has been shown that a non-productive or irritating cough is usually caused by persistent stimulation of irritant receptors in the trachea and major bronchi, and may result in the production of small amounts of mucoid sputum
Non-productive cough
1876
Investigations to be considered in intractable chronic cough include a chest X-ray, spirometry, CT scan of the thorax (searching in particular for a tumour) and ambulatory oesophageal pH monitoring
Non-productive cough
1877
Gastro-oesophageal reflux This common condition can cause a persistent, non-productive cough in an apparently well person with a history of reflux. In the absence of evidence of aspiration, the cough is considered to be due to stimulation of a distal oesophageal-tracheobronchial reflex. Other studies have established a relationship between bronchial asthma and reflux or swallowing disorders whereby microaspiration can initiate an inflammatory response in the airways.
Non-productive cough
1878
If reflux is proven or suspected, there is good evidence for diet and weight loss (if achieved) improving the cough, but unfortunately no trial evidence supporting PPIs when used in isolation for GORD-related cough. 20 However, it is reasonable to trial a PPI for 8–12 weeks, along with dietary advice.
Non-productive cough
1879
Lung cancer accounts for 25% of cancer deaths in men and 24% of cancer deaths in women (rapidly rising), with cigarette smoking being the most common cause of lung cancer in both sexes. 13 It is also the most common lethal cancer in both sexes in Australia. Bronchial carcinoma accounts for over 95% of primary lung malignancies. The prognosis is poor—the 5-year overall survival is 17%. 21 The mesothelioma incidence continues to rise.
Bronchial carcinoma
1880
Clinical features Most present between 50 and 70 years (mean 67 years) Nearly all (>90%) are already symptomatic at the time of diagnosis
Bronchial carcinoma
1881
``` Local symptoms Cough (early) (42%) Chest pain (22%) Wheeze (15%) Haemoptysis (7%) Dyspnoea (5%) ```
Bronchial carcinoma
1882
``` General Anorexia, malaise Weight loss—unexplained Others Unresolved chest infection Hoarseness Symptoms from metastases ```
Bronchial carcinoma
1883
``` Chest X-ray Sputum cytology CT scanning Fibre-optic bronchoscopy PET scanning Fluorescence bronchoscopy (helps early detection) ```
Bronchial carcinoma
1884
There is no current recommendation to screen asymptomatic people for lung cancer by any modality, including CXR or low-dose CT chest
Bronchial carcinoma
1885
``` Common Bronchial carcinoma Secondary tumour Solitary metastasis Granuloma (e.g. TB) Hamartoma Less common Bronchial adenoma Foreign body AVM Hydatid Others (e.g. haematoma, cyst, carotid tumour) ```
Causes of a solitary pulmonary nodule | on X-ray
1886
Refer to a respiratory physician to determine the type of cancer. They are usually classified as small cell lung (oat cell) poorly differentiated cancer (about 15% incidence) (SCLC) and nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC), which includes squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma and large cell carcinoma (approximately 20–30% of each). The main aim of management is a curative resection of NSCLC in those who can benefit from it. Surgery is not an option for SCLC since it metastasises so rapidly (80% have metastasised at the time of diagnosis). 11 Chemotherapy is suitable for the deadly SCLC but currently only extends life expectancy by a few months. 25 Chemotherapy has an important place in treating NSCLC. The main role of radiotherapy is palliative.
bronchial carcinoma
1887
is a malignant tumour of mesothelial cells usually at the pleura. It is associated with prior asbestos exposure, possibly decades earlier (90% report exposure).
Mesothelioma
1888
Clinical features include chest pain, dyspnoea, weight loss and recurrent pleural effusions. Diagnosis is based on imaging and on histology after pleural biopsy. Prognosis is poor and treatment is palliative support.
Mesothelioma
1889
is dilatation of the bronchi when their walls become inflamed, thickened and irreversibly damaged, usually after obstruction followed by infection. Predisposing causes include whooping cough, measles, TB, inhaled foreign body (e.g. peanuts in children), bronchial carcinoma, cystic fibrosis and congenital ciliary dysfunction (Kartagener syndrome). Suspect immune deficiency in these patients. The left lower lobe and lingula are the commonest sites for localised disease. In children, early intervention saves bronchi; refer urgently if suspected.
Bronchiectasis
1890
``` Chronic loose cough—worse on waking Mild cases: yellow or green sputum only after infection Advanced: profuse purulent offensive sputum persistent halitosis recurrent febrile episodes malaise, weight loss Episodes of pneumonia Sputum production related to posture Haemoptysis (bloodstained sputum or massive) possible ```
Bronchiectasis
1891
Examination Clubbing Coarse sounds over infected areas (usually lung base)
Bronchiectasis
1892
Investigations Chest X-ray (normal or bronchial changes) Sputum examination: for resistant pathogens and to exclude TB Page 398 Cytology: to rule out neoplasia Main pathogens: Haemophilus influenzae (commonest), Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus CT scan: can show bronchial wall thickening—high-resolution CT scan is the gold standard for diagnosis Spirometry Bronchograms: very unpleasant and used only if diagnosis in doubt or possible localised disease amenable to surgery (rare)
Bronchiectasis
1893
Explanation and preventive advice. Avoid URTIs, smoking and smoke-filled rooms. Physiotherapy and exercise program. Postural drainage (e.g. lie over side of bed with head and thorax down for 10–20 minutes three times a day). Antibiotics for acute exacerbations (increased cough and sputum volume/purulence) according to organism—it is important to eradicate infection to halt the progress of the disease. Amoxicillin 500 mg (o) tds for 14 days or doxycycline 200 mg (o) daily (if child ≥8 years) is recommended for first presentation. Long-term antibiotic therapy should be guided by respiratory specialists. Bronchodilators, if evidence of bronchospasm
Bronchiectasis
1894
Regardless of whether the underlying cause of the cough is being treated or has no treatment (e.g. viral URTI), the symptom of coughing can be distressing at all ages, and GPs are frequently asked to discuss symptomatic relief. Frustratingly, all the many over-the-counter cough remedies have either scant or no evidence for efficacy. These include antihistamines, decongestants, expectorants (e.g. senega with ammonia) and suppressants such as codeine. Cough medicines are generally not recommended in children.
Symptomatic treatment of cough
1895
Inhaled asthma medications (LABAs, corticosteroids or MART therapy) only work if there is underlying hyper-responsiveness. Honey has some evidence, particularly in children, and is safe and easily available. Offer advice around environmental triggers—smoke, dust, pollen, cold air
Symptomatic treatment of cough
1896
Unexplained cough over the age of 50 is bronchial carcinoma until proved otherwise (especially if there is a history of smoking).
Practice tips
1897
Consider TB in the presence of an unusual cough ± wheezing
Practice tips
1898
Bronchoscopy is essential to exclude adequately a suspicion of bronchial carcinoma when the chest X-ray is normal.
Practice tips
1899
Bright red haemoptysis in a young person may be the initial symptom of pulmonary TB.
Practice tips
1900
Avoid settling for a diagnosis of bronchitis as an explanation of haemoptysis until bronchial carcinoma has been excluded.
Practice tips
1901
Coughing may be so severe that it terminates in vomiting or loss of consciousness (post-tussive syncope).
Practice tips
1902
Large haemoptyses are usually due to bronchiectasis or TB. The presence of white cells in the sputum renders it yellow or green (purulent) but does not necessarily imply infection.
Practice tips
1903
Deafness occurs at all ages but is more common in the elderly (see FIG. 33.1 ). Fifty per cent of people over 80 years have deafness severe enough to be helped by a hearing aid.
Deafness and hearing loss
1904
The threshold of normal hearing is from 0–20 decibels (dB), about the loudness of a soft whisper
Deafness and hearing loss
1905
60 dB is the level of normal conversation or a sewing machine.
Deafness and hearing loss
1906
``` One in seven of the adult population suffers from some degree of significant hearing impairment (over 20 dB in the better-hearing ear) ```
Deafness and hearing loss
1907
One child in every 1000 is born with a significant hearing loss. The earlier it is detected and treated, the better.
Deafness and hearing loss
1908
Degrees of hearing impairment with vocal equivalent: 2,3 mild = loss of hearing at 20–40 dB (soft-spoken voice is 20 dB) moderate = loss at 40–60 dB (normal voice) severe = loss at 70–90 dB (loud spoken voice)
Deafness and hearing loss
1909
More women than men have a hearing loss. People who have worked with high noise levels (>85 dB) are more than twice as likely to be deaf. There is a related incidence of tinnitus with deafness.
Deafness and hearing loss
1910
Conductive hearing loss is caused by an abnormality in the pathway conducting sound waves from the outer ear to the inner ear, 1 as far as the footplate of the stapes.
Deafness and hearing loss
1911
Sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) is a defect central to the oval window involving the cochlea (sensor), cochlear nerve (neural) or, more rarely, central neural pathways. 1 Mixed hearing loss occurs most commonly with severe head injury or chronic infection.
Deafness and hearing loss
1912
Congenital deafness is an important consideration in children, while presbycusis is very common in the aged. The commonest acquired causes of deafness are impacted cerumen (wax), serous otitis media and otitis externa. Noise-induced deafness is also common.
Deafness and hearing loss
1913
It is important not to misdiagnose an acoustic neuroma, which can present as acute deafness, although slow progressive loss is more typical. A summary of the diagnostic strategy model, which includes several important causes of deafness
Deafness and hearing loss
1914
``` Known ototoxic drugs Alcohol Aminoglycosides: amikacin gentamicin kanamycin neomycin streptomycin tobramycin Diuretics: ethacrynic acid frusemide Chemotherapeutic agents Quinine and related drugs Salicylates/aspirin excess ```
Deafness and hearing loss
1915
Red flags Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss Cranial nerve abnormalities (other than hearing loss)
Deafness and hearing loss
1916
Patients with conductive loss may hear better in noisy conditions (paracusis) because we raise our voices when there is background noise. Conversely, people with sensorineural deafness (SND) usually have more difficulty hearing in noise as voices become unintelligible.
Deafness and hearing loss
1917
Inspect the facial structures, skull and ears. The ears are inspected with an otoscope to visualise the external meatus, the tympanic membrane (TM) and the presence of obstructions such as wax, inflammation or osteomata.
Deafness and hearing loss
1918
The examination requires a clean external auditory canal. Gentle suction is useful for cleaning pus debris. Syringing is reserved for wax in people with an intact TM and a known healthy middle ear.
Deafness and hearing loss
1919
It is an advantage to have a pneumatic attachment to test drum mobility. Reduction of TM mobility is an important sign in secretory otitis media. There are several simple hearing tests. The distance at which a ticking watch can be heard can be used but the advent of the digital watch has affected this traditional method.
Deafness and hearing loss
1920
Whisper test Occlude far ear. Have the patient cover near eye with one hand to prevent lip reading. Place your mouth at the near side. Strongly whisper ‘68’ then ‘100’ from a distance of 50 cm. Ask the patient to repeat the words. If not heard, repeat using a normal speaking voice.
Deafness and hearing loss
1921
Hair-rubbing method Page 403 In children and in adults with a reasonable amount of hair, grab several hairs close to the external auditory canal between the thumb and index finger. Rub the hairs lightly together at 5 cm (high sensitivity) to produce a relatively high-pitched ‘crackling’ sound (see FIG. 33.3 ). If this sound cannot be heard, a moderate hearing loss is likely (usually about 40 dB or greater). Like the whisper test, this test is a rough guide only.
Deafness and hearing loss
1922
Tuning fork tests If deafness is present, its type (conduction or sensorineural) should be determined by tuning fork testing. The most suitable tuning fork for preliminary testing is the C2 (512 cps) fork. The fork is best activated by striking it firmly on the bent elbow.
Deafness and hearing loss
1923
Weber test The vibrating tuning fork is applied firmly to the midpoint of the skull or to the central forehead or to the teeth. This test is of value only if the deafness is unilateral or bilateral and unequal (see FIG. 33.4 ). Normally the sound is heard equally in both ears in the centre of the forehead. With sensorineural deafness the sound is heard in the normal ear, while with conduction deafness it is heard better in the abnormal ear.
Deafness and hearing loss
1924
Lateralisation of the sound to one ear indicates a conductive loss on that side, or a sensorineural loss on the other side.
Deafness and hearing loss
1925
Rinne test The tuning fork (512 or 256 Hz) is held: outside the ear (tests air conduction) and firmly against the mastoid bone (tests bone conduction) Ask which is louder
Deafness and hearing loss
1926
``` Audiometric assessment includes the following: pure tone audiometry impedance tympanometry electric response audiometry oto-acoustic emission testing ```
Deafness and hearing loss
1927
Pure tone audiometry 4,5 Pure tone audiometry is a graph of frequency expressed in hertz versus loudness expressed in decibels. The tone is presented either through the ear canal (a test of the conduction and the cochlear function of the ear) or through the bone (a test of cochlear function).
Deafness and hearing loss
1928
The difference between the two is a measure of conductance. If the two ears have different thresholds, a white noise masking sound is applied to the better ear to prevent it hearing sound presented to the test ear. The normal speech range occurs between 0 and 20 dB in soundproof conditions across the frequency spectrum.
Deafness and hearing loss
1929
Tympanometry Tympanometry measures the mobility of the tympanic membrane, the dynamics of the ossicular chain and the middle-ear air cushion. The test consists of a sound applied at the external auditory meatus, otherwise sealed by the soft probe tip.
Deafness and hearing loss
1930
Imaging CT and gadolinium-enhanced MRI can identify retrocochlear pathology such as acoustic neuroma and cochlear nerve agenesis
Deafness and hearing loss
1931
Deafness in childhood is relatively common and often goes unrecognised. One to two of every 1000 newborn infants suffer from sensorineural deafness. 1 Congenital deafness may be due to inherited defects, to prenatal factors such as maternal intra-uterine infection or drug ingestion during pregnancy, or to perinatal factors such as birth trauma, and haemolytic disease of the newborn.
Deafness in children
1932
Deafness may be associated with Down syndrome and Waardenburg syndrome. Waardenburg syndrome, which is dominantly inherited, is diagnosed in a person with a white forelock of hair and different coloured eyes.
Deafness in children
1933
Acquired deafness accounts for approximately half of all childhood cases. Purulent otitis media and secretory otitis media are common causes of temporary conductive deafness. However, one in 10 children will have persistent middle-ear effusions and mild to moderate hearing loss in the 15–40 dB range. 6 Permanent deafness in the first few years of life may be due to virus infections, such as mumps or meningitis, ototoxic antibiotics and several other causes.
Deafness in children
1934
Screening should begin at birth so that language input can allow optimal language development. The aim of screening should be to recognise every deaf child by the age of 8 months to 1 year— before the vital time for learning speech is wasted. High-risk groups should be identified and screened; for example, a family history of deafness, maternal problems of pregnancy, perinatal problems, survivors of intensive care, very low birthweight and gestation <33 weeks, cerebral palsy and those with delayed or faulty speech.
Deafness in children
1935
1 month Should notice sudden constant sounds (e.g. car motor, vacuum cleaner) by pausing and listening.
Deafness in children
1936
3 months Should respond to loud noise (e.g. will stop crying when hands are clapped).
Deafness in children
1937
4 months Should turn head to look for source of sound, such as mother
Deafness in children
1938
7 months Should turn instantly to voices or even to quiet noises made across the room.
Deafness in children
1939
10 months Should listen out for familiar everyday sounds.
Deafness in children
1940
12 months Should show some response to familiar words and commands, including his or her name.
Deafness in children
1941
Optimal screening times: 8–9 months (or earlier) school entry Newborn hearing screening measures the 8th cranial nerves’ responses to sound, and is widely available and encouraged in Australia. Screening has improved the average age of detection of deafness from 20 months in 1989 to 0.8 months in 2014
Deafness in children
1942
A high index of suspicion is essential in detecting hearing loss in children and any parental concern should be taken seriously. The presentation of hearing loss will depend on whether it is bilateral or unilateral, its severity and age of onset.
Deafness in children
1943
Typical presentations include: malformation of skull, ears or face failure to respond in an expected way to sounds, especially one’s voice preference for, or response only to, loud sounds no response to normal conversation or to television speech abnormality or delay absence of ‘babbling’ by 12 months no single words or comprehension of simple words by 18 months learning problems at school disobedience other behavioural problems
Deafness in children
1944
Screening methods Hearing can be tested at any age. No child is too young to be tested and this includes the newborn. Informal office assessments, such as whispering in the child’s ear or rattling car keys, are totally inadequate for excluding deafness and may be potentially harmful if they lead to false reassurance. Pneumatic otoscopy is essential to exclude middle-ear effusions
Deafness in children
1945
Pure tone audiometry is unreliable in children under 4 years of age, so special techniques such as tympanometry are required. Tympanometry assesses TM compliance, and is highly sensitive and specific for detecting middle-ear pathology in children beyond early infancy. Neonates and infants can be tested using Automated Auditory Brainstem Response (AABR) or Transient Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions (TEOAE).
Deafness in children
1946
Children with middle-ear pathology and hearing loss should be referred to a specialist. All children with sensorineural hearing loss (even those with profound deafness), as well as children with conductive losses not correctable by surgery, benefit from amplification. All children need referral to a specialist centre skilled in educational and language remediation.
Deafness in children
1947
The prevalence of hearing loss increases exponentially with age. The commonest reason for bilateral progressive sensorineural deafness is presbycusis, which is the high-frequency hearing loss of advancing age (see FIG. 33.8 ). There appears to be a genetic predisposition to presbycusis. 8
Deafness in the elderly
1948
Presbycusis Presbycusis is sensorineural hearing loss related to deterioration of hearing with ageing. Some features include: loss of high-frequency sounds usually associated with tinnitus intolerance to very loud sounds difficulty picking up high-frequency consonants, e.g. ‘f’, ‘s’—these sounds are often distorted or unheard, and there is confusion with words such as ‘fit’ and ‘sit’, ‘fun’ and ‘sun
Deafness in the elderly
1949
Deafness is associated with various types of mental illness in the aged, including anxiety, depression, paranoid delusions, agitation and confusion because of sensory deprivation. The possibility of deafness should be kept in mind when assessing these problems
Deafness in the elderly
1950
Signs indicating referral for hearing test Possible indications for referring the older person: speaking too loudly difficulty understanding speech social withdrawal lack of interest in attending parties and other functions
Deafness in the elderly
1951
complaints about people mumbling requests to have speech repeated complaints of tinnitus setting television and radio on high volume
Deafness in the elderly
1952
Sudden deafness refers to a sudden sensorineural hearing loss threshold of greater than 30–35 dB with an onset period of between 12 hours and 3 days. 9 It specifically excludes gradual progressive causes of sensorineural deafness, such as cumulative noise trauma or presbycusis, and also excludes causes of sudden deafness that may be related to pathology in the external auditory canal, TM or middle ear.
Sudden deafness
1953
``` Causes of sudden deafness Trauma: head injury/blunt head trauma diving flying acoustic blast Postoperative: previous stapedectomy Viral infections (e.g. mumps, measles, herpes zoster) Ototoxic drugs (e.g. aminoglycosides, gentamicin) Cerebellopontine angle tumours (e.g. acoustic neuroma) Vascular disease: polycythaemia diabetes stroke, especially cerebellar vasculitis Ménière syndrome Cochlear otosclerosis ```
Sudden deafness
1954
In several instances, despite a careful clinical examination and investigation, an explanation for sudden sensorineural deafness cannot be found and it is considered to be idiopathic, which Page 407 accounts for most cases. The cause of deafness in these cases is thought to be either vascular obstruction of the end artery system or viral cochleitis. 8,10 Fortunately, spontaneous recovery usually results.
Sudden deafness
1955
Patients with sudden sensorineural deafness require immediate referral. It is a difficult problem both in diagnosis and management. Early diagnosis and a high index of suspicion are fundamental. 8 Two important conditions that deserve special reference are perilymphatic fistula, which occurs after stapedectomy, and an acoustic neuroma presumably causing compression of the internal auditory artery by the tumour in the internal auditory meatus. Investigations: FBE, ESR, ANCA; TB ELISpot; viral titres; evoked response audiometry; MRI
Sudden deafness
1956
is a disease of the bone surrounding the inner ear and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss in the adult with a normal tympanic membrane. The normal middle-ear bone is replaced by vascular, spongy bone that becomes sclerotic
Otosclerosis
1957
``` Usually: a progressive disease develops in the 20s and 30s family history (autosomal dominant) bilateral or unilateral female preponderance affects the footplate of the stapes may progress rapidly during pregnancy conductive hearing loss begins in lower frequencies, then progresses impedance audiometry shows characteristic features of conductive loss with a mild sensorineural loss may be associated with Ménière syndrome ```
Otosclerosis
1958
Referral to an ENT specialist Stapedectomy (approximately 90% effective) Hearing aid (less effective alternative)
Otosclerosis
1959
is a sac of keratinising squamous epithelium that arises from a perforation involving the periphery of the TM. In other words, it is a ‘big sac of skin’ (refer to CHAPTER 39 ). It is dangerous to the ear because it tends to expand and destroy adjacent structures, including the TM, ossicular chain and cochlear. Destruction of the first two may result in conductive hearing loss of up to 60 dB. Irreversible sensorineural deafness caused by otic capsule erosion may also occur. Surgical correction is mandatory
Cholesteatoma
1960
Ear wax impaction occurs in about 5% of the normal population but is more prevalent in older people especially with the use of hearing aids. It is also common in those who use cotton buds (which should be avoided), where cerumen is packed onto the TM leading to a conductive hearing loss. The average wax production is 2.81 mg/week. Most ear wax clears spontaneously without treatment.
Wax impaction
1961
``` Methods of removal include: gentle syringing with warm (body temperature) water by trained practitioner (avoid syringing if infection or perforated TM) consider cerumenolytic drops for several days before syringing carbamide peroxide (Ear Clear) docusate sodium (Waxsol) hydrogen peroxide sodium bicarbonate drops oil based (e.g. olive oil, almond oil) ```
Wax impaction
1962
Keratosis obturans is an accumulation of keratin to form a pearly-white plug that requires removal.
Wax impaction
1963
Clinical features Table 33.6 Onset of tinnitus after work in excessive noise Speech seems muffled soon after work Temporary loss initially but becomes permanent if noise exposure continues High-frequency loss on audiogram Sounds exceeding 85 dB are potentially injurious to the cochlea, especially with prolonged exposures. Common sources of injurious noise are industrial machinery, weapons and loud music.
Noise-induced hearing loss
1964
s is defined as a sound perceived by the ear that arises from an internal source. When pathology in the inner ear is the cause, the tinnitus is non-pulsating, continuous and may have variable frequencies and intensity.
Tinnitus
1965
A thorough history and examination should be conducted so that tinnitus can be classified as objective (e.g. heard with stethoscope) or non-objective, and pulsatile or non-pulsatile.
Tinnitus
1966
Precautions: exclude wax, drugs including marijuana, NSAIDs, salicylates, quinine and aminoglycosides, 9 vascular disease, depression, anaemia, aneurysm, vascular tumours (e.g. glomus tumour), venous hum (jugular vein), acoustic neuroma (progressive and unilateral), Ménière syndrome and infections (e.g. viral cochleitis) if pulsatile, consider carotid artery lesions, including a caroticocavernous fistula and an AV fistula beware of lonely elderly people living alone (suicide risk) Note: Otosclerosis in young adults causes deafness and tinnitus.
Tinnitus
1967
Investigations Audiological examination by audiologist Tympanometry and speech discrimination MRI or CT scan (if serious cause suspected or head injury)
Tinnitus
1968
Management Treat any underlying cause and aggravating factors. Otherwise, minimise symptoms. Educate and reassure the patient (tinnitus is nearly always amenable to treatment). Encourage a patient support group.
Tinnitus
1969
Medical Clonazepam 0.5 mg nocte (with care) Minerals (e.g. zinc and magnesium) Betahistine (Serc) 8–16 mg daily (max. 32 mg) Carbamazepine or sodium valproate Antidepressants if depressed Note: All of the above treatments have unsupportive Cochrane reviews.
Tinnitus
1970
Acute severe tinnitus | Lignocaine 1% IV slowly (up to 5 mL)
Tinnitus
1971
are most useful in conductive deafness. This is due to the relative lack of distortion, making amplification simple. In sensorineural deafness, the dual problem of recruitment and the hearing loss for higher frequencies may make hearing aids less satisfactory. Technology is Page 409 rapidly advancing, and modern aids selectively amplify higher frequencies and ‘cut out’ excessive volume peaks that would cause discomfort. A trial of such aids should be made by a reliable hearing-aid consultant following full medical assessment
Hearing aids
1972
The cochlear implant or ‘bionic ear’ is used in adults and children with severe hearing loss unresponsive to powerful hearing aids. The implant consists of an array of 22 electrodes inserted into the cochlea following mastoidectomy, attached to a receiver implanted in the skull next to the ear. External sounds are detected by an external processor worn behind the ear and connected to the implanted receiver with an external induction coil. Near normal speech and hearing may be achieved in children with congenital or acquired deafness with early implantation. The device is most suitable for children over 2 years and adults with severe deafness.
Cochlear implants
1973
``` Asymmetrical sensorineural hearing loss Cranial nerve defects (other than hearing loss) Ear canal or middle-ear mass Deep ear pain Discharging ear ```
Red flags for priority referral
1974
Sudden deafness. Any child with suspected deafness, including poor speech and learning problems, should be referred to an audiology centre. Any child with middle-ear pathology and hearing loss should be referred to a specialist. Unexplained deafness
When to refer
1975
A mother who believes her child may be deaf is rarely wrong. Suspect deafness in an infant with delayed development and in children with speech defects or behavioural problems. Audiological assessment should be performed on children born to mothers with evidence of intra-uterine infection by any of the TORCH organisms (toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus and herpes virus).
Practice tips
1976
No child is too young for audiological assessment. Informal office tests are inadequate for excluding hearing loss. Sounds tend to be softer in conductive hearing loss and distorted with sensorineural loss. People with conductive deafness tend to speak softly, hear better in a noisy environment, hear well on the telephone and have good speech discrimination. People with sensorineural deafness tend to speak loudly, hear poorly in a noisy environment, have poor speech discrimination and hear poorly on the telephone.
Practice tips
1977
The characteristics of the stool provide a useful guide to the site of the bowel disorder.
Diarrhoea
1978
Disorders of the upper GIT tend to produce diarrhoea stools that are copious, watery or fatty, pale yellow or green.
Diarrhoea
1979
Colonic disorder tends to produce stools that are small, of variable consistency, brown and may contain blood or mucus.
Diarrhoea
1980
Acute gastroenteritis should be regarded as a diagnosis of exclusion.
diarrhoea
1981
Asking about a history of travel, especially to countries at risk of endemic bowel infections, is essential.
diarrhoea
1982
Certain antibiotics can cause an overgrowth of Clostridium difficile, which produces pseudomembranous colitis
diarrhoea
1983
Coeliac disease, although a cause of failure to thrive in children, can present at any age.
diarrhoea
1984
In disorders of the colon, the patient experiences frequency and urgency but passes only small amounts of faeces.
diarrhoea
1985
``` Diarrhoea can be classified broadly into four types: acute watery diarrhoea bloody diarrhoea (acute or chronic) chronic watery diarrhoea steatorrhoea ```
diarrhoea
1986
Common causes are: gastroenteritis/enteritis: bacterial: Salmonella sp., Campylobacter jejuni, Shigella sp., enteropathic Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus aureus (food poisoning)
Acute diarrhoea
1987
viral: rotavirus (50% of child hospital admissions), 1 norovirus, astrovirus, adenovirus dietary indiscretions (e.g. binge eating) Page 412 antibiotic reactions
Acute diarrhoea
1988
``` Unexpected weight loss Persistent/unresolved Blood in stool Fever Overseas travel Severe abdominal pain Family history: bowel cancer, Crohn disease ```
Red flag pointers for diarrhoea
1989
Irritable bowel syndrome was the commonest cause of chronic diarrhoea in a UK study. 1 Drug reactions are also important. These include ingestion of laxatives, osmotic agents such as lactose and sorbitol in chewing gum, alcohol, antibiotics, thyroxine and others.
Chronic diarrhoea
1990
Acute gastroenteritis that persists into a chronic phase is relatively common, especially in travellers returning from overseas. Important considerations are Giardia lamblia, C. difficile, Yersinia, Entamoeba histolytica, Cryptosporidium and HIV infection.
Chronic diarrhoea
1991
Serious disorders not to be missed Colorectal carcinoma must be considered with persistent diarrhoea, especially if of insidious onset.
Chronic diarrhoea
1992
In children, coeliac disease and cystic fibrosis can present as chronic diarrhoea, while intussusception, although not causing true diarrhoea, can present as loose, redcurrant jelly-like stools and should not be misdiagnosed (as gastroenteritis). Appendicitis must also be considered in the onset of acute diarrhoea and vomiting.
Chronic diarrhoea
1993
Infection with enterohaemorrhagic strains of E. coli (e.g. O157:H7, O111:H8) may lead to the haemolytic uraemic syndrome or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, particularly in children.
Chronic diarrhoea
1994
What appears to be simple enteritis can eventuate to be fatal. If suspected, avoid giving antibiotics. Clue: Think of it with atypical gastroenteritis and bloody diarrhoea. Avoid antibiotics.
Chronic diarrhoea
1995
Not considering acute appendicitis in acute diarrhoea—can be retrocaecal or pelvic appendicitis
diarrhoea
1996
Missing faecal impaction with spurious diarrhoea Failing to perform a rectal examination Failing to consider acute ischaemic colitis in an elderly patient with the acute onset of bloody diarrhoea stools (following sudden abdominal pain in preceding 24 hours)
diarrhoea
1997
This potentially fatal colitis can be caused by the use of any antibiotic, especially clindamycin, Page 413 lincomycin, ampicillin and the cephalosporins (an exception is vancomycin). It is usually due to an overgrowth of C. difficile, which produces a toxin that causes specific inflammatory lesions, sometimes with a pseudomembrane. It may occur, uncommonly, without antibiotic usage.
``` Pseudomembranous colitis (antibiotic-associated diarrhoea) ```
1998
Clinical features Profuse, watery diarrhoea Abdominal cramping and tenesmus ± fever Within 2 days of taking antibiotic (can start up to 4 to 6 weeks after usage) Persists 2 weeks (up to 6) after ceasing antibiotic Diagnosed by characteristic lesions on sigmoidoscopy and a tissue culture assay and/or PCR for C. difficile toxin.
``` Pseudomembranous colitis (antibiotic-associated diarrhoea) ```
1999
Treatment 2 Cease antibiotic Hygiene measures to prevent spread Mild to moderate: metronidazole 400 mg (o) tds for 10 days Severe: vancomycin 125 mg (o) qid for 10 days Consult with specialist. Beware of toxic megacolon.
``` Pseudomembranous colitis (antibiotic-associated diarrhoea) ```
2000
Psychogenic considerations Anxiety and stress can cause looseness of the bowel. The irritable bowel syndrome, which is a very common condition, may reflect underlying psychological factors and most patients find that the symptoms are exacerbated by stress. Look for evidence of depression. In children, chronic diarrhoea can occur with the so-called ‘maternal deprivation syndrome’, characterised by growth and developmental retardation due to adverse psychosocial factors
diarrhoea
2001
``` Toxins from: Staphylococcus aureus Salmonella sp. Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile Vibrio parahaemolyticus Aeromonas hydrophilia Bacillus cereus ```
Food poisoning
2002
``` Viral Bacterial, e.g. Campylobacter jejuni Escherichia coli Shigella sp. Salmonella sp. ```
Infective | gastroenteritis
2003
Short—within 24 hours Average—12 hours S. aureus—2–4 hours
``` Incubation period (onset from contact) ```
2004
Diarrhoea Watery
``` Toxins from: Staphylococcus aureus Salmonella sp. Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile Vibrio parahaemolyticus Aeromonas hydrophilia Bacillus cereus ```
2005
Diarrhoea ± | blood
``` Viral Bacterial, e.g. Campylobacter jejuni Escherichia coli Shigella sp. Salmonella sp ```
2006
Chicken Meat Seafood Rice
``` Toxins from: Staphylococcus aureus Salmonella sp. Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile Vibrio parahaemolyticus Aeromonas hydrophilia Bacillus cereus ```
2007
Milk Water Chicken
``` Viral Bacterial, e.g. Campylobacter jejuni Escherichia coli Shigella sp. Salmonella sp. ```
2008
Abdominal pain Central colicky abdominal pain indicates involvement of the small bowel, while lower abdominal pain points to the large bowel.
diarrhoea
2009
Nature of stools If small volume, consider inflammation or carcinoma of colon; if large volume, consider laxative abuse and malabsorption.
diarrhoea
2010
If there is profuse bright red bleeding, consider diverticulitis or carcinoma of colon, and if small amounts with mucus or mucopus, consider inflammatory bowel disorder. The presence of blood in the stools excludes functional bowel disorder. Diarrhoea at night suggests organic disease. In steatorrhoea the stools are distinctively pale, greasy, offensive, floating and difficult to flush. It is exacerbated by fatty foods.
diarrhoea
2011
‘Rice water’ stool is characteristic of cholera and ‘pea soup’ stool of typhoid fever.
diarrhoea
2012
The extent of the examination depends on the nature of the presenting problem. If it is acute, profuse and associated with vomiting, especially in a child, the examination needs to be general to assess the effects of fluid, electrolyte and nutritional loss. An infant’s life is in danger from severe gastroenteritis and this assessment is a priority. The general nutritional and electrolyte assessment is also relevant in chronic diarrhoea with malabsorption, and this includes looking for evidence of muscle weakness (e.g. hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, tetany [hypocalcaemia], bruising [vitamin K loss]).
diarrhoea
2013
Ideally the stool should be examined. The consistency of the stool as an aid to diagnosis 2,4 is summarised in TABLE 34.5 , the features of the stool in TABLE 34.6 and the characteristics that distinguish between small and large bowel diarrhoea 1 are presented in TABLE 34.7 . Note the presence of blood, mucus or steatorrhoea.
diarrhoea
2014
Liquid and uniform Small bowel disorder (e.g. gastroenteritis)
diarrhoea
2015
Loose with bits of faeces Colonic disorder
diarrhoea
2016
Watery, offensive, bubbly Giardia lamblia infection
diarrhoea
2017
Liquid or semiformed, mucus ± blood Entamoeba histolytica
diarrhoea
2018
Bulky, pale, offensive Malabsorption
diarrhoea
2019
Pellets or ribbons Irritable bowel syndrome
diarrhoea
2020
China clay Obstructive jaundice
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2021
Black stool Melaena (blood) in faeces
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2022
Pea soup Typhoid fever
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2023
Rabbit stones Irritable bowel syndrome
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2024
Redcurrant jelly Intussusception
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2025
Rice water Cholera
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2026
Silver stool Carcinoma of ampulla of Vater
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2027
Toothpaste Hirschsprung disease
Stool features as an aid to diagnosis
2028
Consider: inflammatory bowel disease, colonic polyps, carcinoma, infective especially Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter, E. coli, amoebiasis, colitis (pseudomembranous, ischaemic).
Bloody diarrhoea
2029
Stool tests: microscopy for parasites and red and white cells (warm specimen for amoebiasis) cultures: routine for Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., E. coli and possibly Campylobacter; may need special requests for Campylobacter sp., C. difficile and toxin, listeria, Yersinia sp., Cryptosporidium sp., Aeromonas sp. (stools must be collected fresh on three occasions)
Bloody diarrhoea
2030
Blood tests (especially chronic diarrhoea): haemoglobin; MCV, WCC, ESR, iron, ferritin, folate, vitamin B12, calcium, electrolytes, thyroid function, HIV tests Specific tests for organisms Antibody tests, total IgA (e.g. IgA transglutaminase for coeliac disease); PCR tests (where applicable)
Bloody diarrhoea
2031
``` Haemagglutination tests for amoebiasis C. difficile tissue culture assay Malabsorption studies Stool elastase for pancreatic insufficiency Endoscopy: proctosigmoidoscopy flexible sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy (with biopsy) small bowel biopsy (coeliac disease) ```
Bloody diarrhoea
2032
``` Radiology: Page 417 plain X-ray abdomen—of limited value small bowel enema barium enema, especially double contrast ```
Bloody diarrhoea
2033
``` Complications of diarrhoea Fluid loss with dehydration, electrolyte loss (Na + , K+ , Mg + , Cl -) Vascular collapse Hypokalaemia ```
Bloody diarrhoea
2034
However, in Australia most infective cases are viral. The basic principle therefore is to achieve and maintain adequate hydration until the illness resolves. In adults and children, oral rehydration is indicated unless there is evidence of impending circulatory ‘shock’ demanding intravenous therapy. Oral rehydration solution containing sodium, potassium and glucose should be considered for patients with mild to moderate dehydration. Adults should drink 2 to 3 L of the solution in 24 hours. Normal food intake may start after rehydration.
Principles of treatment Bloody diarrhoea
2035
However, in Australia most infective cases are viral. The basic principle therefore is to achieve and maintain adequate hydration until the illness resolves. In adults and children, oral rehydration is indicated unless there is evidence of impending circulatory ‘shock’ demanding intravenous therapy. Oral rehydration solution containing sodium, potassium and glucose should be considered for patients with mild to moderate dehydration. Adults should drink 2 to 3 L of the solution in 24 hours. Normal food intake may start after rehydration.
Principles of treatment Bloody diarrhoea
2036
In general, treatment should not be directed specifically at altering the frequency and consistency of the stools. The antimotility drugs (loperamide, diphenoxylate and codeine) have a role restricted to short-term control of symptoms in adults during periods of significant social inconvenience, such as travel. It must be emphasised that antimotility drugs should be used with caution, especially for C. difficile, Salmonella and Shigella, and are never indicated for management of acute diarrhoea in infants and children
Principles of treatment Bloody diarrhoea
2037
Specific antibiotics are reserved for the treatment of giardiasis, amoebiasis, antibiotic-associated diarrhoea, cholera and typhoid. Although antibiotics are usually unnecessary, they may be indicated for severe cases of Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella enteritis, shigellosis and traveller’s diarrhoea. Lactobacillus has been shown to reduce the duration of diarrhoea in rotavirus-related enteritis and antibiotic-associated diarrhoea
Principles of treatment Bloody diarrhoea
2038
DxT acute diarrhoea + colicky abdominal pain ± vomiting →
gastroenteritis
2039
DxT (young adult) diarrhoea ± blood and mucus + abdominal cramps →
inflammatory bowel disease (UC/Crohn)
2040
DxT as above + constitutional symptoms ± eyes/joints →
Crohn | disease
2041
DxT pale bulky offensive stools, difficult to flush, weight loss →
malabsorption
2042
DxT fatigue + weight loss + iron deficiency →
coeliac disease
2043
DxT failure to thrive (child) + recurrent chest infections →
→ cystic | fibrosis
2044
DxT altered bowel habit: diarrhoea ± constipation ± rectal bleeding ± abdominal discomfort →
colorectal carcinoma
2045
``` DxT diarrhoea (fluid/incontinent) + constipation + abdominal discomfort + anorexia/nausea → ```
faecal impaction
2046
DxT profuse watery diarrhoea + abdominal cramps and increasing distension (on antibiotics) →
→ pseudomembranous colitis (Girotra’s | triad)
2047
DxT variable diarrhoea/constipation + abdominal discomfort + mucus PR + flatulence →
irritable bowel syndrome
2048
It is important to distinguish the steatorrhoea of various malabsorption syndromes from diarrhoea
Malabsorption
2049
``` Primary mucosal disorders Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (coeliac disease) Tropical sprue Lactose intolerance (lactase deficiency) Crohn disease (regional enteritis) Whipple disease Parasite infections (e.g. Giardia lamblia) Lymphoma ```
Malabsorption
2050
The common causes are coeliac disease, chronic pancreatitis and postgastrectomy.
Malabsorption
2051
Clinical features Bulky, pale, offensive, frothy, greasy stools Stools difficult to flush down toilet Weight loss Prominent abdomen Failure to thrive (in infants) Increased faecal fat Signs of multiple vitamin deficiencies (e.g. A, D, E, K) Sore tongue (glossitis) Hypochromic or megaloblastic anaemia (possible)
malabsorption
2052
Refer for specific investigations (e.g. FBE, barium studies, small bowel biopsy, faecal fat [>21 g/3 days]).
malabsorption
2053
Synonyms: coeliac sprue, gluten-sensitive enteropathy.
Coeliac disease
2054
Note: It can appear at any age; refer to coeliac disease in children (see later in chapter). Page 418 It is widely underdiagnosed because most patients present with non-GIT symptoms, such as tiredness. There is a genetic factor in this autoimmune disorder with a 1 in 10 chance if a first-degree relative is affected. Consider screening under 2 years if there is such an association
Coeliac disease
2055
It is widely underdiagnosed because most patients present with non-GIT symptoms, such as tiredness. There is a genetic factor in this autoimmune disorder with a 1 in 10 chance if a first-degree relative is affected. Consider screening under 2 years if there is such an association.
Coeliac disease
2056
``` Clinical features Classic tetrad: diarrhoea, weight loss, iron/folate deficiency, abdominal bloating Malaise, lethargy Flatulence Mouth ulceration Diarrhoea with constipation (alternating) Pale and thin patient No subcutaneous fat ```
Coeliac disease
2057
Diagnosis Elevated faecal fat Characteristic duodenal biopsy: villous atrophy (key test) Total IgA level IgA transglutaminase antibodies (>90% sensitivity and specificity) Deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP-IgG) also highly sensitive and specific
Coeliac disease
2058
``` Associations Iron-deficiency anaemia Malignancy, especially lymphoma, GIT Type 1 diabetes Pernicious anaemia Primary biliary cirrhosis Subfertility Dermatitis herpetiformis ```
Coeliac disease
2059
``` IgA deficiency Autoimmune thyroid disease Osteoporosis Neurological (e.g. seizures, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy) Down syndrome ```
Coeliac disease
2060
Management Diet control: high complex carbohydrate and protein, low fat, lifelong gluten-free (no wheat, barley, rye and oats) Treat specific vitamin and mineral deficiencies Give pneumococcal vaccination (increased risk of pneumococcus sepsis) Coeliac support group and Coeliac Australia
Coeliac disease
2061
Gluten-free diet Avoid foods containing gluten either as an obvious component (e.g. flour, bread, oatmeal) or as a hidden ingredient (e.g. dessert mix, stock cube). Forbidden foods include: standard bread, pasta, crispbreads, flour standard biscuits and cakes breakfast cereals made with wheat or oats oatmeal, wheat bran, barley/barley water ‘battered’ or breadcrumbed fish, etc. meat and fruit pies most stock cubes and gravy mixes
Coeliac disease
2062
This is a rare malabsorption disorder usually affecting white males. It is caused by the bacillus Tropheryma whipplei. It may involve the heart, lungs and CNS. It is fatal if missed.
Whipple disease
2063
``` Clinical features Page 419 Males >40 years Chronic diarrhoea (steatorrhoea) Arthralgia (migratory seronegative arthropathy mainly of peripheral joints) Weight loss Lymphadenopathy ± Fever ```
Whipple disease
2064
``` Diagnoses PCR for T. whipplei Jejunal biopsy—stunted villi Treatment IV ceftriaxone for 2 weeks then cotrimoxazole or tetracycline for up to 12 months. This produces a dramatic improvement. ```
Whipple disease
2065
The older the person, the more likely a late onset of symptoms that reflect serious underlying organic disease, especially malignancy. Colorectal cancer needs special consideration. Frail or bedridden people have an increasing likelihood with age of faecal impaction with spurious diarrhoea. The possibility of drug interactions (e.g. digoxin) and ischaemic colitis should also be considered.
Diarrhoea in the elderly
2066
This is due to atheromatous occlusion of mesenteric vessels (low blood flow) (see CHAPTER 24 ). Clinical features Clinical features include: sharp abdominal pain in an elderly person with bloody diarrhoea (low blood flow) or periumbilical pain and diarrhoea about 15–30 minutes after eating may be bruits over central abdomen other evidence of generalised atherosclerosis barium enema shows ‘thumb printing’ sign due to submucosal oedema
Ischaemic colitis
2067
The commonest cause of diarrhoea in children is acute infective gastroenteritis, followed by antibiotic-induced diarrhoea. However, certain conditions that develop in infancy and childhood require special attention. The presentation of small amounts of redcurrant jelly-like stool with intussusception should be kept in mind. Of the many causes, only a few could be considered common.
Diarrhoea in children
2068
Important causes of diarrhoea in children are: infective gastroenteritis antibiotics overfeeding (loose stools in newborn) dietary indiscretions toddler’s diarrhoea sugar (carbohydrate) intolerance food allergies (e.g. milk, soy bean, wheat, eggs) maternal deprivation malabsorption states: cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease
Diarrhoea in children
2069
Note: Exclude surgical emergencies (e.g. acute appendicitis), infections (e.g. pneumonia), septicaemia, otitis media <5 years.
Diarrhoea in children
2070
Note: Dehydration from gastroenteritis is an important cause of death, particularly in obese infants (especially if vomiting accompanies the diarrhoea).
Acute gastroenteritis
2071
Definition It is an illness of acute onset of less than 10 days’ duration, associated with fever, diarrhoea and/or vomiting, where there is no other evident cause for the symptoms.
Acute gastroenteritis
2072
Mainly rotavirus (developed countries) and adenovirus: viruses account for about 80% Bacterial: C. jejuni and Salmonella sp. (two commonest), E. coli and Shigella sp. Protozoal: G. lamblia, E. histolytica, Cryptosporidium Food poisoning—staphylococcal toxin Differential diagnoses. These include septicaemia, urinary tract infection, intussusception, appendicitis, pelvic abscess, partial bowel obstruction, type 1 diabetes and antibiotic reaction
Acute gastroenteritis
2073
``` Bowel infection: viruses bacteria protozoal food poisoning—staphylococcal toxin Systemic infection Abdominal disorders: appendicitis pelvic abscess intussusception malrotation Urinary tract infection Antibiotic reaction Diabetes ```
Differential diagnosis of acute | diarrhoea and vomiting in children
2074
Diarrhoea, anorexia, nausea, poor feeding, vomiting, fever (vomiting and fever may be absent) Fluid stools (often watery) 10–20 per day Crying—due to pain, hunger, thirst or nausea Bleeding—uncommon (usually bacterial)
Acute gastroenteritis
2075
Viral indication: large volume, watery, typically lasts 2–3 days, systemic symptoms uncommon. Bacterial indication: small motions, blood, mucus, abdominal pain and tenesmus.
Acute gastroenteritis
2076
Complications: febrile convulsions sugar (lactose) intolerance (common) septicaemia, especially Salmonella
Acute gastroenteritis
2077
Management Management is based on the assessment and correction of fluid and electrolyte loss. 5,6 Since dehydration is usually isotonic with equivalent loss of fluid and electrolytes, serum electrolytes will be normal. Note: The most accurate way to monitor dehydration is to weigh the child, preferably without clothes, on the same scale each time. However, the easiest is clinical assessment (e.g. vomiting, no urine, lethargy and thirst). Perform faecal microbiological testing for routine pathogens if there are features of severe disease.
Acute gastroenteritis
2078
Commercially available oral rehydration solutions (ORS) must have levels of glucose and sodium/potassium salts that meet WHO standards. Most brand names end in ‘-lyte’. They come either as sachets that must be reconstituted with a specific volume of water, or ready-made liquids, including frozen ice sticks. ‘Sports drinks’ are not designed for this purpose. One trial in mildly dehydrated children >2 years old showed that dilute apple juice was better tolerated and resulted in less treatment failure than ORS. 7 If acute invasive or persistent Salmonella are present, give antibiotics (ciprofloxacin or azithromycin).
Acute gastroenteritis
2079
Avoid Drugs: antidiarrhoeals, anti-emetics and antibiotics Full-strength lemonade or similar sugary soft drink: osmotic load too high, can use if diluted 1 part to 4 parts water but sugar may be poorly tolerated
Acute gastroenteritis
2080
To treat or not to treat at home Treat at home—if family can cope, vomiting is not a problem and no dehydration. Admit to hospital—if dehydration or persisting vomiting or family cannot cope; also infants <6 months and high-risk patients
Acute gastroenteritis
2081
Advice to parents (for mild-to-moderate diarrhoea) If applicable, remove child from day care or school and keep away from food preparation areas. Advise about hygiene, including handwashing and napkin disposal. If children are not vomiting, encourage eating and drinking as tolerated.
Acute gastroenteritis
2082
General rules 6,8 Give small amounts of fluids often Return to an age-appropriate diet as soon as possible after rehydration Start solids after 24 hours Continue breastfeeding (should be increased in frequency, e.g. hourly) or Continue formula feeding if tolerated or resume it after 24 hours Consider stool culture and test for rotavirus for symptoms that persist and worsen
Acute gastroenteritis
2083
Day 1 Give fluids, a little at a time and often (e.g. 5 mL every 1–2 minutes by spoon or syringe or 50 mL every 15 minutes if vomiting a lot). A good method is to give 200 mL (about 1 cup) of fluid every time a watery stool is passed or a big vomit occurs. Use ORS if tolerated, or alternatives such as diluted apple juice if the child prefers. Warning: Do not use straight lemonade or mix up powders with lemonade or fluids other than water
Acute gastroenteritis
2084
Method of assessing fluid requirements: 3 Fluid loss (mL) = % dehydration × body weight (kg) × 10 Maintenance (mL/kg/24 h): 1–3 mo: 120 mL; 4–12 mo: 100 mL; >12 mo: 80 mL Allow for continuing loss. Example: 8 month 10 kg child with 5% dehydration: Fluid loss = 5 × 10 × 10 = 500 mL Maintenance = 100 × 10 = 1000 mL Total 24-hour requirement (min.) = 1500 mL Approximate average hourly requirement = 60 mL Aim to give more (replace fluid loss) in the first 6 hours. Rule of thumb: give 100 mL/kg (infants) and 50 mL/kg (older children) in first 6 hours.
Acute gastroenteritis
2085
Days 2 and 3 Reintroduce your baby’s milk or formula diluted to half strength (i.e. mix equal quantities of milk or formula and water). Their normal food can be continued but do not worry that your child is not eating food. Solids can be commenced after 24 hours. Best to start with bread, plain biscuits, jelly, stewed apple, rice, porridge or non-fat potato chips. Avoid fatty foods, fried foods, raw vegetables and fruit, and wholegrain bread.
Acute gastroenteritis
2086
Day 4 Increase milk to normal strength and gradually continue reintroduction to usual diet. Breastfeeding. If your baby is not vomiting, continue breastfeeding but offer extra fluids (preferably ORS) between feeds. If vomiting is a problem, express breast milk for the time being while you follow the oral fluid program. Note: Watch for lactose intolerance as a sequela—explosive diarrhoea after introducing formula. Replace with a lactose-free formula
Acute gastroenteritis
2087
Synonyms: carbohydrate intolerance, lactose intolerance. The commonest offending sugar is lactose. Diarrhoea often follows acute gastroenteritis when milk is reintroduced into the diet (some recommend waiting for 2 weeks). Stools may be watery, frothy, smell like vinegar and tend to excoriate the buttocks. They contain sugar. Exclude giardiasis.
Chronic diarrhoea in children Sugar intolerance
2088
A simple test follows. Line the napkin with thin plastic and collect fluid stool. Mix 5 drops of liquid stool with 10 drops of water and add a Clinitest tablet (detects lactose and glucose but not sucrose). A positive result suggests sugar intolerance. Diagnosis: lactose breath hydrogen test
Chronic diarrhoea in children Sugar intolerance
2089
Treatment Remove the offending sugar from the diet. Use milk preparations in which the lactose has been split to glucose and galactose by enzymes, or use soy protein. Note: Most milk allergies improve with age
Chronic diarrhoea in children | Sugar intolerance
2090
A clinical syndrome of loose, bulky, non-offensive stools with fragments of undigested food in a well, thriving child. The onset is usually between 8 and 20 months. Associated with high fructose intake (fruit juice diarrhoea). Diagnosis by exclusion; treatment by dietary adjustment.
Toddler’s diarrhoea (‘cradle crap’)
2091
This is not as common as lactose intolerance. Diarrhoea is related to taking a cow’s milk formula and relieved when it is withdrawn.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance
2092
This is not as common as lactose intolerance. Diarrhoea is related to taking a cow’s milk formula and relieved when it is withdrawn. Allergic responses to cow’s milk protein may result in a rapid or delayed onset of symptoms. Delayed onset may be more difficult to diagnose, presenting with diarrhoea, malabsorption or failure to thrive. It is diagnosed by unequivocal reproducible reactions to elimination and challenge. If diagnosed, remove cow’s milk from the diet and replace with either soy milk or a hydrolysed or an elemental formula
Cow’s milk protein intolerance
2093
These disorders, which include Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis, can occur in childhood. A high index of suspicion is necessary to make an early diagnosis. Approximately 5% of cases of chronic ulcerative colitis have their onset in childhood.
Inflammatory bowel disorders
2094
Responsible organisms include Salmonella sp., Campylobacter, Yersinia, G. lamblia and E. histolytica. With persistent diarrhoea, it is important to obtain microscopy of faeces and aerobic and anaerobic stool cultures. G. lamblia infestation is not an uncommon finding and may be associated with malabsorption, especially of carbohydrate and fat. Giardiasis can mimic coeliac disease.
Chronic enteric infection
2095
``` Clinical features in childhood: usually presents at 9–18 months, but any age previously thriving infant anorexia, lethargy, irritability failure to thrive malabsorption—abdominal distension offensive frequent stools Diagnosis: duodenal biopsy (definitive). Treatment: remove gluten from diet. ```
Coeliac disease
2096
Cystic fibrosis, which presents in infancy, is the commonest of all inherited disorders (1 per 2500 live births)
Cystic fibrosis
2097
Features Invariably a self-limiting problem (1–3 days) Abdominal cramps Possible constitutional symptoms (e.g. fever, malaise, nausea, vomiting) Other meal-sharers affected → food poisoning Consider dehydration, especially in the elderly Consider possibility of enteric fever
Acute gastroenteritis in adults
2098
The symptoms are usually as above, but very severe diarrhoea, especially if associated with blood or mucus, may be a feature of a more serious bowel infection such as amoebiasis. Possible causes of diarrhoeal illness are presented in CHAPTER 129 . Most traveller’s diarrhoea is caused by E. coli, which produces a watery diarrhoea within 14 days of arrival in a foreign country. Another organism is Cryptosporidium parvum. If moderate to severe, azithromycin is recommended for 2–3 days. (For specific treatment refer to the section on Traveller’s diarrhoea
Traveller’s diarrhoea
2099
Any traveller with persistent diarrhoea after visiting less developed countries, especially India and China, may have a protozoal infection such as amoebiasis or giardiasis. If there is a fever and blood or mucus in the stools, suspect amoebiasis. Giardiasis is characterised by abdominal cramps, flatulence and bubbly, foul-smelling diarrhoea.
Persistent traveller’s diarrhoea
2100
Maintenance of hydration: anti-emetic injection (for severe vomiting) prochlorperazine IM, statim or metoclopramide IV, statim Antidiarrhoeal preparations: (avoid if possible, but loperamide preferred) loperamide (Imodium) 2 caps statim then 1 after each unformed stool (max. 8 caps/day) or diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) 2 tabs statim then 1–2 (o) 8 hourly
Principles of treatment of diarrhoea | Acute diarrhoea
2101
Rest Your bowel needs a rest and so do you. It is best to reduce your normal activities until the diarrhoea has stopped. Diet Eat as normally as possible but drink small amounts of clear fluids such as water, tea, lemonade and yeast extract (e.g. Vegemite). Then eat low-fat foods such as stewed apples, rice (boiled in water), soups, poultry, boiled potatoes, mashed vegetables, dry toast or bread, biscuits, most canned fruits, jam, honey, jelly, dried skim milk or condensed milk (reconstituted with water)
Principles of treatment of diarrhoea | Acute diarrhoea
2102
``` At first, avoid alcohol, coffee, strong tea, fatty foods, fried foods, spicy foods, raw vegetables, raw fruit (especially with hard skins), wholegrain cereals and cigarette smoking. On the third day introduce dairy produce, such as a small amount of milk in tea or coffee and a little butter or margarine on toast. Add also lean meat and fish (either grilled or steamed). ```
Principles of treatment of diarrhoea | Acute diarrhoea
2103
Bacterial diarrhoea in adults and older children is usually self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment (they may be used to shorten the course of a persistent infection). Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella and E. coli are the most common causes. As a rule, use oral rehydration solution 2–3 L orally over 24 hours if mild to moderate dehydration. If severe, intravenous rehydration with N saline is recommended
Treatment (antimicrobial drugs)
2104
It is advisable not to use antimicrobials except where the following specific organisms are identified. The drugs should be selected initially from the list below or modified according to the results of culture and sensitivity tests. 3 Only treat if symptoms have persisted for more than 48 hours. Adult doses are shown for the following specific enteric infections based on faecal culture. Recommended empirical therapy is ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin.
Treatment (antimicrobial drugs)
2105
Shigella dysentery (moderate to severe) cotrimoxazole (double strength) 1 tab (o) 12 hourly for 5 days: use in children (children’s doses) or norfloxacin 400 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days (preferred for adults) or ciprofloxacin 500 mg (o) bd for 5 days
Treatment (antimicrobial drugs)
2106
Giardiasis This protozoal infestation is often misdiagnosed. It should be considered for a persistent profuse, watery, bubbly, offensive diarrhoea (see CHAPTER 129 ). tinidazole 2 g (o), single dose (may need repeat) or metronidazole 400 mg (o) tds for 7 days (in children: 30 mg/kg/day [to max. 1.2 g/day] as single daily dose for 3 days)
Treatment (antimicrobial drugs)
2107
Salmonella enteritis Antibiotics are not generally advisable, but if severe or prolonged, use: ciprofloxacin 500 mg (o) bd for 5–7 days or azithromycin 1 g (o) day, then 500 mg for 6 days or ceftriaxone IV or ciprofloxacin IV if oral therapy not tolerated Note: Salmonella is a notifiable disease; infants under 15 months are at risk of invasive Salmonella infection.
Treatment (antimicrobial drugs)
2108
Campylobacter A zoonosis that is usually self-limiting. Antibiotic therapy indicated in severe or prolonged cases: azithromycin 500 mg (o) 12 hourly for 3 days or ciprofloxacin 500 mg (o) 12 hourly for 3 days or norfloxacin 400 mg (o) 12 hourly for 5 days
Treatment (antimicrobial drugs)
2109
Amoebiasis (intestinal) See CHAPTER 129 . metronidazole 600–800 mg (o) tds for 6–10 days plus diloxanide furoate 500 mg (o) tds for 10 days
diarrhoea
2110
Typhoid/paratyphoid fever See CHAPTER 129 . azithromycin 1 g (o) daily for 7 days or (if not acquired in the Indian subcontinent or South-East Asia) ciprofloxacin 500 mg (o) 12 hourly for 7–10 days (use IV if oral therapy not tolerated) If ciprofloxacin is contraindicated (e.g. in children) or not tolerated, then use: ceftriaxone 3 g IV daily until culture and sensitivities available, then choose oral regimens If severe: administer same drug and dosage IV for first 4–5 days
diarrhoea
2111
Cholera Antibiotic therapy reduces the volume and duration of diarrhoea. Rehydration is the key. azithromycin 1 g (child 20 mg/kg up to 1 g) (o) as a single dose or ciprofloxacin 1 g (o) as a single dose For pregnant women and children: amoxicillin (child: 10 mg/kg up to) 250 mg (o) 6 hourly for 4 days
diarrhoea
2112
Two important disorders are ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn disease, which have equal sex incidence and can occur at any age, but onset peaks between 20 and 40 years.
Inflammatory bowel disease
2113
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) should be considered when a young person presents with: bloody diarrhoea and mucus colonic pain and fever urgency to visit toilet and feeling of incomplete defecation constitutional symptoms including weight loss and malaise extra-abdominal manifestations such as arthralgia, low back pain (spondyloarthropathy), eye problems (iridocyclitis), liver disease and skin lesions (pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum)
Inflammatory bowel disease
2114
Investigations include FBE, vitamin B12 and folate, LFTs (abnormal enzymes), HLA-B27 , faecal calprotectin (if normal, no intestinal inflammation; if abnormal, needs colonoscopy) and lactoferrin.
Inflammatory bowel disease
2115
``` Clinical features Mainly a disease of Western societies Mainly in young adults (15–40 years) High-risk factors—family history, previous attacks, low-fibre diet Recurrent attacks of loose stools Blood, or blood and pus, or mucus in stools Abdominal pain slight or absent Fever, malaise and weight loss uncommon ```
Ulcerative colitis
2116
Begins in rectum (continues proximally)—affects only the colon: it usually does not spread beyond the ileocaecal valve An increased risk of carcinoma after 7–10 years
Ulcerative colitis
2117
``` Main symptom Bloody diarrhoea Diagnosis Faecal calprotectin: a sensitive test Proctosigmoidoscopy: a granular red proctitis with contact bleeding Barium enema: characteristic changes Prognosis Mortality rates are comparable to the general population without UC 10 Recurrent attacks common ```
Ulcerative colitis
2118
Synonyms: regional enteritis, granulomatous colitis. The cause is unknown but there is a genetic link. Clinical features Recurrent diarrhoea in a young person (15–40 years) Blood and mucus in stools (less than UC) Colicky abdominal pain (small bowel colic) Right iliac fossa pain (confused with appendicitis) Constitutional symptoms (e.g. fever, weight loss, malaise, anorexia, nausea) Signs include perianal disorders (e.g. anal fissure, fistula, ischiorectal abscess), mouth ulcers Skip areas in bowel: ½ ileocolic, ¼ confined to small bowel, ¼ confined to colon, 4% in upper GIT
Crohn disease
2119
Main symptom Page 425 Colicky abdominal pain Diagnosis Sigmoidoscopy: ‘cobblestone’ appearance (patchy mucosal oedema) Colonoscopy: useful to differentiate from UC Biopsy with endoscopy
Crohn disease
2120
Prognosis Less favourable than UC with both medical and surgical treatment. A 20-year Norway study showed a 1.3 times mortality risk compared to a matched population without Crohn disease.
Crohn disease
2121
Management principles of both Education and support, including support groups Treat under consultant supervision Treatment of acute attacks depends on severity of the attack and the extent of the disorder: mild attacks: manage out of hospital severe attacks: hospital, to attend to fluid and electrolyte balance Role of diet controversial: consider a high-fibre diet but maintain adequate nutrition Pharmaceutical agents (the following can be considered): 5-aminosalicylic acid derivatives (mainly UC): sulfasalazine (mainstay), olsalazine, mesalazine. Usually start with these agents corticosteroids (mainly for acute flares): oral, parenteral, topical (rectal foam, suppositories or enemas) for severe disease, immunomodifying drugs (e.g. azathioprine, cyclosporin, methotrexate) and anti-TNF and biological agents (e.g. adalimumab, vedolizumab, infliximab) Surgical treatment: reserve for complications; avoid surgery if possible
Crohn disease
2122
Alternating diarrhoea and constipation are well-known symptoms of incomplete bowel obstruction (cancer of colon and diverticular disease) and irritable bowel syndrome.
Alternating diarrhoea and constipation
2123
Clinical features Typically in younger women (21–40 years) Any age or sex can be affected May follow attack of gastroenteritis/traveller’s diarrhoea Cramping abdominal pain (central or iliac fossa)—see FIGURE 34.4 Pain usually relieved by passing flatus or by defecation Variable bowel habit (constipation more common) Diarrhoea usually worse in morning—several loose, explosive bowel actions with urgency The Bristol stool chart was devised to assist with the subclassification of stool types and bowel habits (see: www.continence.org.au/pages/bristol-stool-chart.html) Often precipitated by eating Faeces sometimes like small hard pellets or ribbon-like Anorexia and nausea (sometimes) Bloating, abdominal distension, borborygmi Tiredness common
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2124
In the preceding 3 months, the patient has had abdominal discomfort for at least 3 days per month with two of the following three features: relieved by defecation onset associated with a change in stool frequency onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of stool (loose, watery or pellet-like) Symptoms that cumulatively support the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome: abnormal stool frequency (for research purposes may be defined as more than three bowel movements per day or fewer than three bowel movements per week) abnormal stool form (lumpy/hard or watery/mushy) abnormal stool passage (straining, urgency or feeling of incomplete evacuation) passage of mucus bloating or feeling of abdominal distension
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2125
IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion. A thorough physical examination, investigations (FBE, ESR and stool microscopy or culture) and colonoscopy are necessary. Insufflation of air at colonoscopy may reproduce the abdominal pain of IBS.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2126
These include bowel infection, food irritation (e.g. spicy foods), lactose (milk) intolerance, excess-fibre wheat products, high fatty foods, carbonated drinks, laxative overuse, use of antibiotics and codeine-containing analgesics, psychological factors.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2127
Management The patient must be reassured and educated with advice that the problem will not cause malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease and will not shorten life expectancy. The basis of initial treatment is simple dietary modification (FODMAPs), 14 exercise, fluids (2–3 L water daily) and non-fermentable fibre.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2128
``` Age of onset >50 years Fever Unexplained weight loss Rectal bleeding Pain waking at night Persistent daily diarrhoea/steatorrhoea Recurrent vomiting Major change in symptoms Mouth ulcers ↑ CRP, ESR Anaemia Family history of bowel cancer or IBD ```
Red flag pointers for non-IBS disease
2129
Anyone with IBS should try to work on the things that make the symptoms worse. If you recognise stresses and strains in your life, try to develop a more relaxed lifestyle. You may have to be less of a perfectionist in your approach to life. Focus on establishing a regular eating pattern. Try to avoid any foods that you can identify as causing the problem. You may have to cut out smoking and alcohol and avoid laxatives and codeine (in painkillers). A high-fibre (non-fermentable) and low-carbohydrate diet and 2–3 L of water a day may be the answer to your problem. A low-FODMAP diet can produce good benefits. 11,13,16 FODMAP refers to fermentable oligosaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides and polyols, which are poorly absorbed. All of these carbohydrates need to be eliminated (under a dietitian’s guidance), then reintroduced one at a time.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
2130
is a problem of the colon (90% in descending colon) and is related to lack of fibre in the diet. It is usually symptomless.
Diverticular disorder
2131
Clinical features Typical in middle-aged or elderly—over 40 years Increases with age Present in one in three people over 60 years (Western world) Diverticulosis—symptomless Diverticulitis—infected diverticula and symptomatic (refer CHAPTER 24 ) Constipation or alternating constipation/diarrhoea Intermittent cramping lower abdominal pain in LIF Tenderness in LIF Rectal bleeding—may be profuse (± faeces) May present as acute abdomen or subacute obstruction Usually settles in 2–3 days
Diverticular disorder
2132
``` Complications (of diverticulitis) Bleeding—may cause massive lower GIT bleeding Abscess Perforation Peritonitis Obstruction (refer CHAPTER 24 ) Fistula—bladder, vagina ```
Diverticular disorder
2133
``` Investigations WBC and ESR—to determine inflammation Sigmoidoscopy Page 427 Barium enema ```
Diverticular disorder
2134
Management It usually responds to a high-fibre diet. Avoidance of constipation. Advice to the patient The gradual introduction of fibre with plenty of fluids (especially water) will improve any symptoms you may have and reduce the risk of complications. Your diet should include: 1. cereals, such as bran, shredded wheat, muesli or porridge 2. wholemeal and multigrain breads 3. fresh or stewed fruits and vegetables Bran can be added to your cereal or stewed fruit, starting with 1 tablespoon and gradually increasing to 3 tablespoons a day. Fibre can make you feel uncomfortable for the first few weeks, but the bowel soon settles with your improved diet.
Diverticular disorder
2135
Children with diarrhoea Infant under 3 months Moderate to severe dehydration Diagnosis of diarrhoea and vomiting in doubt (e.g. blood in vomitus or stool, bile-stained vomiting, high fever or toxaemia, abdominal signs suggestive of appendicitis or obstruction) Failure to improve or deterioration A pre-existing chronic illness
When to refer
2136
Patient with chronic or bloody diarrhoea Any problem requiring colonoscopic investigation Patients with anaemia Patients with weight loss, abdominal mass or suspicion of neoplasia Patients with anal fistulae Patients not responding to treatment for giardiasis Infection with E. histolytica Long-term asymptomatic carrier of typhoid or paratyphoid fever Patient with persistent undiagnosed nocturnal diarrhoea Patients with IBS with a significant change in symptoms Patients with inflammatory bowel diseases with severe exacerbations, possibly requiring immunosuppressive therapy and with complications Patients with ulcerative colitis of more than 7 years’ duration (screening by colonoscopy for carcinoma)
When to refer
2137
Oral antidiarrhoeal drugs are contraindicated in children; besides being ineffective they may prolong intestinal recovery.
diarrhoea
2138
Anti-emetics can readily provoke dystonic reactions in children, especially if young and dehydrated.
diarrhoea
2139
Acute diarrhoea is invariably self-limiting (lasts 2–5 days). If it lasts longer than 7 days, investigate with culture and microscopy of the stools.
diarrhoea
2140
If diarrhoea is associated with episodes of facial flushing or wheezing, consider carcinoid syndrome. Recurrent pain in the right hypochondrium is usually a feature of IBS (not gall bladder disease).
diarrhoea
2141
Recurrent pain in the right iliac fossa is more likely to be IBS than appendicitis. Beware of false correlations or premature conclusions (e.g. attributing the finding of diverticular disorder on barium meal to the cause of the symptoms).
diarrhoea
2142
Undercooked chicken is a common source of enteropathic bacterial infection. Consider alcohol abuse if a patient’s diarrhoea resolves spontaneously on hospital admission.
diarrhoea
2143
‘Dizzy’ comes from an old English word, dysig, meaning foolish or stupid. Strictly speaking, it means unsteadiness or lightheadedness—without movement, motion or spatial disorientation.
‘dizziness’
2144
‘Vertigo’, on the other hand, comes from the Latin vertere (to turn) and -igo for a condition. It should describe a hallucination of rotation of self or the surroundings in a horizontal or vertical direction.
‘‘Vertigo’’
2145
The term ‘dizziness’, however, is generally used collectively to describe all types of equilibrium disorders and, for convenience
dizziness
2146
Approximately one-third of the population will have suffered from significant dizziness by age 65 and about a half by age 80
Dizziness/vertigo
2147
The commonest causes in family practice are postural hypotension and hyperventilation
Dizziness/vertigo
2148
The ability to examine and interpret the sign of nystagmus accurately is important in the diagnostic process.
Dizziness/vertigo
2149
A drug history is very important, including prescribed drugs and others such as alcohol, cocaine, marijuana and illicit drugs.
Dizziness/vertigo
2150
Ménière syndrome is overdiagnosed. It has the classic triad: vertigo–tinnitus– deafness (sensorineural)
Dizziness/vertigo
2151
Vertebrobasilar insufficiency is also overdiagnosed as a cause of vertigo. It is a rare cause but may result in dizziness and sometimes vertigo but rarely in isolation.
Dizziness/vertigo
2152
o is defined as an episodic sudden sensation of circular motion of the body or of its surroundings or an illusion of motion, usually a rotatory sensation. Other terms used to describe this symptom include ‘everything spins’, ‘my head spins’, ‘the room spins’, ‘whirling’, ‘reeling’, ‘swaying’, ‘pitching’ and ‘rocking’. It is frequently accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as nausea, retching, vomiting, pallor and sweating.
vertigo
2153
is characteristically precipitated by standing, by turning the head or by movement. Patients have to walk carefully and may become nervous about descending stairs or crossing the road, and usually seek support. Therefore, the vertiginous person is usually very frightened and tends to remain immobile during an attack and may feel their feet being lifted under them.
Vertigo
2154
Patients may feel as though they are being impelled by some outside force that tends to pull them to one side, especially while walking.
Vertigo
2155
True vertigo is a symptom of disturbed function involving the vestibular system or its central connections. It invariably has an organic cause. Important causes are presented in TABLE 35.1 , while FIGURE 35.2 illustrates central neurological centres that can cause vertigo. Some features of central vertigo include gait ataxia out of proportion to vertigo, diplopia, hemisensory loss, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing and abnormal eye movements. With peripheral vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, ear fullness and a positive head impulse test may be present.
Vertigo
2156
``` Peripheral disorders Labyrinth: labyrinthitis: viral or suppurative Ménière syndrome benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) drugs trauma chronic suppurative otitis media Eight nerve: vestibular neuronitis acoustic neuroma drugs Cervical vertigo Central disorders Brain stem (TIA or stroke): vertebrobasilar insufficiency infarction Page 431 Cerebellum: degeneration tumours Migraine Multiple sclerosis ```
Causes of vertigo
2157
Nystagmus is often seen with vertigo and, since 80–85% of causes are due to an ear problem, tinnitus and hearing disorders are also occasionally associated. In acute cases there is usually a reflex autonomic discharge producing sweating, pallor, nausea and vomiting.
vertigo
2158
Syncope may present as a variety of dizziness or lightheadedness in which there is a sensation of impending fainting or loss of consciousness. Presyncope is a sensation of feeling faint. Common causes are cardiogenic disorders and postural hypotension, which are usually drug-induced.
Dizziness/vertigo
2159
Disequilibrium implies a condition in which there is a loss of balance or instability while walking, without any associated sensations of spinning. Other terms used to describe this include ‘unsteadiness on feet’, ‘the staggers’, ‘swaying feeling’ and ‘dizzy in the feet’.
Dizziness/vertigo
2160
In medical school we gain the wrong impression that the common causes of dizziness or vertigo are the relatively uncommon causes, such as Ménière syndrome, aortic stenosis, Stokes–Adams attacks, cerebellar disorders, vertebrobasilar disease and hypertension. In the real world of medicine, one is impressed by how often dizziness is caused by relatively common benign conditions, such as hyperventilation associated with anxiety, simple syncope, postural hypotension due to drugs and old age, inner ear infections, wax in the ears, post head injury, motion sickness and alcohol intoxication. In most instances making the correct diagnosis (which, as ever, is based on a careful history) is straightforward, but finding the underlying cause of true vertigo can be very difficult.
Dizziness/vertigo
2161
The common causes of vertigo seen in general practice are benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), accounting for about 25% of cases, acute vestibulopathy (vestibular neuronitis) and vestibular migraine
Dizziness/vertigo
2162
Viral labyrinthitis is basically the same as vestibular neuronitis, except that the whole of the inner ear is involved so that deafness and tinnitus arise simultaneously with severe vertigo. The most common causes of recurrent spontaneous vertigo are vestibular migraine and Ménière syndrome.
Dizziness/vertigo
2163
The important serious disorders to keep in mind are space-occupying tumours, such as acoustic neuroma, medulloblastoma and other tumours (especially posterior fossa tumours) capable of causing vertigo, intracerebral infections and cardiovascular abnormalities. It is important to bear in mind that the commonest brain tumour is a metastatic deposit from lung cancer.
Neoplasia
2164
``` Neurological signs Ataxia out of proportion to vertigo Nystagmus out of proportion to vertigo Central nystagmus Central eye movement abnormalities ```
Red flags for dizziness/vertigo
2165
This uncommon tumour should be suspected in the patient presenting with the symptoms shown in the diagnostic triad below. Headache may occasionally be present.
Acoustic neuroma
2166
DxT (unilateral) tinnitus + hearing loss + unsteady gait →
Acoustic neuroma
2167
Diagnosis is best clinched by high-resolution MRI. Audiometry and auditory evoked responses are also relevant investigations.
Acoustic neuroma
2168
Cardiac disorders that must be excluded for giddiness or syncope are the various arrhythmias, such as Stokes–Adams attacks caused by complete heart block, aortic stenosis and myocardial infarction.
Dizziness/vertigo
2169
The outstanding cerebrovascular causes of severe vertigo are vertebrobasilar insufficiency and brain-stem infarction. Vertigo is the commonest symptom of transient cerebral ischaemic attacks in the vertebrobasilar distribution.
Dizziness/vertigo
2170
Severe vertigo, often in association with hiccoughs and dysphagia, is a feature of the variety of brain-stem infarctions known as the lateral medullary syndrome due to posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) thrombosis. There is a dramatic onset of vertigo with cerebellar signs, including ataxia and vomiting. There are ipsilateral cranial nerve (brain stem) signs with contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss of the face and body. Diagnosis is by CT or MRI scanning.
Dizziness/vertigo
2171
Important neurological causes of dizziness are multiple sclerosis and complex partial seizures. The lesions of multiple sclerosis may occur in the brain stem or cerebellum. Young patients who present with a sudden onset of vertigo with ‘jiggly’ vision but without auditory symptoms should be considered as having multiple sclerosis. Five per cent of cases of multiple sclerosis present with vertigo.
Dizziness/vertigo
2172
Wax in the ear certainly causes dizziness, though its mechanism of action is controversial. Cough and micturition syncope do occur, although they are uncommon. Ménière syndrome is a pitfall in the sense that it tends to be overdiagnosed.
Dizziness/vertigo
2173
Of these conditions, drugs and vertebral dysfunction (of the cervical spine) stand out as important causes. Depression demands attention because of the possible association of anxiety and hyperventilation. Diabetes mellitus has an association through the possible mechanisms of hypoglycaemia from therapy or from an autonomic neuropathy.
Dizziness/vertigo
2174
``` Alcohol Antibiotics: streptomycin, gentamicin, kanamycin, tetracyclines Antidepressants Anti-epileptics: phenytoin Antihistamines Antihypertensives Aspirin and salicylates Cocaine, cannabis Diuretics in large doses: intravenous frusemide, ethacrynic acid Glyceryl trinitrate Quinine: quinidine Tranquillisers: phenothiazines, phenobarbitone, benzodiazepines ```
Dizziness/vertigo | Drugs that can cause dizziness
2175
Psychogenic considerations This may be an important aspect to consider in the patient presenting with dizziness, especially if the complaint is giddiness or lightheadedness. An underlying anxiety, particularly agoraphobia and panic disorder, may be the commonest cause of this symptom in family practice and clinical investigation of hyperventilation may confirm the diagnosis. The possibility of depression must also be kept in mind. 5 Many of these patients harbour the fear that they may be suffering from a serious disorder, such as a brain tumour or multiple sclerosis, or face an impending stroke or insanity. Appropriate reassurance to the contrary is often positively therapeutic for that patient.
Dizziness/vertigo
2176
A sudden attack of vertigo in a young person following a recent URTI is suggestive of vestibular neuritis
Dizziness/vertigo
2177
Dizziness is a common symptom in menopausal women and is often associated with other features of vasomotor instability.
Dizziness/vertigo
2178
Phenytoin therapy can cause cerebellar dysfunction.
Dizziness/vertigo
2179
Postural and exercise hypotension are relatively common in the older atherosclerotic patient.
Dizziness/vertigo
2180
Acute otitis media does not cause vertigo but chronic otitis media can, particularly if the patient develops a cholesteatoma, which then erodes into the internal ear causing a perilymphatic fistula.
Dizziness/vertigo
2181
Dizziness is not a common symptom in children. Vertigo can have sinister causes and requires referral because of the possibility of tumours, such as a medulloblastoma. A study by Eviatar 6 of vertigo in children found that the commonest cause was a seizure focus particularly affecting the temporal lobe. Other causes included psychosomatic vertigo, vestibular migraine and vestibular neuritis.
Dizziness in children
2182
Apart from the above causes it is important to consider: infection (e.g. meningitis, meningoencephalitis, cerebral abscess) trauma, especially to the temporal area middle-ear infection labyrinthitis (e.g. mumps, measles, influenza) BPPV (short-lived attacks of vertigo in young children between 1 and 4 years of age: tends to precede adulthood migraine) 7 hyperventilation drugs—prescribed illicit drugs (e.g. cocaine, marijuana) cardiac arrhythmias alcohol toxicity A common trap is the acute effect of alcohol in curious children who can present with the sudden onset of dizziness.
Dizziness/vertigo
2183
‘Dizzy turns’ in girls in late teens These are commonly due to blood pressure fluctuations. Give advice related to reducing stress, lack of sleep and excessive exercise. Reassure that it settles with age (rare after 25 years).
Dizziness/vertigo
2184
Dizziness is a relatively common complaint of the elderly. Common causes include postural hypotension related mainly to drugs prescribed for hypertension or other cardiovascular problems. Cerebrovascular disease, especially in the areas of the brain stem, is also relevant in this age group. True vertigo can be produced simply by an accumulation of wax in the external auditory meatus, being more frequent than generally appreciated. Middle-ear disorder is also sometimes the cause of vertigo in an older person but disorder of the auditory nerve, inner ear, cerebellum, brain stem and cervical spine are common underlying factors. Malignancy, primary and secondary, is a possibility in the elderly. The possibility of cardiac arrhythmias as a cause of syncopal symptoms increases with age.
Dizziness in the elderly | Dizziness/vertigo
2185
‘Dizzy turns’ in elderly women If no cause such as hypertension is found, advise them to get up slowly from sitting or lying, and to wear firm elastic stockings.
Dizziness/vertigo
2186
Causes: vestibular neuritis stroke—AICA or PICA Vestibular neuritis covers both vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis, which are considered to be a viral infection of the vestibular nerve and labyrinth respectively, causing a prolonged attack of vertigo that can last for several days and be severe enough to require admission to hospital. 8 This is more likely with labyrinthitis.
Acute vestibulopathy (vestibular failure)
2187
It is analogous to a viral infection of the 7th nerve causing Bell palsy. The attack is similar to Ménière syndrome except that there is no hearing disturbance.
Acute vestibulopathy (vestibular failure)
2188
DxT acute vertigo + nausea + vomiting →
vestibular neuronitis
2189
DxT same symptoms + hearing loss ± tinnitus →
acute labyrinthitis
2190
Characteristic features Single attack of vertigo without tinnitus or deafness Usually preceding ‘flu-like’ illness Mainly in young adults and middle age Abrupt onset with vertigo, ataxia, nausea and vomiting Generally lasts days to weeks Examination shows lateral or unidirectional nystagmus—rapid component away from side of Table 35.5 lesion (no hearing loss) Caloric stimulation confirms impaired vestibular function It is basically a diagnosis of exclusion.
Acute vestibulopathy (vestibular failure) Causes: vestibular neuritis stroke—AICA or PICA
2191
Treatment Rest in bed, lying very still Gaze in the direction that eases symptoms The following drugs can be used for the first 2 days (see TABLE 35.5 ): prochlorperazine (Stemetil) 5–10 mg (o) 6–8 hrly or 12.5 mg IM (if severe vomiting), but may slow recovery or promethazine 10–25 mg IM or slow IV, then 10–25 mg (o) for 48 hrs or ondansetron 4–8 mg (o) 2–3 hrly or (recommended as best) diazepam (which decreases brain-stem response to vestibular stimuli) 2 5–10 mg IM for the acute attack (care with respiratory depression), then 5 mg (o) tds for 2–3 days
vestibular neuronitis | acute labyrinthitis
2192
``` Anti-emetics: prochlorperazine metoclopramide ondansetron Antihistamines: promethazine betahistine Benzodiazepines (short period use for vertigo): diazepam lorazepam Page 436 A short course of corticosteroids often promotes recovery (e.g. prednisolone 1 mg/kg (up to 100 mg) (o) daily in morning for 5 days, then taper over 15 days and cease) ```
Symptomatic relief of acute vertigo: | pharmaceutical options
2193
Both are self-limiting disorders and usually settle over 5–7 days or several weeks. Labyrinthitis usually lasts longer and during recovery rapid head movements may bring on transient vertigo.
vestibular neuronitis | acute labyrinthitis
2194
is a common type of acute vertigo that is induced by changing head position—particularly tilting the head backwards, changing from a recumbent to a sitting position or turning to the affected side
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2195
Features Affects all ages, especially the elderly The female to male ratio is 2:1 Recurs periodically for several days Each attack is brief, usually lasts 10–60 seconds and subsides rapidly Severe vertigo on getting out of bed Can occur on head extension and turning head in bed Attacks are not accompanied by vomiting, tinnitus or deafness (nausea may occur)
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2196
In one large series 17% were associated with trauma, 15% with viral labyrinthitis, while about 50% had no clear predisposing factor other than age. One accepted theory of causation is that fine pieces of floating crystalline calcium carbonate deposits (otoconia) that are loose in the labyrinth settle in the posterior semicircular canal and generate endolymphatic movement. 11 It may also be a variation of cervical dysfunction.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2197
Diagnosis is confirmed by head position testing: head impulse (head thrust) test or Hallpike manoeuvre (refer to YouTube for these manoeuvres). 12 In the latter, from a sitting position, the patient’s head is rapidly taken to a head-hanging position 30° below the level of the couch —do three times, with the head (1) straight, (2) rotated to the right, (3) rotated to the left. Hold on for 30 seconds and observe the patient carefully for vertigo and nystagmus. There is a latent period of a few seconds before the onset of the symptoms
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2198
Tests of hearing and vestibular function are normal There is usually spontaneous recovery in weeks (most return to regular activity after 1 week) Recurrences are common: attacks occur in clusters
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2199
Management Give appropriate explanation and reassurance Avoidance measures: encourage the patient to move in ways that avoid the attack Drugs are not recommended—usually ineffective Special exercises Cervical traction may help
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2200
Particle repositioning manoeuvres Patient-performed exercises. Most patients appear to benefit from exercise, such as the Brandt– Daroff procedure 13 or the Cawthorne–Cooksey exercises 10 that consist essentially of repeatedly inducing the symptoms of vertigo. Rather than resorting to avoidance measures, the patient is Page 437 instructed to perform positional exercises to induce vertigo, hold this position until it subsides, and repeat this many times until the manoeuvre does not precipitate vertigo. The attacks then usually subside in a few days.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2201
Therapist-performed exercises. Physical manoeuvres performed as an office procedure include the Epley and Semont manoeuvres, which aim to dislodge otoliths from a semicircular canal. The Epley manoeuvre has a high (77%) success rate on the initial attempt and up to 100% on further attempts.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2202
Surgical treatment Rarely surgical treatment is required; it involves occlusion of the posterior semicircular canal rather than selective neurectomy.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2203
This is caused by a build-up of endolymph. It is an uncommon condition which is commonest in the 30–50 years age group. It is characterised by paroxysmal attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, nausea and vomiting, sweating and pallor, deafness (progressive).
Ménière syndrome
2204
Onset is abrupt—patient may fall and then be bedridden for 1–2 hours. Patient doesn’t like moving head. Attacks last 30 minutes to several hours. There is a variable interval between attacks (twice a month to twice a year). Nystagmus is observed only during an attack (often to side opposite affected inner ear).
Ménière syndrome
2205
Examination: sensorineural deafness (low tones) caloric test: impaired vestibular function audiometry: sensorineural deafness, loudness recruitment special tests There are characteristic changes in electrocochleography.
Ménière syndrome
2206
DxT vertigo + vomiting + tinnitus + sensorineural deafness →
Ménière syndrome
2207
Treatment The aim is to reduce endolymphatic pressure by reducing the sodium and water content of the endolymph.
Ménière syndrome
2208
Prophylaxis hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg (o) daily or with triamterene or amiloride combination (o) once daily.
Ménière syndrome
2209
Acute attack 1,14 Anticipation of attack (fullness, tinnitus): prochlorperazine 25 mg suppository Treatment: For severe attack, diazepam 5 mg IV ± prochlorperazine 12.5 mg IM, or if episodic, a diuretic, e.g. hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg (o) daily
Ménière syndrome
2210
Long term Reassurance with a careful explanation of this condition to the patient, who often associates it with malignant disease Excess intake of salt, tobacco and coffee to be avoided A low-salt diet is the mainstay of treatment (<3 g per day) Alleviate abnormal anxiety by using stress management, meditation or possibly long-term sedation (fluid builds up with stress) Referral for neurological assessment Diuretic (e.g. hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg/amiloride 5 mg once daily)—check electrolytes regularly Surgery may be an option for intractable cases.
Ménière syndrome
2211
e is a relatively common cause of vertigo (up to 25% association) and often unrecognised because of its many guises. It should be strongly suspected if there is a past and/or family history of migraine and also where there is a history of recurrent bouts of spontaneous vertigo or ataxia that persist for hours or days in the absence of aural symptoms. 15 Vertigo, which is usually not violent, may take the place of the aura that precedes the headache or may be a migraine
Vestibular migraine (migrainous vertigo)
2212
equivalent whereby the vertigo replaces the symptoms of headache, which may be an inconspicuous feature in some cases. Nausea and vomiting may be present. Pizotifen or propranolol are recommended for prophylaxis and a triptan for an attack
Vestibular migraine (migrainous vertigo)
2213
Vertigo of uncertain diagnosis, especially in children Possibility of tumour or bacterial infection Vertigo in presence of suppurative otitis media despite antibiotic therapy
Dizziness/vertigo When to refer
2214
Presumed viral labyrinthitis not abating after 3 months Vertigo following trauma Presumed Ménière syndrome, not responding to conservative medical management
Dizziness/vertigo When to refer
2215
Evidence of vertebrobasilar insufficiency Other neurological symptoms (including headache) and signs BPPV persisting for more than 12 months despite treatment with particle repositioning exercises
Dizziness/vertigo When to refer
2216
A careful drug history often pinpoints the diagnosis. Always consider cardiac arrhythmias as a cause of acute dizziness. Consider phenytoin as a cause of dizziness
Dizziness/vertigo
2217
``` If an intracerebral metastatic lesion is suspected, consider the possibility of carcinoma of the lung as the primary source. Three important office investigations to perform in the evaluation are blood pressure measurement (lying, sitting and standing), hyperventilation and head positional testing (or HINTS test). ```
Dizziness/vertigo
2218
Cervical vertigo is common and appropriate cervical mobilisation methods, with care, have been shown to be beneficial in a systematic review. 17 BPPV is also common and prescribing a set of exercises to desensitise the labyrinth is recommended. Use either the Brandt–Daroff procedure or the Cawthorne–Cooksey program
Dizziness/vertigo
2219
Think of migraine particularly in a younger patient presenting with unexplained recurrent vertigo.
Dizziness/vertigo
2220
Pain or discomfort centred at the upper abdomen that is chronic or recurrent in nature.
Dyspepsia
2221
Excessive wind. It includes belching, abdominal bloating or passing excessive flatus.
Flatulence
2222
A central retrosternal or epigastric burning sensation that spreads upwards to the throat.
Heartburn
2223
``` Excessive belching Usually functional Page 440 Organic disease uncommon Due to air swallowing (aerophagy) Common in anxious people who gulp food and drink Associated hypersalivation ```
Flatulence
2224
Management tips Make patient aware of excessive swallowing Avoid fizzy (carbonated) soft drinks Avoid chewing gum Don’t drink with meals Don’t mix proteins and starches Eat slowly and chew food thoroughly before swallowing Eat and chew with the mouth closed If persistent: simethicone preparation (e.g. Mylanta II, Phazyme).
Flatulence
2225
``` Excessive flatus Flatus arises from two main sources: swallowed air bacterial fermentation of undigested carbohydrate Exclude: malabsorption irritable bowel syndrome anxiety → aerophagy drugs, especially lipid-lowering agents lactose intolerance ```
Flatulence
2226
Management Assess diet (e.g. high fibre, beans and legumes, cabbage, onions, grapes and raisins) Avoid drinking with eating, especially with leafy vegetables Cook vegetables thoroughly Trial a lactose-free diet Consider simethicone preparations (e.g. De-Gas)
Flatulence
2227
Dyspepsia or indigestion is a common complaint; 80% of the population will have experienced it at some time.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2228
The presence of oesophagitis is suggested by pain on swallowing hot or cold liquids (odynophagia).
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2229
Not all reflux is due to hiatus hernia. Many of those with hiatus hernia do not experience heartburn. All dysphagia must be investigated to rule out malignancy. Each year, 1–2 people per 1000 have a diagnosed peptic ulcer (PU).
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2230
The major feature of PU disease is epigastric pain. The pain of duodenal ulcer (DU) classically occurs at night. At any time, 10–20% of chronic NSAIDs users have peptic ulceration.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2231
NSAIDs and Helicobacter pylori infection are the most important risk factors for upper GIT disease. NSAIDs mainly cause gastric ulcers (GU, gastric antrum and prepyloric region), with the duodenum affected to a lesser extent. Dyspeptic symptoms correlate poorly with NSAID-associated ulcer.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2232
It is best to consider dyspepsia as: ulcer-like—localised pain dysmotility-like—diffuse discomfort, feeling full after meals (early satiety), nausea, bloating acid-reflux-like—indigestion or heartburn with acid reflux or regurgitation The ulcer-like category may be due to an ulcer, and if not is termed functional (non-ulcer) dyspepsia
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2233
burning pain →
gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD)
2234
constricting pain →
ischaemic heart disease or oesophageal spasm
2235
deep gnawing pain →
PU
2236
heavy ache or ‘killing’ pain →
psychogenic pain
2237
Aggravating and relieving factors Examples of these factors include: eating food may aggravate a GU but relieve a DU eating fried or fatty foods will aggravate biliary disease, functional dyspepsia and oesophageal disorders bending will aggravate GORD alcohol may aggravate GORD, oesophagitis, gastritis, PU, pancreatitis
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2238
difficulty in swallowing →
oesophageal disorders
2239
lump or constriction in throat →
psychogenic
2240
acid regurgitation →
GORD, oesophagitis
2241
anorexia, weight loss →
stomach cancer
2242
symptoms of anaemia →
chronic oesophagitis or gastritis, PU, cancer (stomach, colon)
2243
flatulence, belching, abnormal bowel habits →
irritable bowel syndrome
2244
diarrhoea 30 minutes after meal →
mesenteric ischaemia
2245
Diffuse mild abdominal tenderness and a pulsatile abdominal aorta (especially in thin people) are common findings but do not necessarily discriminate between organic and functional problems. Specific epigastric tenderness suggests peptic ulceration while tenderness over the gall bladder area (Murphy sign) indicates gall bladder disease. An epigastric mass indicates stomach cancer.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2246
The investigation of choice is endoscopy, which is superior to barium studies in investigation of the upper GIT. Gastroscopy is indicated for the alarm symptoms
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2247
``` Abnormal symptoms of reflux/dyspepsia Change of symptoms Dysphagia Anorexia Unexplained weight loss GIT bleeding (melaena, haematemesis) Pain radiating to back Pain waking at night Abnormal signs on examination Other tests: fasting serum gastrin (?hypersecretion) ```
Red flags Helicobacter pylori
2248
Helicobacter pylori has been proved to cause ulcers. Most DUs and about two-thirds of GUs have been attributed to H. pylori infection.
Helicobacter pylori
2249
Non-invasive tests: serological—IgG antibodies (sensitivity 85–90%, specificity 90–99%); excellent for diagnosis, not for follow-up; affected by PPIs—may be negative urea breath test (high sensitivity 97% and specificity 96%), good for follow-up stool antigen test (sensitivity 96%, specificity 95%)
Helicobacter pylori
2250
Invasive tests: Page 443 gastric mucosal biopsy during endoscopy can detect H. pylori through histology (gold standard) or rapid urease testing or H. pylori culture
Helicobacter pylori
2251
An organic disorder is more likely in the older patient, in whom it is important to consider stomach cancer. Symptoms such as anorexia, vomiting and weight loss point to such a problem. Other conditions causing dyspepsia that are more prevalent in this age group are: constipation mesenteric artery ischaemia
Dyspepsia in the elderly
2252
Regurgitation of feeds because of gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common physiological event in newborn infants. A mild degree of reflux is normal in babies, especially after they burp; this condition is called posseting.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2253
Symptoms Milk will flow freely from the mouth soon after feeding, even after the baby has been put down for a sleep. Sometimes the flow will be forceful and may even be out of the nose.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2254
Despite this vomiting or regurgitation, the babies are usually comfortable and thrive. Some infants will cry, presumably because of heartburn. 5 In a small number the reflux may be severe enough (pathological) to cause serious problems such as oesophagitis with haematemesis or anaemia, stricture formation, failure to thrive, apnoea and aspiration.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2255
Prognosis Reflux gradually improves with time and usually ceases soon after solids are introduced into the diet. Most cases clear up completely by the age of 9 or 10 months, when the baby is sitting. At 12 months, only 5% have symptoms. Severe cases tend to persist until 18 months of age
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2256
Investigations These are not necessary in most cases but in those with persistent problems or complications referral to a paediatrician is recommended. The specialist investigations include barium meal with cine scanning, oesophageal pH monitoring or endoscopy and biopsy.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2257
Management Appropriate reassurance with parental education is important. It should be pointed out that changes in feeding practice and positioning will control most reflux. The infant should be placed on the left side for sleeping with the head of the cot elevated about 20–30 degrees. The old method of placing the child in a bucket is no longer considered acceptable! Smaller, more frequent feeds and thickening agents such as corn flour are appropriate.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2258
In infants under 6 months of age with confirmed, significant reflux, giving thickened formula feeds moderately decreases occurrences of regurgitation and parent-reported symptoms, and improves weight gain compared with non-thickened feeds.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2259
Bottle-fed babies (powdered milk formula): Carobel: Add slightly less than 1 full scoop per bottle. Gaviscon: Mix slightly less than ½ teaspoon of Infant Gaviscon Powder with 120 mL of formula in the bottle. Cornflour (maize based): Mix 1 teaspoon with each 120 mL of formula. Prethickened formulas, e.g. Karicare and S26 AR: Easier to use but more expensive.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2260
Breastfed babies: Carobel: Add slightly less than 1 full scoop to 20 mL cool boiled water or 20 mL expressed breast milk and give just before the feed. Gaviscon: Mix slightly less than ½ teaspoon of Infant Gaviscon Powder with 20 mL cool boiled water or expressed breast milk and give just after the feed.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2261
For persistent or complicated reflux, including painful oesophagitis, specialist-monitored treatment will include the use of antacids and H2 -receptor blocking agents (e.g. ranitidine)
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
2262
Clinical features Nausea Bloating and belching Heartburn Acid regurgitation, especially lying down at night Water brash (mouth fills with saliva) Nocturnal cough with possible asthma-like symptoms Diagnosis usually made on history Investigation usually not needed (reserve for alarm features as described in the red flag box and non-responsive treatment)
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2263
``` Red flag pointers for upper GIT endoscopy Anaemia (new onset) Dysphagia Odynophagia (painful swallowing) Haematemesis or melaena Unexplained weight loss > 10% Vomiting Older age >50 years Chronic NSAID use Severe frequent symptoms Family history of upper GIT or colorectal cancer Short history of symptoms Page 444 Unresponsive H. pylori treatment Barrett oesophagus screening in high-risk patients ```
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2264
Complications Oesophagitis ± oesophageal ulcer Iron-deficiency anaemia Oesophageal stricture Respiratory: chronic cough, asthma, hoarseness Barrett oesophagus (from prolonged reflux)
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2265
Investigations 8 Endoscopy (see Red flag pointers)—perform prior to empirical therapy. Limited role—about one-third negative Barium swallow and meal 24-hour ambulatory oesophageal pH monitoring
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2266
Management of GORD8,9,10,11 Stage 1 Patient education/appropriate reassurance Consider acid suppression or neutralisation
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2267
Attend to lifestyle: reduce weight if overweight (this alone may abolish symptoms) reduce or cease smoking reduce or cease alcohol (especially with dinner) avoid fatty foods (e.g. pastries, french fries) reduce or cease coffee, tea and chocolate avoid coffee and alcohol late at night
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2268
``` avoid gaseous drinks leave at least 3 hours between the evening meal and retiring increase fibre intake (e.g. high-fibre cereals, fruit and vegetables) small regular meals and snacks eat slowly and chew food well sleep on the left side main meal at midday; light evening meal avoid spicy foods and tomato products ```
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2269
Drugs to avoid: anticholinergics, theophylline, nitrates, calcium-channel blockers, doxycycline. Pill-induced (i.e. before absorption) oesophagitis occurs, especially with tetracyclines, slow-release potassium, iron sulphate, corticosteroids, NSAIDs—avoid taking dry; use ample fluids
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2270
Elevation of head of bed or wedge pillow: if GORD occurs in bed, sleep with head of bed elevated 10–20 cm on wooden blocks or use a wedge pillow (preferable) Antacids (see TABLES 36.4 and 36.5 ): best is liquid alginate/antacid mixture, e.g. Gaviscon/Mylanta plus 20 mL on demand or 1–2 hours after meals and at bedtime
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2271
``` Antacids Water soluble: Calcium carbonate Sodium: bicarbonate citrotartrate Note: Excess is prone to cause alkalosis—apathy, mental changes, stupor, kidney dysfunction, tetany Water insoluble: Aluminium: hydroxide glycinate phosphate Magnesium: alginate Table 36.5 Page 445 carbonate hydroxide trisilicate Combination antacids Antacid + alginic acid Antacid + oxethazaine Antacid + simethicone ```
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2272
Antacids are appropriate for rapid relief of mild intermittent or occasional breakthrough symptoms but are ineffective for long-term management.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2273
Stage 2 8 If no relief after several weeks, the following approaches are recommended by the Gastroenterological Society of Australia (GESA). 8 Reduce acid secretion. Select from: Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) for 4 weeks (preferred agent) 30–60 minutes before food lansoprazole 30 mg mane or omeprazole 20 mg mane
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2274
``` or pantoprazole 40 mg mane or esomeprazole 20 mg mane or rabeprazole 20 mg mane H2 -receptor antagonists (oral use for 8 weeks) famotidine 20 mg bd or nizatidine 150 mg bd or 300 mg nocte or ranitidine 150 mg bd pc or 300 mg nocte Antacids are useful for daytime symptoms ```
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2275
Although the more traditional step-up approach of 1. Antacids → 2. H2 -receptor antagonists → 3. PPI can be used, there has been a change to favour a high-level (more potent) initial therapy with PPIs at standard dose (a step-down approach; see FIG. 36.1 ). This is based on the grounds of outcomes, speed of response and total cost. May need to eradicate H. pylori if present, although there is no consistent evidence of an association with GORD.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) 8,9 in adults
2276
Surgery is usually for young people with severe reflux. The gold standard is a short, loose 360- degree laparoscopic fundoplication.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) in adults
2277
Common, especially in obese and >50 years. Most asymptomatic but GORD common. Diagnosis by barium swallow.
Hiatus hernia
2278
Types Sliding: GO junction slides into chest. Acid reflux common. Rolling (paraoesophageal): bulge of stomach herniates into chest. GORD uncommon but prone to strangulation.
Hiatus hernia
2279
Treatment Weight loss, esp. for GORD (treat reflux symptoms). Consider PPIs. Surgery for intractable symptoms and for repair of rolling hernia.
Hiatus hernia
2280
This term applies to the 60% of patients presenting with dyspepsia in which there is discomfort on eating in the absence of demonstrable organic disease. This can be considered in two categories (although there is overlap): ulcer-like dyspepsia—localised pain or dysmotility-like dyspepsia—diffuse discomfort
Functional (non-ulcer) dyspepsia
2281
Treat as for GORD. A practical approach is to commence with a 4-week trial of a PPI or an H2 - receptor antagonist and cease if symptoms resolve
Ulcer-like dyspepsia
2282
``` Clinical features Discomfort with early sense of fullness on eating Nausea Overweight Emotional stress Poor diet (e.g. fatty foods) Similar lifestyle guidelines to GORD ```
Dysmotility-like dyspepsia
2283
``` Management Treat as for GORD (stage 1). Include antacids. If not responsive: Step 1: H2 -receptor antagonists Step 2: prokinetic agents domperidone 10 mg tds or metoclopramide 10 mg tds Consider possibility of Barrett oesophagus or gastroparesis ```
Dysmotility-like dyspepsia
2284
Usually a metaplastic response to prolonged reflux A premalignant condition (adenocarcinoma) Lower oesophagus lined with gastric mucosa (at least 3 cm) of metaplastic columnar epithelium Prone to ulceration Needs careful management, which includes PPIs for symptoms of oesophagitis + reflux Consider 2-yearly endoscopies with biopsies
Barrett oesophagus
2285
Diagnosed by endoscopy and biopsy
Barrett oesophagus
2286
Features (general) Common: 10% incidence over a lifetime, but decreasing Peptic ulcers accounted for 1 in every 500 deaths in Australia 14 in 2018 DU:GU = 4:1 DUs common in men 3:1
Peptic ulcer disease
2287
``` Risk factors: male sex family history smoking (cause and delayed healing) stress more common in blood group O NSAIDs 2–4 times increase in GU and ulcer complications H. pylori Unproven risk factors: corticosteroids alcohol (except for gastric erosion) diet (does reduce recurrence of PU) ```
Peptic ulcer disease
2288
``` Types of ulcers: lower oesophageal gastric stomal (postgastric surgery) duodenal ```
Peptic ulcer disease
2289
Note: If NSAIDs and H. pylori are not implicated, it is referred to as idiopathic (affects a small population group).
Peptic ulcer disease
2290
``` Clinical features Episodic burning epigastric pain related to meals (1–2 hours after) Relieved by food or antacids (generally) Dyspepsia common May be ‘silent’ in elderly on NSAIDs Physical examination often unhelpful ```
Peptic ulcer disease
2291
Investigations Endoscopy (investigation of choice): 15 92% predictive value Barium studies: 54% predictive value Serum gastrin (consider if multiple ulcers) H. pylori test: serology or urea breath test; diagnosis usually based on urease test performed at endoscopy
Peptic ulcer disease
2292
``` Complications Perforation Bleeding → haematemesis and melaena Obstruction—pyloric stenosis Anaemia (blood loss) Cancer (in GU) Oesophageal stenosis ```
Peptic ulcer disease
2293
This can be treated with endoscopic haemostasis with electrocautery heater probe or injection of adrenaline or both. Also IV omeprazole 80 mg bolus, then 8 mg/hr IV infusion for 3 days. Surgery is an option. IV esomeprazole, omeprazole or pantoprazole can also be used.
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2294
``` Management of peptic ulcer disease Aims of treatment: relieve symptoms accelerate ulcer healing prevent complications minimise risk of relapse ```
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2295
The treatment of a GU is similar to that for a DU except that GUs take about 2 weeks longer to heal and the increased risk of malignancy has to be considered.
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2296
``` Stage 1 9 General measures: (lifestyle and symptom relief) same principles as for GORD stop smoking avoid irritant drugs: NSAIDs, aspirin normal diet but avoid foods that upset antacids ```
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2297
If H. pylori positive—eradicate with combined therapy. Confirm eradication with a urea breath test (DU) or repeat gastroscopy (GU) and repeat if still present. 10 If H. pylori negative—treat with full-dose PPI.
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2298
Proton-pump inhibitors Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) provide more potent acid suppression and heal GUs and DUs more rapidly than H2 -receptor antagonists. 4–8-week oral course PPIs are frequently used for longer than needed, with many people on long-term high
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2299
doses which are unnecessary and potentially harmful (risk of C. difficile, osteoporotic fractures, pneumonia, nutritional deficiencies). Consider deprescribing for those without Barrett oesophagus, high-grade oesophagitis or GI bleeding. Long-term users may experience rebound symptoms upon cessation; reduce gradually and offer prn occasional use. 16 Use with caution in: the elderly those on drugs, especially warfarin, anticonvulsants, beta blockers liver disease
Bleeding peptic ulcer
2300
This organism has a proven link with PU disease (both DU and benign non-drug induced GU), gastric cancer and MALToma (a gastric lymphoma) because of mucosal infection. This hypothesis is supported by a very low relapse of DU in subjects eradicated of H. pylori. Most infected people are asymptomatic but infection leads to a lifetime risk of peptic ulcer disease in 15–20% and of gastric cancer in up to 2%. 12 Twenty per cent of people have a variety of symptoms including those from gastritis and duodenitis. Treatment is based on combination triple or quadruple therapy, which can achieve a successful eradication rate of 85–90%.
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2301
``` Drug treatment regimens (examples) 9 First-line therapy: PPI (e.g. omeprazole or esomeprazole 20 mg) plus clarithromycin 500 mg plus amoxicillin 1 g ```
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2302
All orally twice daily for 7 days; this is the preferred regimen (available as a combination pack) Note: A 10–14-day course improves eradication rate by approx. 5%. 1 or PPI + clarithromycin + metronidazole 400 mg (twice daily for 7 days)—if hypersensitive to penicillin or PPI + amoxicillin + levofloxacin (for salvage therapy) or other combinations: quadruple therapy, e.g. bismuth + PPI + tetracycline + metronidazole (for failed triple combination)
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2303
Note: Resistance to metronidazole is common (>50%) and to clarithromycin is increasing (about 5% plus), but uncommon with tetracycline and amoxicillin. 6 Antacids are good for daytime relief. Maintenance anti-secretory therapy is usually unnecessary for H. pylori ulcers after successful eradication. 9 For children with confirmed H. pylori: PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2304
``` Surgical treatment Indications (now uncommon) include: failed medical treatment after 1 year complications: uncontrollable bleeding perforation pyloric stenosis suspicion of malignancy in GU ```
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2305
``` NSAIDs and peptic ulcers 9,19 1. Ulcer identified in NSAID user: stop NSAID (if possible) check smoking and alcohol use try alternative anti-inflammatory analgesic: paracetamol enteric-coated, slow-release aspirin ```
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2306
corticosteroids intra-articular or oral PPI for 4 weeks (gives best results) Note: Healing time is doubled if NSAID continued. 3 About 90% heal within 12 weeks. Check healing by endoscopy at 12 weeks. Do H. pylori test.
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2307
``` Prevention of ulcers in NSAID user: 19 Primary prophylaxis is usually reserved for those at significantly increased risk, e.g. older persons (>75 years) and past history PU. Use one of the following PPIs: 9 esomeprazole 20 mg bd for 7 days or omeprazole 20 mg daily or pantoprazole 40 mg daily Increased dietary fibre assists DU healing and prevention. ```
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2308
Note: Do H. pylori test and, if present, it should be eradicated with combination therapy after the ulcer has healed, especially in people who continue to take NSAIDs
Therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori
2309
This is an inflammatory condition with antibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor. It is asymptomatic and may lead to pernicious anaemia. Diagnosis is confirmed by histology or endoscopy. H. pylori is absent. Treat with iron and vitamin B12 if they are low
Autoimmune gastritis
2310
This is the fourth most common cancer worldwide. Clinical features Male to female ratio = 3:1 Usually asymptomatic early
Stomach cancer
2311
``` Consider if upper GIT symptoms in patients over 40 years, especially weight loss Recent-onset dyspepsia in middle age Dyspepsia unresponsive to treatment Vague fullness or epigastric distension Anorexia, nausea ± vomiting Dysphagia—a late sign Onset of anaemia Changing dyspepsia in GU Changing symptoms in pernicious anaemia H. pylori is implicated as a cause. Its treatment reduces the risk 1 and is recommended in highrisk groups ```
Stomach cancer
2312
Also implicated in gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma Risk factors: ↑ age, blood group A, smoking, sugar, atrophic gastritis, diet—high in salted and smoked foods
Stomach cancer
2313
Limited physical findings | Palpable abdominal mass (20%)
Stomach cancer
2314
DxT malaise + anorexia + dyspepsia + weight loss →
Stomach cancer
2315
DxT triple loss of appetite + weight + colour →
Stomach cancer
2316
Investigations Endoscopy and biopsy is optimal test Barium meal—false negatives
Stomach cancer
2317
Treatment Surgical excision: may be curative if diagnosed early but overall survival is poor (22% at 5 years)
Stomach cancer
2318
When to refer Infants with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux not responding to simple measures Failure to respond to stage 1 therapy for heartburn, when endoscopy is required Patients with persistent or recurrent ulcers Any patient with a PU complication, such as haemorrhage, obstruction or perforation
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2319
Scleroderma is a rare but important cause of oesophagitis. Advise patients never to ‘dry swallow’ medications. Persistent dysphagia always warrants investigation, not observation.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2320
Beware of attributing anaemia to oesophagitis. Epigastric pain aggravated by any food, relieved by antacids = chronic GU. Epigastric pain before meals, relieved by food = chronic DU.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2321
Keep in mind the malignant potential of a GU. A change in the nature of symptoms with a GU suggests the possibility of malignant change. Avoid the long-term use of water-soluble antacids. Investigate the alarm symptoms—dysphagia, bleeding, anaemia, weight loss, waking at night, pain radiating to the back.
Dyspepsia (indigestion)
2322
is difficulty in swallowing. It is a common problem affecting up to 22% of patients at some point in the general practice setting. 1 It is usually associated with a sensation of hold-up of the swallowed bolus and is sometimes accompanied by pain
Dysphagia
2323
Its origin is considered as either oropharyngeal or oesophageal. Oropharyngeal dysphagia is usually related to neuromuscular dysfunction and is commonly caused by stroke. Oesophageal dysphagia is usually due to motor disorders, such as achalasia or diffuse oesophageal spasm, and to peptic oesophageal strictures often secondary to reflux. In this type of dysphagia there is a sensation of a hold-up, which may be experienced in either the cervical or retrosternal region. 1 Causes are usually classified as functional, mechanical and neurological
Dysphagia
2324
Neurological Examples: stroke, myasthenia, MND
Dysphagia
2325
``` Mechanical luminal mural extramural Example: foreign body Example: stricture, tumour Example: extrinsic compression (i.e. goitre) ```
Dysphagia
2326
must not be confused with globus sensation, which is the sensation of the constant ‘lump in the throat’ although there is no actual difficulty swallowing food. If dysphagia is progressive or prolonged then urgent attention is necessary.
Dysphagia
2327
There are only a few common causes of dysphagia and these are usually readily diagnosed on the history and two or three investigations. A careful history is very important, including a drug history and psychosocial factors.
Dysphagia
2328
Any disease or abnormality affecting the tongue, pharynx or oesophagus can cause dysphagia. Patients experience a sensation of obstruction at a definite level with swallowing food or water; hence, it is convenient to subdivide dysphagia into oropharyngeal and oesophageal.
Dysphagia
2329
Pain from the oropharynx is localised to the neck. Pain from the oesophagus is usually felt over the T2–6 area of the chest. Oropharyngeal causes: difficulty initiating swallowing; food sticks at the suprasternal notch level; regurgitation; aspiration
Dysphagia
2330
Oesophageal causes: food sticks to mid to lower sternal level; pain on swallowing solid foods, especially meat, potatoes and bread, and then eventually liquids. A pharyngeal pouch usually causes regurgitation of undigested food and gurgling may be audible over the side of the neck. Neurological disorders typically result in difficulty swallowing or coughing or choking due to food spillover, especially with liquids.
Dysphagia
2331
Dysphagia for solids only indicates a structural lesion, such as a stricture or tumour. Dysphagia for liquids and solids is typical of an oesophageal motility disorder, namely achalasia. 2 GORD tends to exclude achalasia. Scleroderma may lead to a peptic stricture.
Dysphagia
2332
Gastroenterologists suggest the ‘big three’ common causes referred for specialist investigation are benign peptic stricture, cancer and achalasia. 3 Intermittent dysphagia for both liquids and solids is characteristic of a motility disorder such as oesophageal achalasia. Malignant oesophageal obstruction is usually evident when there is a short history of rapidly progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss
Dysphagia
2333
``` Red flag pointers for dysphagia Table 37.2 Age >50 years Recent or sudden onset Unexplained weight loss Painful swallowing Progressive dysphagia Dysphagia for solids Hiccoughs Hoarseness Neurological symptoms/signs ```
Dysphagia | Red flag pointers for dysphagia
2334
Functional (e.g. ‘express’ swallowing, psychogenic) Tablet-induced irritation Pharyngotonsillitis GORD/reflux oesophagitis
Dysphagia
2335
``` Foreign body Drugs (e.g. phenothiazines, bisphosphonates) Subacute thyroiditis Extrinsic lesions (e.g. lymph nodes, goitre) Upper oesophageal web (e.g. Plummer–Vinson syndrome) Diffuse oesophageal spasm Eosinophilic oesophagitis Radiotherapy Achalasia Upper oesophageal spasm (mimics angina) Rarities (some): Sjögren syndrome aortic aneurysm aberrant right subclavian artery lead poisoning cervical osteoarthritis (large osteophytes) other neurological causes other mechanical causes Seven masquerades checklist Depression Drugs Thyroid disorder Is the patient trying to tell me something? Yes. Could be functional. ?Globus sensation. ```
Dysphagia
2336
``` Full blood examination: ?anaemia Neurological cause: oesophageal motility study (manometry) Mechanical: extrinsic compression (e.g. barium swallow, CT scan, chest X-ray) intrinsic (e.g. endoscopy ± barium swallow) PET scan: good for identifying oesophageal cancer and gastro-oesophageal function ```
Dysphagia
2337
The primary investigation in suspected pharyngeal dysphagia is a video barium swallow, 5 while endoscopy is generally the first investigation in cases of suspected oesophageal dysphagia. Barium swallow should precede endoscopy in the latter when there is a suspected oesophageal ‘ring’ and suspected oesophageal dysmotility. If endoscopy and radiology are negative, consider oesophageal motility studies to look specifically for achalasia or other less common motility disorders.
Dysphagia
2338
Fibrous stricture of lower third oesophagus (can be higher) Follows years of reflux oesophagitis Usually older people Dysphagia with solid food
Dysphagia | Benign peptic stricture
2339
Diagnosis confirmed by endoscopy and barium swallow
Benign peptic stricture
2340
Treatment Dilate the stricture Treat reflux vigorously
Benign peptic stricture
2341
Dysphagia at beginning of meal Progressive dysphagia for solid food steadily progressive over weeks Can remain silent and tends to be invasive when diagnosed Hiccoughs may be an early sign
Oesophageal cancer
2342
Hoarseness and cough (upper third) Discomfort or pain—throat, retrosternal, interscapular Weight loss can be striking Associations: GORD, tobacco, Barrett oesophagus
Oesophageal cancer
2343
Diagnosis confirmed by barium swallow and endoscopy Both SCC upper third (commonest) and adenocarcinoma, distal third Adenocarcinoma associated with Barrett mucosa Plummer–Vinson syndrome Treatment is usually palliative surgery
Oesophageal cancer
2344
DxT fatigue + progressive dysphagia + weight loss →
Oesophageal cancer
2345
A disorder of oesophageal motility Widely dilated oesophagus Empties poorly through a smoothly tapered lower end
Achalasia
2346
Gradual onset of dysphagia for both liquids and solids Fluctuating symptoms—dysphagia, regurgitation Chest discomfort Diagnosis confirmed by barium swallow or manometry Manometry is the only way to diagnose with certainty
Achalasia
2347
Treatment Conservative in the elderly (e.g. nifedipine/or endoscopic botulinum toxin injection into the sphincter) Pneumatic dilatation of lower oesophageal sphincter or surgical myotomy Note: Prokinetic drugs have no place in treatment.
Achalasia
2348
Tetracycline, especially doxycycline, can cause painful ulceration in all age groups. Delayed passage of some drugs (due to pre-existing disorders) can cause local ulceration, even perforation (especially in the elderly) (e.g. iron tablets, slow-release potassium, aspirin, NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, zidovudine, antibiotics). The elderly are prone to the problem if they ingest drugs upon retiring to bed with insufficient liquid washdown
Drug-induced oesophageal injury
2349
Management Stop drugs or swallow them upright with a glass of water Take antacids
Drug-induced oesophageal injury
2350
Also referred to as ‘globus hystericus’ or ‘lump in the throat’, it is the subjective sensation of a lump in the throat. It appears to be associated with psychological stress (e.g. unresolved hurt, grief, non-achievement). Suppression of sadness is most often implicated. 7 No specific aetiology or physiological mechanism has been established. The symptom can be associated with GORD, from frequent swallowing or an emotionally based dry throat.
Globus sensation (cricopharyngeal spasm)
2351
``` Clinical features Sensation of being ‘choked up’ or ‘something stuck’ or lump—a very real sensation Not affected by swallowing Eating and drinking may provide relief Normal investigations ```
Globus sensation (cricopharyngeal spasm)
2352
Management Usually settles with education, reassuring support and time (up to several months) Avoid swallowing very hot drinks No drug of proven value Treat any underlying psychological disorder
Globus sensation (cricopharyngeal spasm)
2353
Pain on swallowing is basically caused by irritation of an inflamed or ulcerated (in particular) mucosa by the swallowed food bolus, usually meat, which may impact. Food bolus impaction may be very serious. If drinking water or, better still, 25–50 mL of a carbonated drink is ineffective, urgent upper GIT endoscopy may be required.
Globus sensation (cricopharyngeal spasm)
2354
Important causes include: GORD (the commonest cause) with associated oesophagitis oesophageal spasm, especially distal oesophagus oesophageal candidiasis, especially in the immunosuppressed herpes simplex oesophagitis, in the immunosuppressed cytomegalovirus oesophagitis, in the immunosuppressed
Globus sensation (cricopharyngeal spasm)
2355
pill-induced oesophagitis/ulceration oesophageal cancer achalasia
Globus sensation (cricopharyngeal spasm)
2356
Common infective causes—candida species, herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus. These are more prone to occur in the immunocompromised. Present with odynophagia and/or dysphagia. Diagnosis is by upper GI endoscopy and biopsy
Infective oesophagitis
2357
Treat with nystatin 100 000 units/mL suspension, 1 mL (o) 6 hrly for 10–14 weeks. If poor response, fluconazole (o), or IV if not tolerated orally. If no response to fluconazole, itraconazole (o). Refer to therapeutic guidelines.
Oesophageal candidiasis
2358
Treat with aciclovir IV until oral therapy possible, then famciclovir or valaciclovir.
Herpes simplex
2359
Eosinophilic oesophagitis is increasingly being recognised as a cause of dysphagia, gastrooesophageal reflux and acute food bolus obstruction in both children (particularly) and adults. It may present as infant colic. 9 It should be considered in those who regularly experience food getting stuck in their throat. It is associated with allergic disorders such as hay fever, cow’s milk allergy and asthma.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2360
The IgE is elevated. Refer to gastroscopy, which may show eosinophilic infiltrates in the oesophagus on mucosal biopsies. However, symptoms usually resolve within 72 hours of eliminating the offending food. A six-food elimination diet (cow’s milk protein, wheat, soy, eggs, seafood and peanuts) has been shown to reduce symptoms in up to 90%. 1 Treatment of the acute attack includes IM buscopan and a swallowed topical corticosteroid aerosol, e.g. fluticasone twice daily for 8 weeks
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2361
Although dysphagia is a common psychogenic symptom, it must always be taken seriously and investigated.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2362
Mechanical dysphagia represents cancer until proved otherwise. Progressive dysphagia and weight loss in an elderly patient is oesophageal cancer until proved otherwise.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2363
Oesophageal cancer usually causes pain, wasting and regurgitation. Globus sensation or hystericus, an anxiety disorder, should not be confused with dysphagia. It is the subjective sensation of a lump or mass in the throat. Particularly seen in young women.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2364
Cancer-induced achalasia occurs with tumours at the gastro-oesophageal junction usually due to adenocarcinoma of the stomach. Severe oesophageal reflux predisposes to adenocarcinoma
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2365
Oesophageal strictures can be benign, usually secondary to chronic reflux oesophagitis, or due to malignancy. Be careful of a change of symptoms in the presence of longstanding reflux. Consider stricture or cancer.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2366
A prominent hard lymph node in the left supraclavicular fossa (Troisier sign) is suggestive of cancer of the stomach. Dysphagia can be caused by a tight fundoplication and can be diagnosed by manometry or barium swallow.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis
2367
Thin liquids, e.g. fruit juice, coffee, tea 2. Nectar-thick liquids, e.g. creamy soup, tomato juice 3. Honey-consistency diet (honey-thick liquids) 4. Pudding-thick foods, e.g. mashed bananas, cooked cereals, purees 5. Mechanical soft foods, e.g. meat loaf, baked beans, casseroles 6. Chewy foods, e.g. pizza, cheese, bagels 7. Foods that fall apart, e.g. bread, rice, muffins
Dietary adjustments (dysphagia diets)
2368
is the subjective sensation of breathlessness that is excessive for any given level of physical activity. It is a cardinal symptom affecting the cardiopulmonary system and can be very difficult to evaluate. Appropriate breathlessness following activities such as running to catch a bus or climbing several flights of stairs is not abnormal but may be excessive due to obesity or lack of fitness.
Dyspnoea
2369
Determination of the underlying cause of dyspnoea in a given patient is absolutely essential for effective management.
Dyspnoea
2370
The main causes of dyspnoea are lung disease, heart disease, obesity and functional hyperventilation. 1 The most common cause of dyspnoea encountered in family practice is airflow obstruction, which is the basic abnormality seen in chronic asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Dyspnoea
2371
Wheezing, which is a continuous musical or whistling noise, is an indication of airflow obstruction. Some patients with asthma do not wheeze and some patients who wheeze do not have asthma.
Dyspnoea
2372
Other important pulmonary causes include restrictive disease, such as fibrosis, collapse and pleural effusion. Dyspnoea is not inevitable in lung cancer but occurs in about 60% of cases.
Dyspnoea
2373
Normal respiratory rate is 12–16 breaths/minute.
Dyspnoea
2374
Breathlessness lying down flat.
Orthopnoea
2375
Inappropriate breathlessness causing waking | from sleep.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
2376
An increased rate of breathing.
Tachypnoea
2377
is any continuous musical expiratory noise heard with the stethoscope or otherwise. Wheeze includes stridor, which is an inspiratory wheeze.
Wheezing
2378
``` Localised: partial bronchial obstruction: impacted foreign body impacted mucus plugs extrinsic compression tracheomalacia Generalised: asthma obstructive bronchitis bronchiolitis ```
Wheezing Common causes of wheezing
2379
The term ‘cardiac asthma’ is (somewhat confusingly) used to describe a wheezing sensation such as that experienced with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea.
Wheezing
2380
The common causes of dyspnoea are lung disease, heart disease, obesity, anaemia (tissue hypoxia) and functional hyperventilation. More specifically, bronchial asthma, COPD, acute pulmonary infections and left heart failure (often insidious) are common individual causes.
Dyspnoea
2381
The most practical instrument for office use to detect chronic airway obstruction due to asthma or chronic bronchitis is the mini peak flow meter, which measures peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). However, it gives considerably less information than spirometry.
Peak expiratory flow rate
2382
The interpretation of the tests, which vary according to sex, age and height, requires charts of predicted normal values. A chart for PEFR in normal adult subjects is presented in Appendix V. The value for a particular patient should be the best of three results
Peak expiratory flow rate
2383
is the gold standard test, and increasingly available in general practice. The measurement of the forced vital capacity (FVC) and the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1 ) provide a very useful guide to the type of ventilatory deficit. Both the FVC and the FEV1 are related to sex, age and height.
Spirometry
2384
The FEV1 expressed as a percentage of the FVC is an excellent measure of airflow limitation. In normal subjects it is approximately 70%. A normal spirometry pattern is shown in FIGURE 38.1 and abnormal patterns in FIGURE 38.2 . FIGURE 38.3 summarises the relative values for these conditions.
Spirometry
2385
``` Tidal volume (TV) and vital capacity (VC) can be measured by a simple spirometer but the total lung capacity and the residual volume are measured by the helium dilution method in a respiratory laboratory (rarely required). ```
Lung volume
2386
An outstanding monitoring aid is transcutaneous pulse oximetry, which estimates oxygen saturation (SpO2 ) of capillary blood. The estimates are generally very accurate and correlate to within 5% of measured arterial O2 saturation (SaO2 ). 7 The ideal level is 97–100%; median levels —neonates 97%, children 98%, adults 98%. <92% is very serious.
Pulse oximetry
2387
This test indicates the presence of airway or bronchial hyper-reactivity, which is a fundamental feature with asthma. The test should not be performed on those with poor lung function and only performed by a respiratory technician under medical supervision. The test is potentially dangerous
Histamine challenge test
2388
Normal pleural space has 10–20 mL fluid Page 462 Can be detected on X-ray if >300 mL fluid in pleural space Can be detected clinically if >500 mL fluid Can be subpulmonary—simulates a raised diaphragm
Pleural effusion
2389
May be asymptomatic Dyspnoea common with large effusion Chest pain in setting of pleuritis, infection or trauma Signs: refer TABLE 38.6 The fluid may be transudate or exudate (diagnosed by aspirate) If bloodstained—malignancy, pulmonary infarction, TB
Pleural effusion
2390
Protein content <25 g/L; lactic dehydrogenase <200 IU/L.
Pleural effusion | Transudate
2391
Causes Heart failure (90% of cases) Hypoproteinaemia, e.g. nephrotic syndrome Liver failure with ascites Constrictive pericarditis Hypothyroidism Ovarian tumour—right-sided effusion (Meigs syndrome)
Pleural effusion | Transudate
2392
Protein content >35 g/L; lactic dehydrogenase >200 IU/L
Pleural effusion | Exudate
2393
Causes Infection—bacterial pneumonia, pleurisy, empyema, TB, viral Malignancy—bronchial carcinoma, mesothelioma, metastatic Pulmonary infarction
Pleural effusion | Exudate
2394
``` Connective tissue diseases (e.g. SLE, RA) Acute pancreatitis Lymphoma Sarcoidosis HIV with parasitic pneumonia ```
Pleural effusion | Exudate
2395
Aspiration if symptomatic: may require repeats and pleurodesis. Treat the underlying cause.
Pleural effusion | Exudate
2396
There are numerous causes of dyspnoea in children but the common causes are asthma, bronchiolitis and pulmonary infections. The important infections that can be fatal—croup, epiglottitis and myocarditis—must be kept in mind and intensively managed.
Dyspnoea in children
2397
Bronchiolitis is an important cause of respiratory distress in infants under 6–12 months. It should not be confused with asthma (refer to CHAPTER 89 ) and does not respond to salbutamol or corticosteroids.
Dyspnoea in children
2398
Sudden breathlessness or stridor may be due to an inhaled foreign body. Signs of lobar collapse may be present but physical examination may be of little help and a chest X-ray is essential. Cardiovascular disorders, including congenital heart disease, can cause dyspnoea. Extra respiratory causes include anaemia, acidosis, aspiration, poisoning and hyperventilation
Dyspnoea in children
2399
y is common and is caused usually by heart failure and COPD. Other associations with ageing include lung cancer, pulmonary fibrosis and drugs. The classic problem of the aged is acute heart failure that develops typically in the early morning hours. The acute brain syndrome is a common presentation of all these disorders.
Dyspnoea in the elderly
2400
e occurs when the heart is unable to maintain sufficient cardiac output to meet the demands of the body. Dyspnoea is a common early symptom as pulmonary congestion causes hypoxia (increased ventilation) and decreased compliance (increased work). The incidence of congestive cardiac failure (CCF) has been increasing steeply, partly due to the ageing population.
Heart failure
2401
``` Symptoms Increasing dyspnoea progressing to (in order): fatigue, especially exertional fatigue paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea weight change: gain or loss ```
Heart failure
2402
It is convenient to divide heart failure into left and right heart failure but they rarely occur in isolation and often occur simultaneously. Right failure is invariably secondary to left failure. The distinction between systolic and diastolic dysfunction is increasingly being replaced by the related concept of heart failure with reduced or preserved ejection fraction (HFrEF and HFpEF). Both present in the same way clinically; diagnosis requires echocardiography and sometimes other tests such as BNP. This permits an accurate diagnosis and prognosis, and helps guide treatment.
Heart failure
2403
Chronic bronchitis and emphysema should be considered together as both these conditions usually coexist to some degree in each patient. An alternative, and preferable, term—chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)—is used to cover chronic bronchitis and emphysema with chronic airflow limitation.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
2404
comprise a group of disorders that have the common features of inflammation (pneumonitis) and fibrosis of the interalveolar septum, representing a non-specific reaction of the lung to injury of various causes.
Interstitial lung diseases (ILD)
2405
In many there is a hypersensitivity reaction to various unusual antigens. The fibrosis may be localised as following unresolved pneumonia, bilateral as with tuberculosis or widespread. Consider the possibility of fibrosis of the lungs in chronic dyspnoea and a dry cough with normal resonance. If ILD is suspected, referral to a specialist physician for diagnosis is advisable.
Interstitial lung diseases (ILD)
2406
Causes of widespread interstitial pulmonary fibrosis include: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis) drug-induced lymphangitis carcinomatosis various occupational lung disorders (pneumoconiosis)
Interstitial lung diseases (ILD)
2407
sarcoidosis acute pulmonary oedema immunological/multisystemic disease (e.g. connective tissue disorders, rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, inflammatory bowel disease) Common clinical features: dyspnoea and dry cough (insidious onset) fine inspiratory crackles at lung base with faint breath sounds cyanosis and finger clubbing may be present
Interstitial lung diseases (ILD)
2408
``` PFTs: restrictive ventilatory deficit decrease in gas transfer factor characteristic X-ray changes High-resolution CT scanning has been a major advance in diagnosis. May show ‘honeycomb lung’. ```
Interstitial lung diseases (ILD)
2409
also known as idiopathic fibrosing interstitial pneumonia and cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, is the most common diagnosis among those presenting with interstitial lung disease.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
2410
People usually present in the fifth to seventh decade with the clinical features as outlined under interstitial lung diseases, such as slowly progressive dyspnoea over months to years. Chest X-ray abnormalities are variable but include bilateral diffuse nodular or reticulonodular shadowing favouring the lung bases.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
2411
High-resolution CT scans are effective for diagnosis. Open lung biopsy may be needed for diagnosis and staging. The usual prognosis is poor, with death occurring about 3.5–5 years after diagnosis. The usual treatment is high doses of oral corticosteroids with azathioprine and no smoking
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
2412
is a multisystemic disorder of unknown aetiology, which is characterised by noncaseating granulomatous inflammation that involves the lung in about 90% of affected patients. A characteristic feature is bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, which is often symptomless and detected on routine chest X-ray (CXR). Radiological lung involvement can be associated with or occur independently of hilar lymphadenopathy.
Pulmonary sarcoidosis
2413
``` Clinical features 8,9 May be asymptomatic (one-third) Onset usually third or fourth decade (but any age) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (on CXR) Cough Fever, malaise, arthralgia ```
Pulmonary sarcoidosis
2414
Skin lesions: erythema nodosum, lupus pernio Ocular lesions (e.g. anterior uveitis) Other multiple organ lesions (uncommon) Overall mortality 2–5% Erythema nodosum with an acute swinging fever, malaise and arthralgia in a young adult female is diagnostic of sarcoidosis.
Pulmonary sarcoidosis
2415
Diagnosis Histological evidence from biopsy specimen, usually transbronchial biopsy (essential if an alternative diagnosis, e.g. lymphoma, cannot be excluded) or skin biopsy in cases of erythema nodosum. A better modern diagnostic method is biopsy via video-assisted thoracoscopy.
Pulmonary sarcoidosis
2416
Supporting evidence: Page 464 elevated serum ACE (non-specific) PFTs: restrictive pattern; impaired gas transfer in advanced cases +tive Kveim test (not recommended these days) serum calcium
Pulmonary sarcoidosis
2417
Treatment Sarcoidosis may resolve spontaneously (hilar lymphadenopathy without lung involvement does not require treatment). Indications for treatment with corticosteroids: no spontaneous improvement or worsening after 3–6 months symptomatic pulmonary lesions eye, CNS and other systems involvement hypercalcaemia, hypercalciuria erythema nodosum with arthralgia persistent cough
Pulmonary sarcoidosis
2418
A physiological process measured as impairment of | forced expiratory flow, which is the major cause of dyspnoea in these patients.
Chronic airflow limitation
2419
A clinical condition characterised by a productive cough on most days for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years in the absence of any other respiratory disease that could be responsible for such excessive sputum production (such as tuberculosis or bronchiectasis).
Chronic bronchitis
2420
A chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by the presence of airway obstruction, which may (or may not) be partially reversible by bronchodilator therapy.
COPD
2421
This is defined in pathological rather than clinical terms as permanent dilatation and destruction of lung tissue distal to the terminal bronchioles.
Emphysema
2422
Corticosteroid treatment 9 Table 38.7 Prednisolone 0.5 mg/kg (up to 50 mg) (o) daily for 4–6 weeks, then reduce to lowest dose that maintains improvement. 9 If there is a response, taper the dose to 10–15 mg (o) daily as a maintenance dose for 6–12 months. 9 Prednisolone 20–30 mg for 2 weeks for erythema nodosum of sarcoidosis.
sarcoidosis
2423
is characterised by a widespread diffuse inflammatory reaction in both the small airways of the lung and the alveoli, due to the inhalation of allergens, which are usually spores of micro-organisms such as thermophilic actinomycetes in ‘farmer’s lung’ or (more commonly) avian protein from droppings or feathers in ‘bird fancier’s lung’. Occupational causes of extrinsic alveolitis have been described by Molina
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis)
2424
Illness may present as acute or subacute episodes of pyrexia, chills and malaise with dyspnoea and a peripheral neutrophil several hours after exposure. 12 Management is based on prevention, namely avoiding exposure to allergens or wearing protective, fine-mesh masks. Prednisolone can be used (with caution) to control acute symptoms. Note that this allergic disorder is different from the infection psittacosis.
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis)
2425
Alveolitis with or without pulmonary fibrosis. This is mainly due to cytotoxic drugs, nitrofurantoin and amiodarone. The drug should be removed and consideration given to prescribing prednisolone 50 mg (o) daily for several weeks, depending on response.
Drug-induced interstitial lung disease
2426
Eosinophilic reactions. This is presumably an immunological reaction, which may present as wheezing, dyspnoea, a maculopapular rash and pyrexia. The many implicated drugs include various antibiotics, NSAIDs, cytotoxic agents, major tranquillisers and antidepressants, and anti-epileptics. Treatment is drug removal and a short course of prednisolone 20–40 mg (o) daily for 2 weeks.
Drug-induced interstitial lung disease
2427
Non-cardiogenic acute pulmonary oedema. This is rare and has been reported to occur with opioids, aspirin, hydrochlorothiazide, β2-adrenoceptor agonists (given IV to suppress premature labour), cytotoxics, interleukin-2, heroin.
Drug-induced interstitial lung disease
2428
The term ‘pneumoconiosis’ refers to the accumulation of dust in the lungs and the reaction of tissue to its presence, namely chronic fibrosis. The main cause worldwide is inhalation of coal dust, a specific severe variety being progressive massive fibrosis (complicated coal worker’s pneumoconiosis) in which the patient suffers severe dyspnoea of effort and a cough often productive of black sputum
Pneumoconiosis
2429
Of particular concern are diseases caused by inhalation of fibres of asbestos, which is a mixture of silicates of iron, magnesium, cadmium, nickel and aluminium. These diseases include asbestosis, diffuse pleural thickening, pleural plaques, mesothelioma and increased bronchial carcinoma in smokers. Pulmonary asbestosis has classic X-ray changes but high-resolution CT scans may be required to confirm the presence of calcified pleural plaques. It usually takes 10–20 years from exposure for asbestosis to develop and 20–40 years for mesothelioma to develop, 8 while bronchial carcinoma is caused by the synergistic effects of asbestosis and cigarette smoking.
Pneumoconiosis
2430
caused by the inhalation of very fibrogenic silica particles, is a constant concern for workers. Mild cases cause no or minimal symptoms, but those affected experience progressive dyspnoea, intense dry cough and weakness.
Silicosis
2431
Investigations include FBE, chest X-ray, CT scan, pulse oximetry and spirometry (restrictive ventilatory defect). Management: avoid further exposure, wear special protective masks and check for associated tuberculosis.
Silicosis
2432
also known as acute lung injury and formerly called ‘adult respiratory distress syndrome’, refers to acute hypoxaemic respiratory failure following a pulmonary or systemic insult with no apparent cardiogenic cause of pulmonary oedema. This occurs about 12–48 hours after the event. 13 The most common cause is sepsis, which accounts for about one-third of ARDS patients. The mortality rate is 30–40%, increasing if accompanied by sepsis. Management is based on early diagnosis, early referral, identification and treatment of the underlying condition and then optimal intensive care
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
2433
``` Clinical features Sudden onset of respiratory distress Stiff lungs—reduced lung compliance Refractory hypoxaemia Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on X-ray No apparent evidence of congestive heart failure Absence of elevated left atrial pressure Specific gas exchange abnormalities ```
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
2434
Signs: tachypnoea, laboured breathing, rib retraction, central cyanosis, fine crackles on auscultation
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
2435
The differential diagnoses are pneumonia and acute heart failure. Common risk factors/associations for ARDS include (indirectly—systemic)—sepsis, shock, trauma, burns, drug overdose (e.g. heroin), multiple transfusions, obstetric complications (e.g. eclampsia, amniotic fluid embolism), and many direct causes such as pulmonary aspiration, toxic gas inhalation, blast injury and pneumonia (e.g. COVID-19, SARS). Admit to an intensive care unit.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
2436
The disease caused by the SARS-CoV-2 coronavirus was declared by WHO to be a pandemic in March 2020 (see CHAPTER 18 ). It has since proven to be the most deadly respiratory pandemic in a century. 16 Widespread vaccination commenced around a year after the virus was first identified. The mortality rate is around 1–2% (around 10 times the seasonal influenza rate), with most fatalities in those aged over 50 years; deaths in children are very rare.
Coronavirus infection and COVID-19
2437
Effective primary preventive measures at an individual level include: regular handwashing, social/physical distancing, avoiding large gatherings (particularly indoors), wearing face masks and coughing/sneezing etiquette. The majority of transmission is via asymptomatic (usually presymptomatic) individuals—hence the need for universal precautions
Coronavirus infection and COVID-19
2438
Most get mild symptoms similar to URTIs: mild fever, dry cough, sore throat, rhinorrhoea, malaise, headache, muscle pain. Diarrhoea and vomiting are common, and loss of taste/smell is notable. Dyspnoea (respiratory distress caused by pneumonia) increases with the severity of the illness, and is a cardinal feature in those requiring ICU admission
Coronavirus infection and COVID-19
2439
Extrapulmonary complications include septic shock, acute kidney injury (proteinuria is common), altered mental state and multiorgan failure. There is no effective, specific treatment for the virus; treatment is supportive. Long COVID: of those hospitalised, 70% report fatigue and half remain breathless 1–2 months post-discharge.
Coronavirus infection and COVID-19
2440
Dyspnoea is usually due to resolving infection and deconditioning—but bear in mind the increased risk of lung fibrosis, pulmonary embolus, myocarditis, heart failure and rhythm disturbance. 18 GPs should critically review ongoing symptoms, offer supportive treatment and investigate where necessary.
Coronavirus infection and COVID-19
2441
Remember to order a chest X-ray and pulmonary function tests in all doubtful cases of dyspnoea.
dyspnoea
2442
All heart diseases have dyspnoea as a common early symptom. Increasing dyspnoea on exertion may be the earliest symptom of incipient heart failure. Several drugs can produce a wide variety of respiratory disorders, particularly pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary eosinophilia. Amiodarone and cytotoxic drugs, especially bleomycin, are the main causes.
dyspnoea
2443
Dyspnoea in the presence of lung cancer may be caused by many factors, such as pleural effusion, lobar collapse, upper airway obstruction and lymphangitis carcinomatosis. The abrupt onset of severe dyspnoea suggests pneumothorax or pulmonary embolism. If a patient develops a relapse of dyspnoea while on digoxin therapy, consider the real possibility of digoxin toxicity and/or electrolyte abnormalities leading to left heart failure.
dyspnoea
2444
Recurrent attacks of sudden dyspnoea, especially waking the patient at night, are suggestive of asthma or left heart failure. Causes of hyperventilation include drugs, asthma, thyrotoxicosis and panic attacks/anxiety.
dyspnoea
2445
Dyspnoea is associated with about 60% of cases of lung cancer 3 (see CHAPTER 32 ). It is not a common early symptom unless bronchial occlusion causes extrinsic collapse. In advanced cancer, whether primary or secondary, direct spread or metastases may cause dyspnoea. Other factors include pleural effusion, lobar collapse, metastatic infiltration, upper airway obstruction due to superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction and lymphangitis carcinomatosis. A special problem arises with coexisting chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
Bronchial carcinoma | Dyspnoea
2446
is a common symptom in general practice. It affects all ages, but is most prevalent in children, where otitis media is the commonest cause. Ear pain may be caused by disorders of the ear or may arise from other structures, and in many instances the precise diagnosis is difficult to make
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2447
``` External ear: Perichondritis Otitis externa: Candida albicans Aspergillus nigra Pseudomonas spp. Staphylococcus aureus Furunculosis Trauma Neoplasia Herpes zoster (Ramsay–Hunt syndrome) Viral myringitis Wax-impacted ```
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2448
``` Middle ear: Eustachian insufficiency Eustachian tube dysfunction – – – – Barotrauma Acute otitis media Chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma Acute mastoiditis ```
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2449
``` 2 Periotic cause Dental disorders, e.g. dental abscess; malocclusion Upper cervical spinal dysfunction TMJ arthralgia Parotitis Temporal arteritis Lymph node inflammation ```
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2450
A patient with a painful ear often requests urgent attention, and calls in the middle of the night from anxious parents of a screaming child are commonplace. Infants may present with nothing except malaise, vomiting or screaming attacks
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2451
Of patients presenting with earache, 77% can be expected to have acute otitis media and 12% otitis externa.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2452
Approximately 1 in every 25 patients in general practice will present with an earache. Two-thirds of children will sustain at least one episode of otitis media by their second birthday; 1 in 7 children will have had more than 6 episodes by this age. Peak prevalence is 9–15 months.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2453
Otitis media is unlikely to be present if the tympanic membrane (TM) is mobile. Pneumatic otoscopy greatly assists diagnosis since the most valuable sign of otitis media is absent or diminished motility of the TM. Bullous myringitis, which causes haemorrhagic blistering of the eardrum or external ear canal, is an uncommon cause of severe pain. It is caused by a virus, probably influenza. 3 Consider herpes zoster.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2454
The role of antibiotics (usually amoxicillin) is limited. Otitis externa can be distinguished from otitis media by pain on movement of the pinna.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2455
``` Probability diagnosis Otitis media (viral or bacterial) Otitis externa (fungal, viral or bacterial) TMJ arthralgia Eustachian tube dysfunction Serious disorders not to be missed Neoplasia of external ear Cancer of other sites (e.g. tongue, nasopharynx) Herpes zoster (Ramsay–Hunt syndrome) Acute mastoiditis Cholesteatoma Necrotising otitis externa Pitfalls (often missed) Foreign bodies in ear Hard ear wax Barotrauma Dental causes (e.g. abscess) Referred pain: neck, throat Unerupted wisdom tooth and other dental causes TMJ arthralgia Facial neuralgias, esp. glossopharyngeal Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis Furuncles of canal or pinna Post tonsillectomy: ```
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2456
The commonest cause of ear pain is acute otitis media. Chronic otitis media (often painless) and otitis externa are also common. In the tropics, ‘tropical ear’ due to acute bacterial otitis is a particular problem. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) arthralgia, which may be acute or chronic, is also common and must be considered, especially when otitis media and otitis externa are excluded.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2457
As always, it is important not to overlook malignant diseases, especially the obscure ones, such as cancer of the tongue, palate or tonsils, which cause referred pain. Locally destructive cholesteatoma associated with chronic otitis media must be searched for. It signifies the ‘unsafe’ ear (see FIG. 39.1 ) that must be distinguished from the so-called ‘safe’ ear
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2458
Herpes zoster should be considered; it is easily missed if it does not erupt on the pinna and is confined to the ear canal (usually the posterior wall), and especially in the older person.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2459
The medical aphorism ‘more things are missed by not looking than by not knowing’ applies particularly to the painful ear—good illumination and focusing of the auroscope are mandatory. Particular attention should be paid to the external canal—look for hard wax, otitis externa, furuncles and foreign objects such as insects.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2460
It may not be possible to visualise the TMs so consider cleaning the canal to permit this (if possible, on the first visit), particularly if there are any atypical presenting features. Otitis media may coexist with otitis externa. Barotrauma should be considered, especially if pain follows air travel or diving.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2461
Offensive discharge >9 days Downward displacement of pinna Swelling behind ear Neurological symptoms (e.g. headaches, drowsiness) Older person: unexplained, intractable ear pain Persistent fever
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Red flag pointers for painful ear
2462
Investigations Investigations are seldom necessary. Office-based hearing tests are useful, especially for children; use speech discrimination, hair rubbing and/or tuning fork tests. For potentially ongoing conditions such as chronic otitis media, refer for audiometry. Audiometry combined with tympanometry and physical measurement of the volume of the ear canal can be performed in children, irrespective of age.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2463
Swabs from discharge, especially to determine bacterial causes, such as Staphylococcus aureus or Pseudomonas spp. infection, may be necessary. However, swabs are of no value if the TM is intact. Radiology and CT/MRI scanning may be indicated for special conditions such as a suspected extraotic malignancy
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2464
Important causes of primary otalgia in children include otitis media (particularly acute), otitis Page 472 externa, external canal furuncle or abscess, chronic eczema with fissuring of the auricle, impacted wax, foreign body, barotrauma, perichondritis, mastoiditis and bullous myringitis. Secondary otalgia includes pharyngeal lesions, dental problems, gingivostomatitis, mumps and postauricular lymphadenopathy. Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) may cause ear pain.
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Ear pain in children
2465
Foreign bodies (FBs) are frequently inserted into the ear canal (see FIG. 39.6 ). They can usually be syringed out or lifted with thin forceps. Various improvised methods can be used to remove FBs in cooperative children. These include a probe to roll out the FB, a hooked needle or a rubber catheter used as a form of suction, or otherwise a fine sucker.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2466
Probe method This requires good vision using a head mirror or head light and a thin probe. The probe is inserted under and just beyond the FB. Lever it in such a way that the tip of the probe ‘rolls’ the foreign body out of the obstructed passage. With practice, this can be done with the probe inserted through the middle of an auriscope whose lens is slid half-way open.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2467
Rubber catheter suction method The only equipment required for this relatively simple and painless method is a straight rubber catheter (large type) and perhaps a suction pump. The end of the catheter is cut at right angles, a thin smear of petroleum jelly is applied to the rim and this end is applied to the FB. Suction is applied either orally or by a pump. Gentle pump suction is preferred but it is advisable to pinch closed the suction catheter until close to the FB as the hissing noise may frighten the child
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2468
Insects in the ear Live insects should be immobilised by first instilling drops of vinegar, methylated spirits or olive oil, and then syringing the ear with warm water. Dead flies that have originally been attracted to pus are best removed by suction or gentle syringing. Note: If simple methods such as syringing fail to dislodge the FB, it is important to refer for examination and removal under microscopic vision. Syringing should not be performed if there is a possibility of the FB perforating the TM.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2469
Otitis media is very common in children and is the most common reason a child is brought in for medical attention. Persistent middle-ear effusions may follow and affect the language and cognitive development of young children. An abrupt onset is a feature.
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2470
``` Clinical features It is a clinical diagnosis Two peaks of incidence: 9–15 months of age, and school entry Seasonal incidence coincides with URTIs Bacteria cause two-thirds of cases ```
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2471
The commonest organisms are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis Fever, irritability, otalgia and otorrhoea may be present The main symptoms in older children are increasing earache and hearing loss Pulling at the ears is a common sign in infants Removal of wax may be necessary to visualise the TM (about 30% have occluded views), although with the decreasing role of antibiotics this visualisation becomes less crucial
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2472
Visualisation of the tympanic membrane Use the largest ear speculum that will comfortably fit in the child’s ear. A good technique to enable the examination of the ears (also nose and throat) in a reluctant child is where the child is held against the parent’s chest while the parent’s arm embraces the child’s arm and trunk. Use of the pneumatic otoscope may reveal absent or limited movement.
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2473
Treatment Provide adequate pain relief with paracetamol or a NSAID. Short-term use of topical 2% lignocaine drops is effective for severe cases.
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2474
Many children with viral URTIs have mild reddening or dullness of the eardrum and antibiotics are not warranted, particularly in the absence of systemic features (fever and vomiting). 5 Best practice in healthy, non-Indigenous children over 6 months of age is shared decision making with parents about symptomatic relief with analgesics and watchful waiting
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2475
The role of antibiotics in acute otitis media has diminished in response to emerging evidence from large double-blinded RCTs. The number needed to treat (NNT) with an antibiotic to prevent pain in one child at day 2–3 is 20, and no reduction in pain is found compared to placebo at day 1 or day 7
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2476
The antibiotic of choice for children who fit into those categories is a 5-day course of: 5 amoxicillin 15 mg/kg 8 or 12 hourly up to 500 mg (o) or amoxicillin 30 mg/kg 12 hourly (o) If β-lactamase-producing bacteria are suspected or documented, or initial treatment fails, use: amoxicillin/clavulanate 22.5+3.2 mg/kg 12 hourly
Pain in the ear (otalgia) | Otitis media in children
2477
Consider immediate and aggressive treatment: infants <6 months children <2 years with bilateral OM acute OM in the only hearing ear risk of complications in vulnerable groups, e.g. Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander children, immunocompromised, cochlear implant (usually IV antibiotics) Other considerations: neurological symptoms, e.g. facial palsy, vertigo
Possible clinical indications for antibiotics in children with painful otitis media
2478
``` sick child (fever and other systemic features) persistent fever and pain after 48–72 hours’ conservative approach ```
Possible clinical indications for antibiotics in children with painful otitis media
2479
For children with penicillin allergy, use: trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 4+20 mg/kg 12 hourly or cefuroxime 15 mg/kg 12 hourly
children with | painful otitis media
2480
With appropriate treatment most children with acute otitis media are significantly improved within 48 hours. Parents should be encouraged to contact their doctor if no improvement occurs within 72 hours. This problem is usually due to a resistant organism or suppuration. With a view to hospital admission, the patient should be re-evaluated at 10 days
children with | painful otitis media
2481
Antibiotic drops A randomised trial has found that antibiotic eardrops are superior to oral antibiotics for the treatment of acute otorrhoea in babies with grommets. 9 This method has advocates among specialists who recommend ciprofloxacin drops following aural toilet.
children with | painful otitis media
2482
Symptomatic treatment Rest the child in a warm room with adequate humidity. Use analgesics such as paracetamol or ibuprofen in high dosage. Local anaesthetic ear drops are a reasonable option. Follow-up: at review, check that the otitis media symptoms and signs have resolved, and perform an office-based hearing screen. If there are doubts about hearing, or a middle-ear effusion persists, refer for audiological screening.
children with | painful otitis media
2483
Complications 5,6 Middle-ear effusion. 70% of children will have an effusion present 2 weeks from the time of diagnosis, 40% at 4 weeks, with 10% having persistent effusions for 3 months or more. If the effusion is still present at 6–8 weeks, a course of antibiotics should be prescribed. 2 If the effusion persists beyond 3 months, refer for an ENT opinion or earlier if an associated speech delay or educational difficulty (especially a 20 dB hearing loss).
children with | painful otitis media
2484
Acute mastoiditis. This is a rare, major complication that presents with pain, swelling and tenderness developing behind the ear associated with a general deterioration in the condition of the child (see FIG. 39.7 ). Such a complication requires immediate referral. Chronic suppurative otitis media. Discharge through a perforation of the TM >6 weeks. Consider ciprofloxacin 0.3% ear drops, 5 drops 12 hourly until discharge free for at least 3 days. Rare complications. These include labyrinthitis, petrositis, facial paresis and intracranial abscess.
children with | painful otitis media
2485
This represents incomplete resolution of suppurative otitis media. Signs include loss of drum mobility, hearing loss and abnormal impedance confirmed by pneumatic otoscopy or tympanometry. Most resolve spontaneously but a Cochrane review7 found that resolution at 2–3 months was more likely if oral antibiotics were used (NNT=5, NNH [harms of side effects]=20). Consider recommending the safer and cheaper option of autoinflation, using Otovent-assisted nasal inflation. 10 There is no evidence to support the use of nasal steroid sprays, 11 antihistamines or decongestants
``` children with painful otitis media Glue ear (serous otitis media) ```
2486
If an effusion lasts for >3 months, arrange for a hearing assessment and consider referral to an ENT surgeon for possible tympanostomy tubes (grommets). However, bear in mind that the evidence of benefit for grommets is also modest—a minor improvement in hearing (around 10 dB) at 3–6 months that subsequently disappears as natural resolution catches up. Grommets have not been demonstrated to benefit speech, language or behaviour.
``` children with painful otitis media Glue ear (serous otitis media) ```
2487
A positive outcome from arranging hearing assessment may be altering classroom seating position and the use of sound amplifiers; these are frequently used in remote area Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander schools, where rates of glue ear are very high.
``` children with painful otitis media Glue ear (serous otitis media) ```
2488
``` Recurrent acute bacterial otitis media Antibiotic prevention of acute otitis media is indicated (arguably) if it occurs more often than every other month or for three or more episodes in 6 months or >4 in 12 months. 14 Treat as for acute otitis media. Consider: chemoprophylaxis (for about 4 months) amoxicillin twice daily (first choice) or cefaclor twice daily ```
children with painful otitis media
2489
Consider Pneumococcus vaccine in children over 18 months of age (if not already given) in combination with the antibiotic. Avoid smoke exposure (cigarettes and wood fires) and group child care. Consider review by ENT consultant.
children with painful otitis media
2490
Viral infections Most children with viral URTIs have mild–moderate reddening or dullness of the eardrum and antibiotics are not warranted. If painful bullous otitis media is present, either prick the bulla with a sterile needle for pain relief or instil dehydrating eardrops such as anhydrous glycerol.
children with painful otitis media
2491
Causes of otalgia that mainly afflict the elderly include herpes zoster (Ramsay–Hunt syndrome), TMJ arthralgia, temporal arteritis and neoplasia. It is especially important to search for evidence of malignancy.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2492
Acute otitis media causes deep-seated ear pain, deafness and often systemic illness (see FIG. 39.8 ). The sequence of symptoms is a blocked ear feeling, pain and fever. Discharge may follow if the TM perforates, with relief of pain and fever.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2493
The commonest organisms are viruses (adenovirus and enterovirus), and the bacteria H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis and β-haemolytic streptococci. The two cardinal features of diagnosis are inflammation and middle-ear effusion.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2494
Appearance of the tympanic membrane (all ages) Translucency. If the middle-ear structures are clearly visible through the drum, otitis media is unlikely. Colour. The normal TM is a shiny pale-grey to brown: a yellow colour is suggestive of an effusion.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2495
``` Diagnosis The main diagnostic feature is the redness of the TM. The inflammatory process usually begins in the upper posterior quadrant and spreads peripherally and down the handle of the malleus (see FIG. 39.9 ). The TM will be seen to be reddened and inflamed with engorgement of the vessels, particularly along the handle of the malleus. The loss of light reflex follows and anatomical features then become difficult to recognise as the TM becomes oedematous. Bulging of the drum is a late sign. Blisters are occasionally seen on the TM and this is thought to be due to a viral i n f e c t i o n i n t h e e p i d e r m a l l a y e r s o f t h e d r u m. ```
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2496
Treatment of acute otitis media (adults) Analgesics to relieve pain Adequate rest in a warm room Antibiotics for 5 days, repeated if necessary Treat associated conditions (e.g. adenoid hypertrophy) Follow-up: review and test hearing audiometrically
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2497
Antibiotic treatment 5 First choice: amoxicillin 750 mg (o) bd for 5 days 5 or 500 mg (o) tds for 5 days A longer course (up to 10 days) may be required depending on severity and response to 5-day course. Alternatives: doxycycline 100 mg (o) bd for 5–7 days (daily for milder infections) or cefaclor 250 mg (o) tds for 5–7 days or (if resistance to amoxicillin is suspected or proven) amoxicillin/potassium clavulanate 500/125 mg (o) tds for 5 days (the most effective antibiotic) Consider surgical intervention for failed therapy.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2498
Chronic otitis media There are two types of chronic suppurative otitis media and they both present with deafness and discharge without pain. The discharge occurs through a perforation in the TM: one is safe (see FIG. 39.10A ), the other unsafe
Ear pain in adults and the elderly
2499
If aural discharge persists for >6 weeks after a course of antibiotics, treatment can be with topical Table 39.3 Table 39.4 Page 477 steroid and antibiotic combination drops, following ear toilet. The toileting can be done at home by dry mopping with a rolled tissue spear. If persistent, referral to exclude cholesteatoma or chronic osteitis is advisable.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly | Chronic discharging otitis media (safe)
2500
Recognising the unsafe ear Examination of an infected ear should include inspection of the attic region, the small area of drum between the lateral process of the malleus, and the roof of the external auditory canal immediately above it. A perforation here renders the ear ‘unsafe’ (see FIG. 39.1 ); other perforations, not involving the drum margin (see FIG. 39.2 ), are regarded as ‘safe’.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly | Chronic discharging otitis media (safe)
2501
Cholesteatoma 16 Refer CHAPTER 33 . The status of a perforation depends on the presence of accumulated squamous epithelium (termed cholesteatoma) in the middle ear because this erodes bone. An attic perforation contains such material; safe perforations do not. Red flags for cholesteatoma include meningitis-type features, cranial nerve deficits, sensorineural hearing loss and persistent deep ear pain.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly | Chronic discharging otitis media (safe)
2502
Cholesteatoma is visible through the hole as white flakes, unless it is obscured by discharge or a persistent overlying scab (or wax). Either type of perforation can lead to chronic infective discharge, the nature of which varies with its origin. Mucus admixture is recognised by its stretch and recoil when this discharge is being cleaned from the external auditory canal.
Ear pain in adults and the elderly | Chronic discharging otitis media (safe)
2503
Management If an attic perforation is recognised or suspected, specialist referral is essential. Cholesteatoma cannot be eradicated by medical means: surgical removal is necessary to prevent a serious infratemporal or intracranial complication. Adjunct suction with care may be necessary to decompress the mass
Ear pain in adults and the elderly | Chronic discharging otitis media (safe)
2504
also known as ‘swimmer’s ear’, ‘surfer’s ear’ and ‘tropical ear’, is common in a country whose climate and coastal living leads to extensive water sports. It is more prevalent in hot humid conditions and therefore in the tropics.
Otitis externa
2505
Predisposing factors are allergic skin conditions, ear canal trauma, water penetration (swimming, humidity, showering), water and debris retention (wax, dermatitis, exostoses), foreign bodies, contamination from swimming water including spas, and use of Q tips and hearing aids
Otitis externa
2506
``` Common responsible organisms Bacteria: Pseudomonas sp. Escherichia coli S. aureus Proteus sp. Klebsiella sp. Fungi: Candida albicans ```
Otitis externa
2507
``` Clinical features Itching at first Otalgia/pain (mild to intense) in 70% Fullness in ear canal Scant discharge Hearing loss ```
Otitis externa
2508
``` Signs Oedema (mild to extensive) Tenderness on moving auricle or jaw Erythema Discharge (offensive if coliform) Pale cream ‘wet blotting paper’ debris—C. albicans (see FIG. 39.12 ) Black spores of Aspergillus nigra TM granular or dull red ```
Otitis externa
2509
Obtain culture, especially if resistant Pseudomonas sp. suspected, by using small ear swab. Note: ‘Malignant’ otitis externa occurs in diabetics due to Pseudomonas infection at base of skull.
Otitis externa
2510
Management Aural toilet Meticulous aural toilet by gentle suction and dry mopping with a wisp of cotton wool on a fine brooch under good lighting is the keystone of management. This enables topical medication to be applied directly to the skin.
Otitis externa
2511
Syringing This is appropriate in some cases but the canal must be dried meticulously afterwards. For most cases it is not recommended.
Otitis externa
2512
Topical antimicrobials for acute diffuse otitis externa 5,17 Most effective, especially when the canal is open, is an antibacterial, antifungal and corticosteroid preparation, e.g.: Kenacomb, Otodex or Sofradex drops (2–3 drops tds) or Locacorten-Vioform drops (2–3 drops bd) or Ciproxin HC (3 drops bd)
Otitis externa
2513
Use all for 7 days. Be cautious of ear drops with neomycin (hypersensitivity). The tragus should be pumped for 30 seconds after instillation by pressing on it repeatedly, within the limitation of any pain.
Otitis externa
2514
``` Other measures 15 Strong analgesics are essential Antibiotics have a minimal place in treatment unless a spreading cellulitis has developed (refer if in doubt) ```
Otitis externa
2515
Prevent scratching and entry of water Use a wick soaked in combination steroid and antibiotic ointment for more severe cases Follow up ENT opinion for ‘red flags
Otitis externa
2516
Dressings Dressings are recommended in moderate and severe otitis media. After cleaning and drying, insert a cotton ear wick (an alternative is 10–20 cm of 4 mm Nufold gauze—see FIG. 39.13 ) impregnated with a steroid and antibiotic cream.
Otitis externa
2517
For severe oedematous otitis externa, a wick (e.g. Pope ear wick) is important and will reduce the oedema and pain in 12–24 hours (see FIG. 39.13 ). The wick can be soaked in an astringent (e.g. aluminium acetate 4% solution or glycerin and 10% ichthammol). The wick needs replacement daily until the swelling has subsided.
Otitis externa
2518
Practice tip for severe ‘tropical ear’ Prednisolone (o) 15 mg statim then 10 mg 8-hourly for six doses followed by: Merocel ear wick topical Kenacomb or Sofradex drops
Otitis externa
2519
Prevention Keep the ear dry, especially those involved in water sports Protect the ear with various waterproofing methods: Page 479 cotton wool coated with petroleum jelly an antiseptic drying agent (e.g. ethanol) after swimming and showering tailor-made ear plugs (e.g. EAR foam plugs) silicone putty or Blu-Tack a bathing cap pulled well forward allows these plugs to stay in situ Avoid poking objects such as hairpins and cotton buds in the ear to clean the canal If water enters, shake it out or use Aquaear drops (acetic acid/isopropyl alcohol), 4–5 drops to help dry the canal
Otitis externa
2520
This severe complication, usually due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa, can occur in the person who is elderly, immunocompromised or has diabetes. It involves cartilage and bone, and should be considered where there is treatment failure, severe persistent pain or fever and visible granulation tissue. Urgent referral is advisable.
Necrotising otitis externa
2521
is a staphylococcal infection of the hair follicle in the outer cartilaginous part of the ear canal. It is usually intensely painful. Fever occurs only when the infection spreads in front of the ear as cellulitis. The pinna is tender on movement—a sign that is not a feature of acute otitis media. The furuncle (boil) may be seen in the external auditory meatus
Acute localised otitis externa (furunculosis)
2522
Management If pointing, it can be incised after a local anaesthetic or freezing spray Warmth (e.g. use hot washcloth, hot-water bottle) If fever with cellulitis—flu/dicloxacillin or cephalexin
Acute localised otitis externa (furunculosis)
2523
is infection of the cartilage of the ear characterised by severe pain of the pinna, which is red, swollen and exquisitely tender. It is rare and follows trauma or surgery to the ear. As the organism is frequently P. pyocyaneus, the appropriate antibiotics must be carefully chosen (e.g. ciprofloxacin).
Perichondritis
2524
In a pierced ear, the cause is most likely a contact allergy to nickel in an earring, complicated by a S. aureus infection.
Infected ear lobe
2525
Management Discard the earrings Clean the site to eliminate residual traces of nickel Page 480 Swab the site and then commence antibiotics (e.g. flucloxacillin or erythromycin)
Infected ear lobe
2526
Instruct the person to clean the site daily, and then apply the appropriate ointment Use a ‘noble metal’ stud to keep the tract patent Advise the use of only gold, silver or platinum studs in future
Infected ear lobe
2527
This is a common cause of discomfort. 17 Symptoms include fullness in the ear, pain of various levels and impairment of hearing. The most common causes of dysfunction are disorders causing oedema of the tubal lining, such as viral URTI and allergy when the tube is only partially blocked; swallowing and yawning may elicit a crackling or popping sound. Examination reveals retraction of the TM and decreased mobility on pneumatic otoscopy. The problem is usually transient after a viral URTI.
Eustachian tube dysfunction
2528
Treatment Systemic and intranasal decongestants (e.g. pseudoephedrine or corticosteroids in allergic patients) Autoinflation by forced exhalation against closed nostrils (avoid in active intranasal infection) Avoid air travel, rapid altitude change and underwater diving
Eustachian tube dysfunction
2529
a is damage caused by undergoing rapid changes in atmospheric pressure in the presence of an occluded Eustachian tube (see FIG. 39.15 ). It affects scuba divers and aircraft travellers.
Otic barotrauma
2530
The symptoms include temporary or persistent pain or pressure in both ears, deafness, vertigo, tinnitus and perhaps discharge. Inspection of the TM may reveal (in order of seriousness): retraction; erythema; haemorrhage (due to extravasation of blood into the layers of the TM); fluid or blood in the middle ear; perforation. Perform conductive hearing loss tests with tuning fork.
Otic barotrauma
2531
Treatment Most cases are mild and resolve spontaneously in a few days, so treat with analgesics and reassurance. Menthol inhalations are soothing and effective. Refer if any persistent problems for consideration of the Politzer bag inflation or myringotomy.
Otic barotrauma
2532
Prevention Flying. Perform repeated Valsalva manoeuvres during descent. Use decongestant drops or sprays before boarding the aircraft, and then 2 hours before descent. Diving. Those with nasal problems, otitis media or chronic tubal dysfunction should not dive.
Otic barotrauma
2533
A penetrating injury to the TM can occur in children and adults from various causes such as pencils and slivers of wood or glass. Bleeding invariably follows and infection is the danger.
Penetrating injury to tympanic membrane
2534
Management Remove blood clot by suction toilet or gentle dry mopping Ensure no FB is present Check hearing Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g. cotrimoxazole) Prescribe analgesics Instruct the person not to let water enter ear Review in 2 days and then regularly At review in 1 month, the drum should be virtually healed Check hearing 2 months after injury
Penetrating injury to tympanic membrane
2535
Complete healing can be expected within 8 weeks in 90–95% of such cases.
Penetrating injury to tympanic membrane
2536
If rheumatoid arthritis is excluded, a set of special exercises, which may include ‘chewing’ a piece of soft wood over the molars, invariably solves this problem (see CHAPTER 41 ). If an obvious dental malocclusion is present, referral is necessary.
Temporomandibular joint arthralgia
2537
Incomplete resolution of acute otitis media Persistent middle-ear effusion for 3 months after an attack of acute otitis media Persistent apparent or proved deafness Evidence or suspicion of acute mastoiditis or other severe complications Frequent recurrences (e.g. four attacks a year) Presence of craniofacial abnormalities
When to refer | Otitis media
2538
Other ear problems Attic perforation/cholesteatoma FBs in ear not removed by simple measures such as syringing No response to treatment after 2 weeks for otitis externa Suspicion of carcinoma of the ear canal Acute TM perforation that has not healed in 6 weeks Chronic TM perforation (involving lower two-thirds of TM)
When to refer
2539
The pain of acute otitis media may be masked by fever in babies and young children. A red TM is not always caused by otitis media. The blood vessels of the drum head may be engorged from crying, sneezing or nose blowing. In crying babies, the TM as well as the face may be red.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2540
In otitis externa, most cases will resolve rapidly if the ear canal is expanded and then cleaned meticulously. If an adult presents with ear pain but normal auroscopy, examine possible referral sites, namely TMJ, mouth, throat, teeth and cervical spine.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2541
Consider mastoiditis if foul-smelling discharge is present over 7+ days. Antibiotics have no place in the treatment of otic barotrauma.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2542
It is good practice to make relief of distressing ear pain a priority. Adequate analgesics must be given. There is a tendency to give too low a dose of paracetamol in children. The installation of nasal drops in infants with a snuffy nose and acute otitis media can indirectly provide amazing pain relief. Spirit ear drops APF are a cheap and simple agent to use for recurrent otitis externa where wetness of the ear canal is a persistent problem.
Pain in the ear (otalgia)
2543
A red eye accounts for at least 80% of eye problems encountered in general practice. 1 An accurate history combined with a thorough examination will permit the diagnosis to be made in most cases without recourse to specialist ophthalmic equipment.
The red and tender eye
2544
Acute conjunctivitis accounts for over 25% of all eye complaints seen in general practice. 2 Viral conjunctivitis (compared to bacterial) is more common in adults, is usually bilateral and discharge is more watery than purulent.
The red and tender eye
2545
Viral conjunctivitis can be slow to resolve and may last for weeks. Pain and visual loss suggest a serious condition such as glaucoma, uveitis (including acute iritis) or corneal ulceration.
The red and tender eye
2546
Beware of the unilateral red eye—think beyond bacterial or allergic conjunctivitis. It is rarely conjunctivitis and may be a corneal ulcer, keratitis, foreign body, trauma, uveitis or acute glaucoma
The red and tender eye
2547
Keratitis (inflammation of the cornea) is one of the most common causes of an uncomfortable red eye. Apart from the well-known viral causes (herpes simplex, herpes zoster, adenovirus and measles), it can be caused by fungal infection (usually on a damaged cornea), bacterial infection, protozoal infection or inflammatory disorder such as ankylosing spondylitis
The red and tender eye
2548
Herpes simplex keratitis (dendritic ulcer) often presents painlessly, as the Page 483 neurotrophic effect grossly diminishes sensation.
The red and tender eye
2549
``` The five essentials of the history are: history of trauma (including wood/metalwork—foreign body) vision the degree and type of discomfort presence of discharge presence of photophobia ```
The red and tender eye
2550
The social and occupational history is also very important. This includes a history of exposure to a ‘red eye’ at school, work or home; incidents at work such as injury, welding, foreign bodies or chemicals; and genitourinary symptoms.
The red and tender eye
2551
When examining the unilateral red eye, keep the following diagnoses in mind: trauma foreign body, including intra-ocular (IOFB) corneal ulcer iritis (uveitis) viral conjunctivitis (commonest type) acute glaucoma
The red and tender eye
2552
The manner of onset of the irritation often gives an indication of the cause. Conjunctivitis or uveitis generally has a gradual onset of redness, while a small foreign body will produce a very rapid hyperaemia. Photophobia occurs usually with uveitis and keratitis. It is vital to elicit careful information about visual acuity. The wearing of contact lenses is important as these are prone to cause infection or the ‘overwear syndrome’, which resembles an acute ultraviolet (UV) burn.
The red and tender eye
2553
``` The key eye symptoms The key eye symptoms are: itch irritation pain (with pus or watering) loss of vision (red or white eye) red = front of eye white = back of eye ```
The red and tender eye
2554
``` Loss of vision in the red eye Consider: iritis (uveitis) scleritis acute glaucoma (pain; nausea and vomiting) chemical burns ```
The red and tender eye
2555
``` Severe ocular pain Severe orbital pain Reduction ophthalmic or loss of vision Diplopia Dilated pupil Abnormal corneal signs Globe displacement Endophthalmitis Microbial keratitis ± contact lens use ```
Red eye red flags (urgent ophthalmic referral)
2556
``` The painful red eye Causes to consider: foreign body keratitis uveitis (iritis) episcleritis scleritis acute glaucoma hypopyon (pus in the anterior chamber) endophthalmitis (inflammation of internal structures—may follow surgery) corneal abrasion/ulceration Pain with discharge: keratitis ```
The red and tender eye
2557
Pain with photophobia: uveitis episcleritis
The red and tender eye
2558
Examination The basic equipment: eye testing charts at 45 cm (18 in) and 300 cm (10 ft) multiple pinholes torch (and Cobalt blue or ultraviolet light) magnifying aid (e.g. binocular loupe) glass rod or cotton bud to aid eyelid eversion
The red and tender eye
2559
``` fluorescein sterile paper strips anaesthetic drops ophthalmoscope Ishihara colour vision test tonometer (if available, e.g. Schiotz) ```
The red and tender eye
2560
``` The four essentials of the examination are: testing and recording vision meticulous inspection under magnification testing the pupils testing ocular tension 4 Also: local anaesthetic test fluorescein staining subtarsal examination ```
The red and tender eye
2561
A thorough inspection is essential, noting the nature of the inflammatory injection, whether it is localised (episcleritis) or diffuse, viewing the iris for any irregularity, observing the cornea, and searching for foreign bodies, especially under the eyelids, and for any evidence of penetrating injury. No ocular examination is complete until the upper eyelid is everted and closely inspected. Both eyes must be examined since many patients presenting with conjunctivitis in one eye will have early signs of conjunctivitis in the other. Use fluorescein to help identify corneal ulceration. Local anaesthetic drops instilled prior to the examination of a painful lesion are recommended. The local anaesthetic test is a sensitive measure of a surface problem—if the pain is unrelieved a deeper problem must be suspected.
The red and tender eye
2562
Palpate for enlarged pre-auricular lymph nodes, which are characteristic of viral conjunctivitis. The nature of the injection is important. In conjunctivitis the vessels are clearly delineated and branch from the corners of the eye towards the cornea, since it involves mainly the tarsal plate. Episcleral and scleral vessels are larger than conjunctival vessels and are concentrated towards the cornea
The red and tender eye
2563
Ciliary injection appears as a red ring around the limbus of the cornea (the ciliary flush), and the individual vessels, which form a parallel arrangement, are not clearly visible. Ciliary injection may indicate a more serious deep-seated inflammatory condition such as anterior uveitis or a deep corneal infection. The presence of fine follicles on the tarsal conjunctivae indicates viral infection while a cobblestone appearance indicates allergic conjunctivitis.
The red and tender eye
2564
``` Investigations These include: Page 485 swab of discharge for micro and culture or for viral studies ESR/CRP imaging ```
The red and tender eye
2565
Children can suffer from the various types of conjunctivitis (commonly), uveitis and trauma. Of particular concern is orbital cellulitis, which may present as a unilateral swollen lid and can rapidly lead to blindness if untreated. Bacterial, viral and allergic conjunctivitis are common in all children. Conjunctivitis in infants is a serious disorder because of the immaturity of tissues and defence mechanisms. Serious corneal damage and blindness can result.
Red eye in children
2566
This is conjunctivitis in an infant less than 1 month old and is a notifiable disease. Chlamydial and gonococcal infections are uncommon but must be considered if a purulent discharge is found in the first few days of life. 3 In both conditions the parents must be investigated for associated venereal infection and treated accordingly (this includes contact tracing)
Neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)
2567
Chlamydia trachomatis accounts for 50% or more of cases. Its presentation in neonates is acute, usually 1–2 weeks after delivery, with moderate mucopurulent discharge. It is a systemic disease and may be associated with pneumonia. The diagnosis is confirmed by PCR tests on the conjunctival secretions.
Neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)
2568
Treatment is with azithromycin 20 mg/kg orally, daily for 3 days. Regular face washing and the treatment of all household contacts is recommended.
Neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)
2569
Neisseria gonorrhoeae conjunctivitis, which usually occurs within 1–2 days of delivery, requires vigorous treatment with intravenous cephalosporins or penicillin and local sulfacetamide drops. The discharge is highly infectious and the organism has the potential for severe corneal infection with perforation and blindness 7 or septicaemia.
Neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)
2570
Other common bacterial organisms can cause neonatal conjunctivitis, and herpes simplex virus type II can cause conjunctivitis and/or eyelid vesicles or keratitis.
Neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)
2571
More than 6 million people worldwide have trachoma-caused blindness. Trachoma is a chronic chlamydial conjunctivitis that is prevalent in the Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander population, particularly in dry, remote regions. C. trachomatis is usually transmitted by human contact between children and parents and also by flies, especially where hygiene is inadequate. It is the most common cause of blindness in the world. Recurrent and untreated disease leads to lid scarring and inturned lashes (entropion) with corneal ulceration and visual loss. It is important to commence control of the infection in childhood.
Trachoma
2572
Treatment Prevention/community education Antibiotics—azithromycin Surgical correction (where relevant)
Trachoma
2573
Delayed development of the nasolacrimal duct occurs in about 6% of infants, 3 resulting in blocked lacrimal drainage; the lacrimal sac becomes infected, causing a persistent discharge from one or both eyes. In the majority of infants, spontaneous resolution of the problem occurs by the age of 6 months.
Blocked nasolacrimal duct
2574
Management Bathing with normal saline Frequent massage over the lacrimal sac Referral for probing of the lacrimal passage before 6 months if the discharge is profuse and irritating or between 6 and 12 months if the problem has not self-corrected (refer CHAPTER 84 ) Reserve topical antibiotics for true secondary infection (uncommon)
Blocked nasolacrimal duct
2575
Elderly people have an increased risk of acute glaucoma, uveitis and herpes zoster. Acute angle closure glaucoma should be considered in anyone over the age of 50 presenting with an acutely painful red eye. Eyelid conditions such as blepharitis, trichiasis, entropion and ectropion are more common in the elderly.
Red eye in the elderly
2576
Acute conjunctivitis is defined as an episode of conjunctival inflammation lasting less than 3 weeks. 2 The two major causes are infection (either bacterial or viral) and acute allergic or toxic reactions of the conjunctiva
Acute conjunctivitis
2577
Be cautious of loss of vision, pain or photophobia—refer if appropriate.
The red and tender eye
2578
Clinical features Diffuse hyperaemia of tarsal or bulbar conjunctivae Absence of ocular pain, good vision, clear cornea Infectious conjunctivitis is usually bilateral (especially after the first day) with a discharge, and a gritty or sandy sensation
Acute conjunctivitis
2579
Bacterial infection may be primary, secondary to a viral infection or secondary to blepharitis. History Purulent discharge with sticking together of eyelashes in the morning is typical. It usually starts in one eye and spreads to the other. There may be a history of contact with a person with similar symptoms. The organisms are usually picked up from contaminated fingers, face cloths or towels.
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2580
Clinical features Gritty red eye Purulent discharge, usually without lymphadenopathy Clear cornea
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2581
There is usually a bilateral mucopurulent discharge with uniform engorgement of all the conjunctival blood vessels and a non-specific papillary response (see FIG. 40.2 ). Fluorescein staining is negative.
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2582
``` Causative organisms These include: Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes N. gonorrhoeae (a hyperacute onset) Pseudomonas aeruginosa ```
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2583
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but a swab should be taken for smear and culture with: 2 hyperacute or severe purulent conjunctivitis prolonged infection neonates
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2584
Management 3 Limit the spread by avoiding close contact with others, use of separate towels and good ocular hygiene. Clear away debris and mucus with saline solution before topical treatment. Exclude serious causes and a foreign body.
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2585
Mild cases Mild cases may resolve with saline irrigation of the eyelids and conjunctiva but may last up to 14 days if untreated. 8 An antiseptic eye drop such as propamidine isethionate 0.1% (Brolene) 1–2 drops, 6–8 hourly for 5–7 days can be used. Cooled black tea is reportedly widely used in Middle Eastern countries with good effect.
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2586
More severe cases Chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops, 1–2 drops 2 hourly for 24 hours, 1 decrease to 4 times a day for another 7 days (max. 10 days—cases of aplastic anaemia have been reported with long-term use). Also use chloramphenicol 1% eye ointment each night or, alternatively, framycetin 0.5% eye drops, 1–2 drops every 1–2 hours for the first 24 hours, decreasing to 8 hourly until discharge resolves for up to 7 days. Note: Never pad a discharging eye.
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2587
Brick-red eye—think of chlamydia
The red and tender eye
2588
Specific organisms Pseudomonas and other coliforms: use topical gentamicin and tobramycin. Chloromycetin ineffective. N. gonorrhoeae: use appropriate systemic antibiotics depending on sensitivity (use Gram stain culture and PCR). Use ceftriaxone or cefotaxime 1 g IM or IV as a single dose (adults). 3 Chlamydia trachomatis—may be sexually transmitted (a full STI screen is advisable). Differs from trachoma-causing strains. Shows a brick-red follicular conjunctivitis with a stringy mucus discharge. Treatment is with azithromycin.
Bacterial conjunctivitis
2589
The most common cause of this very contagious condition is adenovirus. History Page 488 It is commonly associated with URTIs and is the type of conjunctivitis that occurs in epidemics (pink eye). 1 The conjunctivitis usually has a 2–3 week course; it is initially one-sided but with cross-infection occurring days later in the other eye. It can be a severe problem with a very irritable, watering eye.
Viral conjunctivitis
2590
The examination should be conducted with gloves. It is usually bilateral with diffuse conjunctival infection and productive of a scant watery discharge. Viral infections typically but not always produce a follicular response in the conjunctivae (tiny, pale lymphoid follicles) and an associated pre-auricular lymph node (see FIG. 40.3 ). Subconjunctival haemorrhages may occur with adenovirus infection. High magnification, ideally a slit lamp, may be necessary to visualise some of the changes, such as small corneal opacities, follicles and keratitis.
Viral conjunctivitis
2591
Diagnosis is based on clinical grounds and a history of infected contacts. Viral culture and serology can be performed to identify epidemics.
Viral conjunctivitis
2592
Treatment Limit cross-infection by appropriate rules of hygiene and patient education. Treatment is symptomatic—cool compress or saline bathing, possibly with topical lubricants (artificial tear preparations) or vasoconstrictors (e.g. phenylephrine). Do not pad; avoid bright light. Watch for secondary bacterial infection. Avoid corticosteroids, which reduce viral shedding and prolong the problem.
Viral conjunctivitis
2593
This viral infection produces follicular conjunctivitis. About 50% of patients have associated lid or corneal ulcers/vesicles, which are diagnostic. 2 Dendritic ulceration highlighted by fluorescein staining is diagnostic (see FIG. 40.4 ). Antigen detection or culture may allow confirmation.
Primary herpes simplex infection
2594
Treatment (herpes simplex keratitis) Attend to eye hygiene Aciclovir 3% ointment, five times a day for 14 days or for at least 3 days after healing 3 Atropine 1% 1 drop, 12 hourly, for the duration of treatment will prevent reflex spasm of the pupil (specialist supervision) Debridement by an ophthalmologist Never use corticosteroids, and refer all new cases early to an ophthalmologist.
Primary herpes simplex infection
2595
Chlamydial conjunctivitis is encountered in three common situations: neonatal infection (first 1–2 weeks) young patient with associated venereal infection isolated Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people with trachoma
Chlamydial conjunctivitis
2596
Take swabs for culture and PCR testing. Systemic antibiotic treatment: 8 neonates: azithromycin 20 mg/kg orally, daily for 3 days 3 children over 6 kg and adults: azithromycin 1 g (o) as single dose Note: Treat contacts in cases of STI.
Chlamydial conjunctivitis
2597
Allergic conjunctivitis results from a local response to an allergen. It includes: vernal (hay fever) conjunctivitis contact hypersensitivity reactions, e.g. reaction to preservatives in drops
Allergic conjunctivitis
2598
This is usually seasonal and related to pollen exposure, particularly in younger people. There is usually associated rhinitis
Vernal (hay fever) conjunctivitis
2599
Treatment 3 Tailor treatment to the degree of symptoms. Artificial tear preparations may give adequate symptomatic relief. Oral antihistamines may be required but topical measures usually suffice. Eye drop options: 1. Medications with both antihistamine and mast cell stabilising properties ketotifen or olopatadine twice daily, or azelastine 2–4 times daily
Vernal (hay fever) conjunctivitis
2600
Mast cell stabilisers cromoglycate or lodoxamide 4 times daily 3. Antihistamines levocabastine 2–3 times daily 4. Topical corticosteroids (severe cases, should refer) Avoid vasoconstrictors (e.g. naphazoline, tetryzoline).
Vernal (hay fever) conjunctivitis
2601
Common topical allergens and toxins include topical ophthalmic medications, especially Page 489 antibiotics, contact lens solutions (often the contained preservative) and a wide range of cosmetics, soaps, detergents and chemicals. Clinical features include burning, itching and watering with hyperaemia and oedema of the conjunctiva and eyelids. A skin reaction of the lids usually occurs.
Contact hypersensitivity
2602
``` Treatment Withdraw the causative agent. Apply normal saline compresses. Treat with naphazoline or phenylephrine. If not responding, refer for possible corticosteroid therapy. ```
Contact hypersensitivity
2603
which appears spontaneously, is a beefy red localised haemorrhage with a definite posterior margin (see FIG. 40.5 ). If it follows trauma and extends backwards, it may indicate an orbital fracture. It is usually caused by a sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure such as coughing and sneezing. It is not related to hypertension but it is worthwhile measuring the blood pressure to help reassure the patient.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
2604
Management No local therapy is necessary. The haemorrhage absorbs over 2 weeks. Patient explanation and reassurance is necessary (‘a highly visible minor bruise’). If haemorrhages are recurrent, a bleeding tendency should be excluded.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
2605
present as a localised area of inflammation (see FIGS 40.1 and 40.6 ). The episclera is a vascular layer that lies just beneath the conjunctiva and adjacent to the sclera. Both may become inflamed, but episcleritis (which is more localised) is essentially self-limiting, while scleritis (which is rare) is more serious as the eye may perforate.
Episcleritis and scleritis
2606
Both conditions may be confused with inflammation associated with a foreign body, pterygium or pinguecula. There are no significant associations with episcleritis, which is usually idiopathic, but scleritis may be associated with connective tissue disease, especially rheumatoid arthritis and herpes zoster and rarely sarcoidosis and tuberculosis.
Episcleritis and scleritis
2607
``` Clinical features Episcleritis: no discharge no watering vision normal (usually) often sectorial usually self-limiting Treat with topical or oral steroids. ```
Episcleritis and scleritis
2608
Scleritis: painful loss of vision urgent referral
Episcleritis and scleritis
2609
An underlying cause such as an autoimmune condition should be identified. Refer the patient, especially for scleritis. Corticosteroids or NSAIDs may be prescribed.
Episcleritis and scleritis
2610
The iris, ciliary body and the choroid form the uveal tract, which is the vascular coat of the eyeball.
Uveitis (iritis)
2611
Anterior uveitis (acute iritis or iridocyclitis) is inflammation of the iris and ciliary body and this is usually referred to as acute iritis (see FIG. 40.7 ). The iris is sticky and sticks to the lens. The pupil may become small because of adhesions, and the vision is blurred.
Uveitis (iritis)
2612
Causes include autoimmune-related diseases such as the seronegative arthropathies (e.g. ankylosing spondylitis), SLE, IBD, sarcoidosis and some infections (e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis).
Uveitis (iritis)
2613
``` Clinical features Eye redness, esp. around the edge of the iris Eye discomfort or pain Increased tearing Blurred vision Sensitivity to light Floaters in the field of vision Small pupil ```
Uveitis (iritis)
2614
The examination findings are summarised in TABLE 40.2 . The affected eye is red, with the infection being particularly pronounced over the area covering the inflamed ciliary body (ciliary flush). However, the whole bulbar conjunctivae can be infected. The patient should be referred to a consultant. Slit lamp examination aids diagnosis.
Uveitis (iritis)
2615
Management involves finding the underlying cause. Treatment includes pupil dilatation with atropine drops and topical steroids to suppress inflammation. Systemic corticosteroids may be Page 491 necessary. The prognosis of anterior uveitis is good if treatment and follow-up are maintained, but recurrence is likely.
Uveitis (iritis)
2616
``` Posterior uveitis (choroiditis) may involve the retina and vitreous membrane. Blurred vision and floating opacities in the visual field may be the only symptoms. Pain is not a feature. Referral to detect the causation and for treatment is essential. ```
Uveitis (iritis)
2617
should always be considered in a patient over 50 years presenting with an acutely painful red eye. Permanent damage will result from misdiagnosis. The attack characteristically strikes in the evening or early morning when the pupil becomes semidilated.
Acute glaucoma
2618
``` Clinical features Patient >50 years Pain in one eye ± Nausea and vomiting Impaired vision Haloes around lights Hazy cornea Fixed semidilated pupil Eye feels hard ```
Acute glaucoma
2619
Management Urgent ophthalmic referral is essential since emergency treatment is necessary to preserve the eyesight. If immediate specialist attention is unavailable, treatment can be initiated with acetazolamide (Diamox) 500 mg IV and pilocarpine 4% drops to constrict the pupil or pressurelowering drops.
Acute glaucoma
2620
Dry eyes are a common problem, especially in elderly women. Lack of lacrimal secretion can be functional (e.g. ageing), or due to systemic disease (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, Sjögren syndrome), drugs (e.g. β-blockers) or other factors, including menopause. Up to 50% of patients with severe dry eye have Sjögren syndrome.
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
2621
Clinical features A variety of symptoms Dryness, grittiness, stinging and redness Sensation of foreign body (e.g. sand) Photophobia if severe Slit light examination diagnostic with special stains
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
2622
Treatment Treat the cause. Bathe eyes with clean water. Use artificial tears: hypromellose (e.g. Tears Naturale), polyvinyl alcohol (e.g. Tears Plus). Be cautious of adverse topical reactions. Refer severe cases.
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
2623
There are several inflammatory disorders of the eyelid and lacrimal system that present as a ‘red and tender’ eye without involving the conjunctiva. Any suspicious lesion should be referred.
Eyelid and lacrimal disorders
2624
is an acute abscess of a lash follicle or associated glands of the anterior lid margin, caused usually by S. aureus. The patient complains of a red tender swelling of the lid margin, usually on the medial side (see FIG. 40.8 ). A stye may be confused with a chalazion, orbital cellulitis or dacryocystitis.
Stye (external hordeolum)
2625
Management Use heat to help it ‘point’ and discharge by using direct steam from a thermos (see FIG. 40.9 ) onto the enclosed eye or by hot-water compresses. If fluctuant and pointing, perform lash epilation to allow drainage of pus (incise with a size 11 blade if epilation does not work). Squeezing is discouraged. Do not use antibiotics (topical or oral) unless secondary spread (cellulitis).
Stye (external hordeolum)
2626
Also known as an internal hordeolum, this granuloma of the meibomian gland in the eyelid may become inflamed and present as a tender irritating lump in the lid. Look for evidence of blepharitis. Differential diagnoses include sebaceous gland carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma
Chalazion (meibomian cyst)
2627
Management Conservative treatment may result in resolution. This involves heat either as steam from a thermos or by applying a hot compress (a hand towel soaked in hot water) followed by light massage. If the chalazion is very large, persistent or uncomfortable, or is affecting vision, it can be incised and curetted under local anaesthesia. This is best performed through the inner conjunctival surface using a chalazion clamp (blepharostat)
Chalazion (meibomian cyst)
2628
Meibomianitis is usually a staphylococcal micro-abscess of the gland, and oral antistaphylococcal antibiotics (not topical) are recommended (e.g. di/flucloxacillin 500 mg (o) 6 hourly for adults). Surgical incision and curettage may also be necessary.
Chalazion (meibomian cyst)
2629
This common chronic condition of the eyelids may involve inflammation of the lid margins (anterior blepharitis) which is commonly associated with secondary ocular effects such as styes, chalazia and conjunctival or corneal ulceration (see FIG. 40.11 ).
Blepharitis
2630
Posterior blepharitis, which involves abnormalities of the submucus meibomian glands at the rim of the eyelids, is frequently associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis (especially) and atopic dermatitis, and less so with rosacea. 8 There is a tendency to colonisation of the lid margin with S. aureus, which causes an ulcerative infection. May have lash loss and trichiasis if chronic.
Blepharitis
2631
The two types are: anterior blepharitis—staphylococcal posterior blepharitis—seborrhoeic (mainly) and rosacea
Blepharitis
2632
Clinical features 9 Persistent sore eyes or eyelids Irritation, grittiness, burning, dryness and ‘something in the eye’ sensation, worse in mornings Lid or conjunctival swelling and redness Crusts or scales around the base of the eyelids Discharge or stickiness, especially in morning Inflammation and crusting of the lid margins
Blepharitis
2633
Management Anterior blepharitis Eyelid hygiene is the mainstay of therapy. The crusts and other debris should be gently cleaned with a cotton wool bud dipped in a 1:10 dilution of baby shampoo or a solution of sodium bicarbonate, once or twice daily. Application of a warm water compress or saline soak with gauze for 5 minutes is also effective. Proprietary lid solutions or wipes can also be used. If not controlled, apply chloromycetin 1% ointment once or twice daily for up to 4 weeks and review. Refer resistant cases.
Blepharitis
2634
Posterior blepharitis Follow the same hygiene methods as above but with firm eye massage in a circular motion towards the lid margins to closed eyes, for 5–10 minutes twice a day. Ocular lubricants such as artificial tear preparations may greatly relieve symptoms of keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes). Control scalp seborrhoea with regular medicated shampoos.
Blepharitis
2635
If persistent, short-term use of a mild topical corticosteroid ointment (e.g. hydrocortisone 0.5%) can be effective. Treat infection with an antibiotic ointment smeared on the lid margin (this may be necessary Page 493 for several months) (e.g. tetracycline hydrochloride 1% or framycetin 0.5% or chloramphenicol 1% ointment to lid margins 3–6 hourly).
Blepharitis
2636
If not controlled by topical measures, use systemic antibiotics such as doxycycline 50 mg daily for at least 8 weeks (erythromycin for children <8 years), or flucloxacillin may be required for lid abscess. Avoid wearing make-up and contact lenses if inflammation is present.
Blepharitis
2637
is infection of the lacrimal drainage system secondary to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct at the junction of the lacrimal sac (see FIG. 40.12 ). Inflammation is localised over the medial canthus. There is usually a history of a watery eye for months beforehand. The problem may vary from being mild (as in infants) to severe with abscess formation.
Acute dacryocystitis
2638
Management Use local heat: steam or a hot moist compress. Use analgesics. In mild cases, massage the sac and duct with warm compresses, and instil astringent drops (e.g. zinc sulphate + phenylephrine) or chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops if inflammation.
Acute dacryocystitis
2639
For acute cases, systemic antibiotics are best guided by results of Gram stain and culture but initially use di/flucloxacillin or cephalexin. Measures to establish drainage are required eventually. Recurrent attacks or symptomatic watering of the eye are indications for surgery such as dacryocystorhinostomy
Acute dacryocystitis
2640
is infection of the lacrimal gland presenting as a tender swelling on the outer upper margin of the eyelid. It may be acute or chronic and has many causes. It is usually caused by a viral infection (e.g. mumps), which is treated conservatively with warm compresses. Bacterial infection is treated with appropriate antibiotics.
Dacryoadenitis
2641
includes two basic types—peri-orbital (or preseptal), which is soft tissue infection of the eyelids, and orbital (or postseptal) cellulitis
Orbital cellulitis
2642
The latter, which arises from infection of the paranasal sinus, dental abscess or orbital trauma, is a potentially blinding and life-threatening condition. It is especially important in children in whom blindness may develop in hours. The patient, often a child, presents with unilateral swollen eyelids that may be red. Ask about a history of sinusitis, peri-ocular trauma, surgery, bites and immunocompromise issues.
Orbital cellulitis
2643
``` Features to look for in orbital cellulitis include: 6 a systemically unwell patient proptosis peri-ocular swelling and erythema tenderness over the sinuses ocular nerve compromise (reduced vision, impaired colour vision or abnormal pupils) restricted and painful eye movements ```
Orbital cellulitis
2644
In peri-orbital cellulitis, which usually follows an abrasion, there is no pain or restriction of eye movement
Orbital cellulitis
2645
Immediate referral to hospital for specialist treatment is essential for both types. Treatment is usually with IV cefotaxime until afebrile, then amoxicillin/clavulanate for 7–10 days for periorbital cellulitis and for orbital cellulitis, IV cefotaxime + flucloxacillin together followed by amoxicillin/clavulanate (o) 10 days.
Orbital cellulitis
2646
(shingles) affects the skin supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. The eye may be affected if the nasociliary branch is involved. The rash usually appears on the tip of the nose. Ocular problems include conjunctivitis, uveitis, keratitis and glaucoma.
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
2647
Immediate referral is necessary if the eye is red, vision is blurred or the cornea cannot be examined. Apart from general eye hygiene, treatment usually includes one of the oral antiherpes virus agents such as oral aciclovir 800 mg, five times daily for 10 days or (if sight is threatened) aciclovir 10 mg/kg IV slowly 8 hourly for 10 days (provided this is commenced within 3 days of the rash appearing) 5,8 and topical aciclovir ointment 4 hourly
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
2648
Pinguecula is a yellowish elevated nodular growth on either side of the cornea in the area of the palpebral fissure. It is common in people over 35 years. The growth tends to remain static but Table 40.3 can become inflamed—pingueculitis
Pinguecula and pterygium10
2649
Usually no treatment is necessary unless they are large, craggy and uncomfortable, when excision is indicated. If irritating, topical astringent drops such as naphazoline compound drops (e.g. Albalon) can give relief.
Pinguecula and pterygium
2650
Pterygium is a fleshy overgrowth of the conjunctiva onto the nasal side of the cornea and usually occurs in adults living in dry, dusty, windy areas. Excision of a pterygium by a specialist is indicated if it is likely to interfere with vision by encroaching on the visual axis, or if it becomes red and uncomfortable or disfiguring.
Pinguecula and pterygium
2651
Patients with corneal conditions typically suffer from ocular pain or discomfort and reduced vision. The common condition of dry eye may involve the cornea while contact lens disorders, abrasions/ulcers and infection are common serious problems that threaten eyesight.
Corneal disorders
2652
Inflammation of the cornea—keratitis—is caused by factors such as UV light, e.g. ‘arc eye’, herpes simplex, herpes zoster ophthalmicus and the dangerous microbial keratitis. Bacterial keratitis is an ophthalmological emergency that should be considered in the contact lens wearer presenting with pain and reduced vision.
Corneal disorders
2653
Topical corticosteroids should be avoided in the undiagnosed red eye.
Corneal disorders
2654
There are many causes of abrasions, particularly trauma from a foreign body embedded on the corneal surface or ‘cul-de-sac’ FB, contact lenses, fingernails including ‘french nails’, and UV burns. The abrasion may be associated with an ulcer, which is a defect in the epithelial cell layer of the cornea.
Corneal abrasion and ulceration
2655
Trauma Contact lens wear/injury Infection—microbial keratitis: bacterial (e.g. Pseudomonas [contact lens]) viral (e.g. herpes simplex [dendritic ulcer], herpes zoster ophthalmicus) fungal protozoal (e.g. Acanthamoeba) Neurotrophic (e.g. trigeminal nerve defect) Immune-related (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis) Spontaneous corneal erosion Chronic blepharitis Overexposure (e.g. eyelid defects)
Corneal ulceration: common causes
2656
``` Symptoms Ocular pain Foreign body sensation Watering of the eye (epiphora) Blepharospasm Blurred vision Diagnosis is best performed using fluorescein staining, ideally with a slit lamp and a cobalt blue filter, or use an ultraviolet light (small LED UV lights can replace the traditional Wood’s lamp). ```
Corneal abrasion and ulceration
2657
``` Management (corneal ulcer) Stain with fluorescein. Check for a foreign body. Treat with chloramphenicol 1% ointment qid ± homatropine 2% (if pain due to ciliary spasm). Double eye pad (if not infected). Review in 24 hours. A 6 mm defect heals in 48 hours. Consider early specialist referral. ```
Corneal abrasion and ulceration
2658
Punctate keratopathy presents as scattered small lesions on the cornea that stain with fluorescein if they are deep enough. It is a non-specific finding and may be associated with blepharitis, viral conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis sicca (dry eyes), UV light exposure (e.g. welding lamps, sunlamps), contact lenses and topical ocular agents. Management involves treating the cause and careful follow-up.
Superficial punctate keratitis
2659
Think corneal abrasion if the eye is ‘watering’ and painful (e.g. caused by a large insect such as a grasshopper or other foreign body).
Practice tips
2660
If a slit lamp is unavailable, the direct ophthalmoscope and a magnifying loupe can be used to view the cornea, but the standard blue light does not cause fluorescence; use a UV light instead.
Practice tips
2661
This is responsible for at least 1.5 million new cases of blindness every year in the developing world and for significant morbidity in developed countries. It is a sight-threatening emergency.
Microbial keratitis
2662
``` Risk factors Contact lens wear Corneal trauma, especially agriculture trauma Corneal surgery Postherpetic corneal lesion Dry eye Corneal anaesthetic Corneal exposure (e.g. VII nerve lesion) Ocular surface disease, including ulceration ```
Microbial keratitis
2663
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common causative organism in contact lens wearers. Acanthamoeba is associated with bathing or washing in contaminated water. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist or eye clinic is needed to avoid rapid corneal destruction with perforation, especially with bacterial keratitis. An appropriate ‘covering’ topical antibiotic is ciprofloxacin 0.3% or ofloxacin 0.3% eye drops.
Microbial keratitis
2664
Because a contact lens is a foreign body, various complications can develop and a history of the use of contact lenses is important in the management of a red eye.
Problems with contact lenses
2665
Infection Infection is more likely to occur with soft rather than hard lenses. They should not be worn when sleeping since this increases the risk of infection 10-fold. 12 One cause is Acanthamoeba keratitis acquired from contaminated water that may be used for cleaning the lenses.
Problems with contact lenses
2666
Hard lens trauma This may cause corneal abrasions with irreversible endothelial changes or ptosis, especially with the older polymethyl-methacrylate-based lenses. Recommend patient should change to modern gas-permeable hard lenses.
Problems with contact lenses
2667
Lost lenses Patients should be reassured that lenses cannot go behind the eye. The edge of the lens can usually be seen by everting the upper lid.
Problems with contact lenses
2668
Preventive measures 13 Wash hands before handling lenses. Do not use tap water or saline. Clean lenses with disinfecting solution. Store overnight in a clean airtight case with fresh disinfectant. Change the lens container solution daily. Discard disposable lenses after 2 weeks. Do not wear lenses while sleeping. Do not wear lenses while swimming in lakes, rivers or swimming pools. Refer to an ophthalmologist if a painful red eye develops, especially if a discharge is present
Problems with contact lenses
2669
A common problem, usually presenting at night, is bilateral painful eyes caused by UV ‘flash burns’ to both corneas some 5–10 hours previously. The mechanism of injury is UV rays from a welding machine causing superficial punctate keratitis. Other sources of UV light such as sunlamps and snow reflection can cause a reaction
Flash burns
2670
Management Local anaesthetic (long-acting) drops: once-only application (do not allow the patient to take home more drops). Instil homatropine 2% drops statim or other short-acting ocular dilating agent (be careful of glaucoma) or plain tear lubricants. Use analgesics (e.g. codeine plus paracetamol) for 24 hours.
Flash burns
2671
If severe, use chloramphenicol eye ointment in lower fornix (to prevent infection). Use firm eye padding for 24 hours, when eyes reviewed (avoid light). The eye usually heals completely in 48 hours. If not, check for a foreign body. Note: Contact lens ‘overwear syndrome’ gives the same symptoms.
Flash burns
2672
Such a fistula produces conjunctival hyperaemia but no inflammation or discharge. The lesion causes raised orbital venous pressure. The fistula may be secondary to head injuries or may arise spontaneously, particularly in postmenopausal women. It needs radiological investigation.
Cavernous sinus arteriovenous fistula
2673
The classic symptom is a ‘whooshing’ sound synchronous with the pulse behind the eye, and the sign is a bruit audible with the stethoscope placed over the orbit.
Cavernous sinus arteriovenous fistula
2674
These require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Do not remove any foreign body. Consider: imaging: X-ray or CT scan tetanus prophylaxis transport by land (i.e. full atmospheric pressure) injection of anti-emetic (e.g. metoclopramide)
Penetrating eye injuries
2675
Use no ointment or eye drops, including local anaesthetic. If significant delay is involved, give one dose (in adults) of: 8 gentamicin 1.5 mg/kg IV plus cefotaxime 1 g or ceftriaxone 1 g IV (can give ceftriaxone IM but with lignocaine 1%) or vancomycin IV + oral ciprofloxacin
Penetrating eye injuries
2676
a common blunt sporting injury, bleeding from the iris collects in the anterior chamber of the eye (see FIG. 40.15 ). The danger is that, with exertion, a secondary bleed from the ruptured vessel could fill the anterior chamber with blood, blocking the escape of aqueous humour and causing a severe secondary glaucoma. Loss of the eye can occur with a severe haemorrhage. It is likely to happen 2–4 days after the injury.
Hyphaema
2677
Management First, exclude a penetrating injury. Avoid unnecessary movement: vibration will aggravate bleeding. (For this reason, do not use a helicopter if evacuation is necessary.) Avoid smoking and drinking alcohol. Do not give aspirin (can induce bleeding).
Hyphaema
2678
Prescribe complete bed rest for 5 days and review the patient daily. Apply padding over the injured eye for 4 days. Administer sedatives as required. Beware of ‘floaters’, ‘flashes’ and field defects. Arrange ophthalmic consultation after 1 month to exclude glaucoma and retinal detachment. No sport before this time
Hyphaema
2679
This is an intra-ocular bacterial infection that may complicate any penetrating injury, including intra-ocular surgery. It should be considered in patients with such a history presenting with a red painful eye. Pus may be seen in the anterior chamber (hypopyon).
Endophthalmitis
2680
Urgent referral is mandatory. If significant delay, use ciprofloxacin (o) + vancomycin or gentamicin IV as single doses.
Endophthalmitis
2681
This has many causes and is more common in older people. The main causes are drainage obstruction and excessive tear production, which includes physical and chemical irritants, blepharitis and entropion. Management depends on the person’s age. Remove any mucoid discharge and massage the nasolacrimal sac.
Epiphora (watering eyes)
2682
Antibiotics are indicated only for conjunctivitis, blepharitis or dacryocystitis. Probing of the ducts or even surgery may be required.
Epiphora (watering eyes)
2683
Uncertainty about the diagnosis Uveitis, acute glaucoma, episcleritis/scleritis or corneal ulceration Deep central corneal and intra-ocular foreign bodies
When to refer
2684
Prolonged infections, with a poor or absent response to treatment or where therapy may be complicating management Infections or severe allergies with possible ocular complications Sudden swelling of an eyelid in a child with evidence of infection suggestive of orbital cellulitis—this is an emergency
When to refer
2685
``` Emergency referral is also necessary for hyphaema, hypopyon, penetrating eye injury, acute glaucoma, severe chemical burn Herpes zoster ophthalmicus: if the external nose is involved then the internal eye may be involved Summary for urgent referral: trauma (significant)/penetrating injury hyphaema >3 mm corneal ulcer severe conjunctivitis ```
When to refer
2686
``` uveitis/acute iritis Behçet syndrome acute glaucoma giant cell arteritis orbital cellulitis (pre- and post-) ```
When to refer
2687
``` acute dacryocystitis keratitis episcleritis/scleritis endophthalmitis herpes zoster ophthalmicus Note: As a general rule never use corticosteroids or atropine in the eye before referral to an ophthalmologist. ```
When to refer
2688
Avoid long-term use of any medication, especially antibiotics (e.g. chloramphenicol: course for a maximum of 10 days). 2 Note: Beware of allergy or toxicity to topical medications, especially antibiotics, as a cause of persistent symptoms.
Practice tips
2689
As a general rule, avoid using topical corticosteroids or combined corticosteroid/antibiotic preparations. Never use corticosteroids in the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
Practice tips
2690
To achieve effective results from eye ointment or drops, remove debris such as mucopurulent exudate with bacterial conjunctivitis or blepharitis by using a warm solution of saline (dissolve a teaspoon of kitchen salt in 500 mL of boiled water) to bathe away any discharge from conjunctiva, eyelashes and lids. A gritty sensation is common in conjunctivitis but the presence of a foreign body must be excluded. 6 Beware of the contact lens ‘overwear syndrome’, which is treated in a similar way to flash burns.
Practice tips
2691
Always test and record vision Beware of the unilateral red eye Conjunctivitis is almost always bilateral Irritated eyes are often dry Never use steroids if herpes simplex is suspected
Red eye golden rules
2692
Never use steroids if herpes simplex is suspected A penetrating eye injury is an emergency Consider an intra-ocular foreign body Beware of herpes zoster ophthalmicus if the nose is involved
Red eye golden rules
2693
Irregular pupils: think iritis, injury and surgery Never pad a discharging eye Refer patients with eyelid ulcers If there is a corneal abrasion look for a foreign body
Red eye golden rules
2694
When someone complains of pain in the face rather than the head, the physician has to consider foremost the possibilities of dental disorders, sinus disease, especially of the maxillary sinuses, temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction, eye disorders, lesions of the oropharynx or posterior third of the tongue, trigeminal neuralgia and chronic paroxysmal hemicrania.
Pain in the face
2695
The key to the diagnosis is the clinical examination because even the most sophisticated investigation may provide no additional information. A basic list of causes of facial pain is presented in TABLE 41.1 . 1 The causes can vary from the simple, such as aphthous ulcers, herpes simplex and dental caries, to serious causes, such as carcinoma of the tongue, sinuses and nasopharynx or osteomyelitis of the mandible or maxilla.
Pain in the face
2696
``` Positive physical signs Cervical spinal dysfunction Dental pathology Erysipelas Eye disorders Herpes zoster Nasopharyngeal cancer Oropharyngeal disorders: ulceration (aphthous, infective, traumatic, others) cancer gingivitis/stomatitis ```
Diagnoses to consider in orofacial pain
2697
``` tonsillitis erosive lichen planus Paranasal sinus disorders Parotid gland: mumps sialectasis cancer pleomorphic adenoma TMJ dysfunction Temporal arteritis ```
Diagnoses to consider in orofacial pain
2698
``` Absent physical signs Atypical facial pain Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania Depression-associated facial pain Facial migraine (lower half headache) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia Migrainous neuralgia (cluster headache) Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) ```
Diagnoses to consider in orofacial pain
2699
Dental disorders are the commonest cause of facial pain, accounting for up to 90% of pain in and about the face. 2 The most common dental disorders are dental caries and periodontal diseases.
orofacial pain
2700
Dental pain is invariably localised to the dental region of the face. The mean age of onset of trigeminal neuralgia is 50 years
orofacial pain
2701
There is a similarity in the ‘occult’ causes of pain in the ear and in the face (refer to FIGS 39.4 and 39.5 ). Sinusitis occurs mainly as part of a generalised upper respiratory infection. Swimming is another common predisposing factor. Dental root infection must be sought in all cases of maxillary sinusitis.
orofacial pain
2702
``` Probability diagnosis Dental pain: caries periapical abscess fractured tooth Maxillary/frontal sinusitis TMJ dysfunction ```
orofacial pain
2703
``` Serious disorders not to be missed Cardiovascular: myocardial ischaemia aneurysm of cavernous sinus internal carotid aneurysm ischaemia of posterior inferior cerebellar artery Neoplasia: cancer: mouth, sinuses, nasopharynx, tonsils, tongue, larynx, salivary gland metastases: orbital, base of brain, bone Severe infections: herpes zoster erysipelas periapical abscess → osteomyelitis acute sinusitis → spreading infection Temporal arteritis ```
orofacial pain
2704
``` Pitfalls (often missed) TMJ dysfunction Migraine variants: facial migraine chronic paroxysmal hemicrania Atypical facial pain Eye disorders: glaucoma ```
orofacial pain
2705
``` iritis optic neuritis Chronic dental neuralgia (odontalgia) Salivary gland: infection, mumps, suppuration, calculus, obstruction, cancer Acute glaucoma (upper face) Cranial nerve neuralgias: trigeminal neuralgia glossopharyngeal neuralgia ```
orofacial pain
2706
Seven masquerades checklist Depression Spinal dysfunction (cervical spondylosis) Is the patient trying to tell me something? Quite probably. Atypical facial pain has underlying psychogenic elements.
orofacial pain
2707
The commonest cause of facial pain is dental disorders, especially dental caries. Another common cause is sinusitis, particularly maxillary sinusitis. TMJ dysfunction causing TMJ arthralgia is a very common problem encountered in general practice and it is important to have some simple basic strategies to give the patient.
orofacial pain
2708
Persistent pain: no obvious cause Unexplained weight loss Trigeminal neuralgia: possible serious cause Herpes zoster involving nose Person >60 years: consider temporal arteritis, malignancy
orofacial pain | Red flag pointers for pain in the face
2709
It is important not to overlook cancer of various structures, such as the mouth, sinuses, nasopharynx, tonsils, tongue, larynx and parotid gland, which can present with atypical chronic facial pain.
orofacial pain
2710
It is important therefore to inspect these areas, especially in the elderly, but lesions in the relatively inaccessible nasopharynx can be easily missed. Nasopharynx cancer spreads upwards to the base of the skull early and patients can present with multiple cranial nerve palsies before either pain or bloody nasal discharge.
orofacial pain
2711
Tumours may arise in the bones of the orbit, for example, lymphoma or secondary cancer, and may cause facial pain and proptosis. Similarly, any space-occupying lesion or malignancy arising from the region of the orbit or base of the brain can cause facial pain by involvement (often destruction) of trigeminal sensory fibres. This will lead to a depressed ipsilateral corneal reflex.
orofacial pain
2712
Also, aneurysms developing in the cavernous sinus 1 can cause pain via pressure on any of the divisions of the trigeminal nerve, while aneurysms from the internal carotid arising from the origin of the posterior communicating artery can cause pressure on the oculomotor nerve. Temporal arteritis typically causes pain over the temporal area but can cause ischaemic pain in the jaws when chewing.
orofacial pain
2713
Commonly overlooked causes of facial pain include TMJ arthralgia and dental disorders, especially of the teeth, which are tender to percussion, and oral ulceration. Diagnosing the uncommon migraine variants, particularly facial migraine and chronic paroxysmal hemicrania, often presents difficulties, including differentiating between the neuralgias. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia, which is rare, causes pain in the back of the throat, around the tonsils and adjacent fauces. The lightning quality of the pain of neuralgia gives the clue to diagnosis.
orofacial pain
2714
Common pitfalls Failing to refer unusual or undiagnosed causes of facial pain Overlooking infective dental causes, which can cause complications Failing to consider the possibility of malignant disease of ‘hidden’ structures in the older patient Unaware that facial pain never crosses the midline
orofacial pain
2715
Depressive illness can present with a variety of painful syndromes and facial pain is no exception. The features of depression may be apparent and thus antidepressants should be prescribed. Usually the facial pain and the depression subside concomitantly.
orofacial pain
2716
Apart from trauma, facial pain in children is almost invariably due to dental problems, rarely migraine variants and occasionally childhood infections such as mumps and gingivostomatitis. A serious problem sometimes seen in children is orbital cellulitis secondary to ethmoiditis.
Facial pain in children
2717
Sinusitis occurs in children, especially older children, and it should be suspected with persistent pain and bilateral mucopurulent rhinorrhoea (beyond 10 days).
Facial pain in children
2718
Many of the causes of facial pain have an increased incidence with age, in particular trigeminal neuralgia, herpes zoster, cancer, glaucoma, TMJ dysfunction, sialolithiasis and cervical spondylosis. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia does not seem to have a particular predilection for the elderly.
Facial pain in the elderly
2719
Xerostomia due to decreased secretions of salivary glands may cause abrasion with minor trauma. It may aggravate the pain of glossitis, which is common in the elderly.
Facial pain in the elderly
2720
This is a rapidly swelling cellulitis occurring in both the sublingual and submaxillary spaces without abscess formation, often arising from a root canal infection. It resembles an abscess and should be treated as one. It is potentially life-threatening as it can compromise the airway.
Ludwig angina
2721
``` Management Culture and sensitivity testing Specialist consultation Empirical treatment: amoxicillin 2 g IV, 6 hourly plus metronidazole 500 mg IV, 12 hourly ```
Ludwig angina
2722
Infection of the paranasal sinuses may cause localised pain. Localised tenderness and pain may be apparent with frontal or maxillary sinusitis. Sphenoidal or ethmoidal sinusitis causes a constant pain behind the eye or behind the nose, often accompanied by nasal blockage. Chronic infection of the sinuses may be extremely difficult to detect.
Pain from paranasal sinuses
2723
Chronic infection of the sinuses may be extremely difficult to detect. The commonest organisms are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis.
Pain from paranasal sinuses
2724
Expanding lesions of the sinuses, such as mucocoeles and tumours, cause local swelling and displace the contents of the orbit—upwards for maxillary, laterally for the ethmoids and downwards for the frontal.
Pain from paranasal sinuses
2725
The maxillary sinus is the one most commonly infected. 5 It is important to determine whether the sinusitis is caused by stasis following a URTI or acute rhinitis, or due to dental root infection. Most episodes are of viral origin, and in the first few days this is indistinguishable from bacterial infections.
Maxillary sinusitis
2726
``` Clinical features (acute sinusitis) Facial pain and tenderness (over sinuses) Toothache Headache Purulent postnasal drip Nasal discharge Nasal obstruction Rhinorrhoea Cough (worse at night) ```
Maxillary sinusitis
2727
Prolonged fever Epistaxis Suspect bacterial cause if high fever and purulent nasal discharge.
Maxillary sinusitis
2728
``` Vague facial pain Offensive postnasal drip Nasal obstruction Toothache Malaise Halitosis ```
Clinical features (chronic sinusitis)
2729
A simple way to assess the presence or absence of fluid in the frontal sinus, and in the maxillary sinus (in particular), is the use of transillumination. It works best when one symptomatic side can be compared with an asymptomatic side.
Diagnosing unilateral sinusitis
2730
It is necessary to have the patient in a darkened room and to use a small, narrow-beam torch. For the maxillary sinuses remove dentures (if any). Shine the light inside the mouth (with lips sealed, and torch hygienically covered e.g. plastic bag), on either side of the hard palate, pointed at the base of the orbit. A dull glow seen below the orbit indicates that the antrum is air-filled. Diminished illumination on the symptomatic side indicates sinusitis.
Diagnosing unilateral sinusitis
2731
In the first few days, viral and bacterial sinusitis are indistinguishable. A CT scan may show mucosal thickening without fluid levels. Plain films are not indicated.
Diagnosing unilateral sinusitis
2732
Principles Exclude dental root infection. Control predisposing factors. Consider antibiotic therapy, but remember it is a self-limiting condition that has equal outcomes at day 10 with or without antibiotics. 6 The ‘number needed to harm’ with antibiotic side effects is unfavourable compared to the ‘number needed to treat’ with symptom resolution. Establish drainage by stimulation of mucociliary flow and relief of obstruction.
Management (acute bacterial sinusitis)
2733
Guidelines for antibiotic therapy Consider therapy for severe cases that fail to improve over the first 5–7 days and display at least three of the following: persistent mucopurulent nasal discharge (>7–10 days) facial pain poor response to decongestants tenderness over the sinuses, especially maxillary tenderness on percussion of maxillary molar and premolar teeth that cannot be attributed to by a single tooth
Management (acute bacterial sinusitis)
2734
``` Measures Analgesics Antibiotics (if indicated): 3 amoxicillin 500 mg (o) tds or 1 g (o) bd for 5 days or (if sensitive to penicillin) doxycycline 100 mg (o) bd for 5 days or cefuroxime 500 mg (o) tds for 5 days or amoxicillin + clavulanate 875/125 mg (o) tds for 5–10 days if poor response to above (indicates resistant H. influenzae) In complicated or severe disease, use intravenous cephalosporins or flucloxacillin ```
Management (acute bacterial sinusitis)
2735
Nasal decongestants (oxymetazoline-containing nasal drops or sprays) 5 for 5 days (only if congestion) Inhalations (an important adjunct) Nasal saline irrigation Antihistamines and mucolytics are of no proven value. Cefuroxime is preferred to cephalexin or cefaclor because of superior anti-pneumococcal activity.
Management (acute bacterial sinusitis)
2736
Invasive methods Surgical drainage may be necessary by atrial lavage or frontal sinus trephine. Inhalations for sinusitis The old method of towel over the head and inhalation bowl can be used, but it is better to direct the vapour at the nose. Equipment needed is a container, which can be an old disposable bowl, a wide-mouthed bottle or tin, or a plastic container. Guard against accidental burns. For the inhalant, several household over-the-counter preparations are suitable such as Friar’s Balsam (5 mL), Vicks VapoRub (1 teaspoon) or menthol (5 mL). The cover can be made from a paper bag (with its base cut out), a cone of paper or a small cardboard carton (with the corner cut away).
Management (acute bacterial sinusitis)
2737
Method 1. Add 5 mL or 1 teaspoon of the inhalant to 0.5 L (or 1 pint) of boiled water in the container. 2. Place the paper or carton over the container. 3. Get the patient to apply nose and mouth to the opening and breathe in the vapour deeply and slowly through the nose, and then out slowly through the mouth. 4. This should be performed for 5–10 minutes, three times a day, especially before retiring. After inhalation, upper airway congestion can be relieved by autoinsufflation.
Management (acute bacterial sinusitis)
2738
``` Chronic sinusitis (>12 weeks) or recurrent sinusitis may arise from chronic infection or allergy. It may be associated with nasal polyps and vasomotor rhinitis, but is frequently associated with a structural abnormality of the upper airways ```
Chronic sinusitis
2739
It does not usually cause pain unless an acute infection intervenes. Initial measures are the same as for allergic rhinitis; 6 use oral or intranasal antihistamine and add in an intranasal corticosteroid (see CHAPTER 72 ). Nasal saline irrigation is a useful addition or alternative. After one month, resistant cases (particularly those with nasal polyps) should be referred to a specialist. While waiting, a temporary trial of oral prednisolone 25 mg may be reasonable. Surgical intervention will benefit chronic recurrence with mechanical blockage
Chronic sinusitis
2740
This condition is due to abnormal movement of the mandible, especially during chewing. The basic causes are dental malocclusion and masticatory muscle dysfunction. Check for bruxism. The pain is felt over the joint and tends to be localised to the region of the ear and mandibular condyle, but it may radiate forwards to the cheek and even the neck.
TMJ dysfunction
2741
Examination Check for pain and limitation of mandibular movements, especially on opening the mouth. Palpate about the joint bilaterally for tenderness, which typically lies immediately in front of the external auditory meatus; palpate the temporalis and masseter muscles. Palpate the TMJ over the lateral aspect of the joint disc. Ask the patient to open the mouth fully when tenderness is maximal. The TMJ can be palpated posteriorly by inserting the little finger into the external canal. Check for crepitus in mandibular movement.
TMJ dysfunction
2742
Management If organic disease such as rheumatoid arthritis and obvious dental malocclusion is excluded, a special set of instructions or exercises can alleviate the annoying problem of TMJ arthralgia in about 3 weeks. Warm packs may help. Provide patient education advice and self-care.
TMJ dysfunction
2743
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) is a condition of often unknown cause that typically occurs in patients over the age of 50, affecting the second and third divisions of the trigeminal nerve and on the same side of the face. Brief paroxysms of pain, often with associated trigger points, are a feature.
Trigeminal neuralgia
2744
Clinical features Site: sensory branches of the trigeminal nerve (see FIG. 41.5 ) almost always unilateral (often right side) Radiation: tends to commence in the mandibular division and spreads to the maxillary division and (rarely) to the ophthalmic division Quality: excruciating, searing jabs of pain like a burning knife or electric shock Frequency: variable and no regular pattern
Trigeminal neuralgia
2745
Duration: seconds to 1–2 minutes (up to 15 minutes) Onset: spontaneous or trigger point stimulus Offset: spontaneous Precipitating factors: talking, chewing, touching trigger areas on face (e.g. washing, shaving, eating), cold weather or wind, turning onto pillow
Trigeminal neuralgia
2746
Aggravating factors: trigger points usually in the upper and lower lip, nasolabial fold or lower eyelid (see FIG. 41.6 ) Relieving factors: nil Associated features: rarely occurs at night; spontaneous remissions for months or years Signs: there are no signs, normal corneal reflex
Trigeminal neuralgia
2747
``` Causes Unknown Local pressure on the nerve root entry zone by tortuous pulsatile dilated small vessels (probably up to 75%) Multiple sclerosis Neurosyphilis Tumours of the posterior fossa Note: Precise diagnosis of a condition that can become a burdensome ‘label’ is important. MRI may be helpful. ```
Trigeminal neuralgia
2748
Treatment Patient education, reassurance and empathic support is very important in these patients. Medical therapy carbamazepine (from onset of the attack to resolution) 9 50 mg (elderly patient) or 100 mg (o) bd initially; gradually increase the dose to avoid drowsiness every 7 days to 400 mg bd
Trigeminal neuralgia
2749
Alternative drugs if carbamazepine not tolerated or ineffective (but question the diagnosis if lack of response): oxcarbazepine 300 mg bd gabapentin 300 mg at night initially, increasing gradually to 600–1200 mg tds lamotrigine 25 mg (o) alternate daily, slowly increasing every 14 days if necessary to 100 mg bd phenytoin 300–500 mg daily phenytoin 300 mg daily baclofen 5 mg bd initially, increasing every 4 days up to 10–20 mg tds
Trigeminal neuralgia
2750
Surgery Refer to a neurosurgeon if medication ineffective Possible procedures include: decompression of the trigeminal nerve root (e.g. gel foam packing between the nerve and Page 507 blood vessels) neuroablative treatment, e.g. thermocoagulation/radiofrequency neurolysis surgical division of peripheral branches
Trigeminal neuralgia
2751
may rarely affect the face below the level of the eyes, causing pain in the area of the cheek and upper jaw. It may spread over the nostril and lower jaw. The pain is dull and throbbing, and nausea and vomiting are commonly present. The treatment is as for other varieties of migraine with simple analgesics or ergotamine for infrequent attacks.
Facial migraine (lower half headache)
2752
Herpes zoster may present as hyperaesthesia or a burning sensation in any division of the fifth nerve, especially the ophthalmic division.
Herpes zoster and postherpetic neuralgia
2753
Also known as persistent idiopathic facial pain, it is mainly a diagnosis of exclusion whereby patients, usually middle-aged to elderly women, complain of diffuse pain in the cheek (unilateral or bilateral) without demonstrable organic disease. The pain does not usually conform to a specific nerve distribution (although in the maxillary area), varies in intensity and duration and is not lancinating as in trigeminal neuralgia
Atypical facial pain
2754
This may produce mild or severe unilateral or bilateral headache. There may be ischaemic pain in the jaws when chewing. There may be marked scalp tenderness over the affected arteries. See CHAPTER 21 for management.
Temporal arteritis
2755
Classical erysipelas is a superficial form of cellulitis involving the face. It usually presents with the sudden onset of butterfly erythema with a well-defined edge (see FIG. 41.7 ). It often starts around the nose and there may be underlying sinus or dental infection which should be investigated.
Erysipelas
2756
There is an associated ‘flu-like’ illness and fever. It is invariably caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Treatment is by phenoxymethylpenicillin or di/flucloxacillin for 7–10 days.
Erysipelas
2757
When to refer Severe trigeminal or glossopharyngeal neuralgia Unusual facial pain, especially with a suspicion of malignancy Continuing pain of uncertain cause Positive neurological signs, such as impaired corneal reflex, impaired sensation in a trigeminal dermatome, slight facial weakness, hearing loss on the side of the neuralgia
orofacial pain
2758
Possible need for surgical drainage of sinusitis—indications for surgery include failure of appropriate medical treatment, anatomical deformity, polyps, uncontrolled sinus pain 5 Dental root infection causing maxillary sinusitis Other dental disorders
orofacial pain
2759
Malignancy must be excluded in the elderly with facial pain. Problems from the molar teeth, especially the third (wisdom), commonly present with peri-auricular pain without aural disease and pain in the posterior cheek.
orofacial pain
2760
Facial pain never crosses the midline; bilateral pain means bilateral lesions. 13 If no obvious cause of persistent pain, refer to exclude sinister cause: don’t overdiagnose sinusitis.
orofacial pain
2761
Fever plays an important physiological role in the defence against infection. Normal body temperature (measured orally mid-morning) is 36–37.2°C (average 36.8°C).
Fever and chills
2762
Fever can be defined as an early-morning (6 am) maximal oral temperature >37.2°C or a temperature >37.8°C at other times of the day, typically 4 pm. 2 Oral temperature is about 0.4°C lower than core body temperature. Axillary temperature is 0.5°C lower than oral temperature
Fever and chills
2763
Rectal, vaginal and ear drum temperatures are 0.5°C higher than oral and reflect core body temperature. There can be a normal diurnal variation of 0.5–1°C. Fevers due to infections have an upper limit of 40.5–41.1°C.
Fever and chills
2764
Hyperthermia (temperature above 41.1°C) and hyperpyrexia appear to have no upper limit. Infection remains the most important cause of acute fever
Fever and chills
2765
Symptoms associated with fever include sweats, chills, rigors and headache. Causes of fever besides infections include malignant disease, mechanical trauma (e.g. crush injury), vascular accidents (e.g. infarction, cerebral haemorrhage), immunogenic disorders (e.g. drug reactions, SLE), acute metabolic disorders (e.g. gout), and haemopoietic disorders (e.g. acute haemolytic anaemia).
Fever and chills
2766
Drugs can cause fever, presumably because of hypersensitivity. 3 Important examples are allopurinol, antihistamines, barbiturates, cephalosporins, cimetidine, methyldopa, penicillins, isoniazid, quinidine, phenolphthalein (including laxatives), phenytoin, procainamide, salicylates and sulfonamides. Drug fever should abate by 48 hours after discontinuation of the drug.
Fever and chills
2767
Infectious diseases at the extremes of age (very young and aged) 3 often present with atypical symptoms and signs. Their condition may deteriorate rapidly. Overseas travellers or visitors may have special, even exotic infections and require special evaluation
Fever and chills
2768
Immunologically compromised patients (e.g. those with AIDS) pose a special risk for infections, including opportunistic infections. A febrile illness is characteristic of the acute infection of HIV: at least 50% have an illness that presents like glandular fever.
Fever and chills
2769
``` Chills/rigors 2 The abrupt onset of fever with a chill or rigor is a feature of some diseases. Examples include: bacteraemia/septicaemia pneumococcal pneumonia pyogenic infection with bacteraemia ```
Fever and chills
2770
lymphoma pyelonephritis visceral abscesses (e.g. perinephric, lung) malaria
Fever and chills
2771
biliary sepsis (Charcot triad—jaundice, right hypochondrial pain, fever/rigors) Features of a true chill are teeth chattering and bed shaking, which is quite different from the chilly sensations that occur in almost all fevers, particularly those in viral infections. The event lasts 10–20 minutes.
Fever and chills
2772
Other features: shaking cannot be stopped voluntarily absence of sweating cold extremities and pallor (peripheral vascular shutdown) dry mouth and pilo-erection: lasts 10–20 minutes
Fever and chills
2773
Hyperthermia or hyperpyrexia is a temperature greater than 41.1°C. A more accurate definition is a state when the body’s metabolic heat production or environmental heat load exceeds normal heat loss capacity. Hyperthermia may be observed particularly in the tropics, in malaria and heatstroke. It can occur with CNS tumours, infections or haemorrhages because of their effect on the hypothalamus.
Hyperthermia
2774
This is the sudden onset of hot, dry, flushed skin with a rapid pulse, temperature above 40°C, and confusion or altered conscious state in a person exposed to a very hot environment. The BP is usually not affected initially but circulatory collapse may precede death. It is a life-threatening emergency. The diagnosis is clinical. Differential diagnoses include severe acute infection, toxic shock, food, chemical and drug poisoning. The elderly and debilitated are susceptible, as are children left in cars.
Heatstroke (sunstroke, thermic fever)
2775
Treatment Immediate effective cooling water applied to skin—cool sprays, fanning Icepacks at critical points (e.g. axillae, neck, head) Full body immersion works, but caution in sick people Aim to bring down temperature by 1°C every 10 minutes
Heatstroke (sunstroke, thermic fever)
2776
This is a rare hereditary disorder characterised by rapidly developing hyperpyrexia, muscular rigidity and acidosis in patients undergoing major surgery.
Malignant hyperthermia
2777
is a heat loss mechanism, and diffuse sweating that may soak clothing and bedclothing permits rapid release of heat by evaporation. In febrile patients the skin is usually hot and dry— sweating occurs in most when the temperature falls. It is characteristic of only some fevers (e.g. septic infections and rheumatic fever).
Sweats
2778
This is fever usually with a temperature ≥38°C in a patient with neutrophils <0.5 × 10 9 /L. It is a common complication of people undergoing cancer therapy. If possible, the pathogen should be identified and broad-spectrum antibiotics initiated urgently. Refer to the appropriate hospital or specialist service.
Febrile neutropenia
2779
This is often confused with ‘malignant’ hyperthermia and heat stroke. The syndrome includes high temperature, muscle rigidity, autonomic dysfunction and altered consciousness. It is a rare and potentially lethal reaction in patients taking antipsychotic drugs, particularly occurring with haloperidol alone or with other drugs, especially lithium carbonate
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
2780
This is fever occurring within 24 hours after surgery—common with abdominal surgery.
Postoperative fever
2781
``` Causes to consider: pulmonary atelectasis (common) wound haematoma deep venous thrombosis myocardial infarction allergic drug reaction transfusion reaction Septic problems related to the operation usually develop after several days. ```
Postoperative fever
2782
``` The diagnosis of septicaemia can be easily missed, especially in small children, the elderly and the immunocompromised, and in the absence of classic signs, which are: fever (± shivering) muscle pain rash (suggestive of meningococcus) tachycardia tachypnoea cool extremities ```
Septicaemia
2783
Patients with septicaemia require urgent referral as it has a very high mortality rate. 17 Investigations should include two sets of blood cultures and other appropriate cultures (e.g. urine, wound, sputum). Empirical initial treatment in adults (after blood cultures) is vancomycin IV and gentamicin IV
Septicaemia
2784
Bacteraemia The transient presence of bacteria in the blood (usually implies asymptomatic) caused by local infection or trauma.
Bacteraemia
2785
``` Septicaemia (sepsis) The multiplication of bacteria or fungi in the blood, usually causing a systemic inflammatory response (SIRS). SIRS is defined as two or more of (in adults): temperature >38°C or <36°C respiratory rate >20/min heart rate >90/min WCC >12 × 10 9 /L or <4 × 10 9 /L ```
Septicaemia
2786
Severe sepsis Sepsis associated with organ dysfunction, hypoperfusion or 1 2 hypotension with two or more of: fever, tachycardia, tachypnoea and elevated WCC.
sepsis
2787
Sepsis with critical tissue perfusion causing acute circulatory failure including hypotension that does not respond to IV fluid administrations and peripheral shutdown—cool extremities, mottled skin, cyanosis. Consider S. aureus (food poisoning, tampon use) and S. pyogenes.
Septic shock
2788
When patients present with the complaint of a ‘funny turn’ it is usually possible to determine that they have one of the more recognisable presenting problems, such as fainting, ‘blackouts’, lightheadedness, weakness, palpitations, vertigo or migraine. However, there are some who do present with confusing problems that warrant the label of ‘funny turn’. The most common problem with funny turns is that of misdiagnosis, so it is essential to take a proper and adequate history.
Faints, fits and funny turns
2789
It is important to remember that phrases like ‘funny turn’ or ‘feeling weird’ are ways of communicating subjective symptoms seen through a particular cultural and linguistic lens, often during times of stress. 1 Various causes of faints, fits and funny turns are presented in
Faints, fits and funny turns
2790
syncope seizures sleep disorders—sleep apnoea/narcolepsy/cataplexy labyrinthine
Faints, fits and funny turns
2791
``` Psychogenic/communication problems Breath-holding attack Conversion reactions (hysteria) Culture/language conflicts Fugue states Hyperventilation ```
Faints, fits and funny turns
2792
``` Transient ischaemic attacks and strokes Complex partial seizure (temporal lobe epilepsy) Tonic, clonic or atonic seizures Primary absence seizure Migraine variants or equivalents, e.g. acute confusional migraine Familial periodic paralysis Cardiovascular disorders: arrhythmias Stokes–Adams attacks postural hypotension long QT syndrome aortic stenosis Vertigo Drug reaction Alcohol and other substance abuse Hypoglycaemia Anaemia Head injury Amnesic episodes Metabolic/electrolyte disturbances Vasovagal/syncope Carotid sinus sensitivity Cervical spondylosis Sleep disorders: sleep apnoea narcolepsy/cataplexy Autonomic failure ```
Faints, fits and funny turns
2793
The commonest cause of ‘funny turns’ presenting in general practice is Table 43.2 lightheadedness, often related to psychogenic factors such as anxiety, panic and hyperventilation. 2 Patients usually call this ‘dizziness’.
Faints, fits and funny turns
2794
Absence attacks occur with minor forms of epilepsy and with partial seizures such as complex partial seizures. The psychomotor attack of complex partial seizure presents as a diagnostic difficulty. The most commonly misdiagnosed seizure disorder is that of complex partial seizures or variants of generalised tonic–clonic seizures (tonic or clonic or atonic). The diagnosis of epilepsy is made on the history (or video electroencephalogram/EEG), rather than on the standard EEG, although a sleepdeprived EEG is more effective.
Faints, fits and funny turns
2795
The triad—angina + dyspnoea + blackout or lightheadedness—indicates aortic stenosis. Severe cervical spondylosis can cause vertebrobasilar ischaemia by causing pressure on the vertebral arteries that pass through the intervertebral foramina, especially with head turning or looking up.
Faints, fits and funny turns
2796
``` Onset in older person Neurological symptoms and signs Headache Page 521 Page 520 Tachycardia Irregular pulse Fever Rash Drugs: social or prescribed Cognitive impairment Confusion: gradual onset ```
Red flag pointers for faints, fits and funny turns
2797
fright, pain →
vasovagal attack
2798
standing up →
postural hypotension
2799
exertion →
aortic stenosis
2800
tingling in extremities or tightening of the hand →
anxiety/hyperventilation
2801
visual problems →
migraine or TIA
2802
hallucinations (taste/smell/visual) →
complex partial seizure
2803
speech problems →
TIA or anxiety
2804
sweating, hunger feelings →
hypoglycaemia
2805
``` Epilepsy: first presentation known epilepsy with recurrence Cerebral hypoxia Hypoglycaemia Poor cerebral perfusion: oedema of eclampsia Neurotrauma Cerebrovascular accident CNS infections: meningitis encephalitis septicaemia septic emboli cerebral abscess Toxins Alcohol excess Hyperthermia Metabolic disorders Drugs: Page 522 antidepressants theophylline amphetamine antibiotics, e.g. norfloxacin, ciprofloxacin cocaine local anaesthetics Anaphylaxis Expanding brain lesion: neoplasm haematoma ```
Important causes of convulsive | seizures