July 2024 Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

shoulder dystocia: using McRoberts and suprapubic pressure what is the
percentage success rate of SD?

A

> 90%

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2
Q

All-fours’ technique success rate

A

83%

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3
Q

What is the difference in risk between
vaginal birth and c/s birth in peripartum
hysterectomy outcomes

A

65 per 100,000

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4
Q

What is the difference in risk between
vaginal birth and c/s birth in neonatal
mortality

A

28 per 100,000

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5
Q

What is the difference in risk between
vaginal birth and c/s birth in maternal death

A

20 per 100,000

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6
Q

What is the difference in risk between
vaginal birth and c/s birth in placenta accreta

A

42 per 100,000

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7
Q

What is the difference in risk between
vaginal birth and c/s birth in uterine rupture

A

185 per 100,000

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8
Q

What is the difference in risk between
vaginal birth and c/s birth in asthma

A

309 per 100,000 children

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9
Q

What is the marker for anaphylaxis

A

mast cell tryptase

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10
Q

treatment for anaphylaxis

A

1:1000 adrenaline 500 micrograms IM

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11
Q

max dose of lidocaine

A

3mg/kg without adrenaline
7mg/kg with adrenaline

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12
Q

how does lidocaine work and what is the half life

A

blocks fast voltage gated sodium channels
half life 2 hours

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13
Q

most reliable indicator of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs) and platelets

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14
Q

what is decreased in DIC

A

decreased platelets, fibrinogen, clotting factors, protein C and anti-thrombin III levels

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15
Q

adrenaline indication and dose in cardiac arrest

A

1mg 1:10,000 IV or IO
assytole or PEA

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16
Q

reversal of opioid toxicity

A

IV naloxone (onset 30s to 2min) typically at 0.4-2mg IV

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17
Q

11-Post op 75yrs for ovarian CA with omentectomy. History of benign brain
tumour and liver disease. Post op day 4 abdomen distended tender BS sluggish
positive. Urine output 400/24hrs, 750 input
NEWS were stable

A

CTAP

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18
Q

A 65-year-old had a hysterectomy for endometrial cancer. She recovered well
but complained of dribbling urine 2 days later and was given a course of antibiotics for a presumed UTI. On review at 4 weeks she complains of continued urinary incontinence. She has no dysuria, no sensation of urgency, needs to wear a pad at night, and intermittently voids good volumes of urine with normal flow. Urinalysis is negative. What the most likely diagnosis?

A

fistula

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19
Q

Most common major complication of
laparoscopy

A

bowel injury: 0.4/1000

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20
Q

overall risk of serious complication laparoscopy

A

2/1000

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21
Q

risk of vascular injury from laparoscopy

A

0.2/1000

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22
Q

risk of death in 100,000 from laparoscopy

A

5 in 100,000

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23
Q

after vaginal disimpaction what is the next step with fetal head impaction

A

breech extraction
consider inverted T or J incision

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24
Q

antihypertensive treatment for postnatal

A

enalapril - monitor renal functino and matneral serum potassium

or black = nifedipine or amlodipine

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25
bladder syndrome pharmacological treatments:
oral amitriptyline or cimetidine (not licensed fpr BPS)
26
What is the most appropriate Post op c/section pain relief for a patient who has had a spinal anaesthetic and is currently vomiting in recovery
IV morphine consider PCA if GA - routine monitoring until 2 hours after
27
syphilis treatment (early disease primary/secondary) in third trimester
Benzathin penicillin 2.4 MU IM weekly for 2 weeks
28
syphilis treatment (early disease primary/secondary) in first or second trimester
Benzathin penicillin 2.4 MU IM single dose
29
syphilis treatment late disease/unknown duration
Benzathin penicillin 2.4 MU IM weekly for 3 weeks
30
recurrent miscarriage testing
1. acquired thrombophilia especially lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodis 2. cytogenetic analysis on pregnancy tissue of third+ miscarriage
31
when is parental peripheral blood karyotyping offered in recurrent miscarriage
parental perpheral blood karyotyping when pregnancy tissue reports unbalanced structural chromosomal abnormality OR if the cytogenetic analysis is unsuccesful
32
follow-up for complete molar pregnancy
if hCG has reverted to normal within 56 days of the pregnancy event then follow-up will be for 6 months from the date of uterine removal. OR 6 months from normalisation if after 56 days
33
f/u for partial molar pregnancy
concluded once the hCG has returned to normal on two samples, at least 4 weeks apart.
34
PUL sub-optimal hcg rise
pregnancy test in 14 days
35
first step in PPH
massage uterus/bimanual compression and repair perineal tears and catheterise
36
A PG delivers a healthy baby vaginally. She has a background of an aortic root dilatation measuring 4.5cm. Which uterotonic is contraindicated?
ergoemtrine (risk of hypertension induced aortic dissection or rupture)
37
A woman presents with 9 weeks of amenorrhoea and new lower abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan shows an intrauterine pregnancy with a fetal heart beat. There is a left sided complex adnexal mass, with free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
heterotopic pregnancy
38
What is the rate of persistent trophoblast after salpingostomy for tubal ectopic pregnancy?
up to 1 in 5 women may need further treatment after salpingotomy (20%)
39
A patient at 38/40 presented with bilateral sensory weakness on the anterior and lateral thigh. There was no motor involvement. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?
lateral cutaneous nerve
40
A patient presented for review on maternity triage. She underwent a forceps delivery of a 4.1kg baby three days ago. She complained of foot drop. On examination she was found to have weakness of knee flexion and hip abduction. Which is the most likely affected nerve?
lumbosacral trunk
41
An 18 year old woman presents to gynaecology clinic with primary amenorrhoea. On examination she has Tanner stage 2 breast development and stage 2 pubic hair. Internal examination reveals a blind end vagina. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome: 46XY - normal puberty then primary amenorrhoea
42
A woman presents with primary amenorrhoea, ataxia and cataracts. What is the most likely diagnosis
Galactosemia
43
A primigravida presents to antenatal clinic at 20 weeks gestation. She is suffering from recurrent candida infection and has been on clotrimazole for the last 12 months. A HVS shows candida, which is sensitive to azoles. What is the most appropriate management?
Clotrimazole 500mg PV once weekly
44
A couple are undergoing primary fertility investigations. The female partner’s investigations are all normal. The male is found to have azoospermia with a low FSH. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Kallmans syndrome low FSH = kallmans, prader willi, charge
45
endometrial hyperplasia without atypia - risk of progression to endometrial cancer after 20 years, if left untreated?
1-5%
46
throbbing headache associated with nausea, blurred vision and photophobia. Neurological examination is normal, but fundoscopy reveals papilledema with an inward squint of the eye. Her BP is 127/85. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
idiopathic intracranial hypertension
47
greatest risk of cerebral venous thrombosis
third trimester and first 4 weeks postpartum
48
A primigravida with a BMI of 38 presents to the clinic at 16 weeks gestation. She is complaining of a gradual onset headache, that is particularly worse when she is coughing or straining. What is the most appropriate investigation to reach a diagnosis?
lumbar puncture
49
A 32-year-old woman undergoes surgical evacuation of products of conception. Histological diagnosis reveals a partial molar pregnancy. What is the genetic basis of a partial molar pregnancy?
Two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes
50
A 44-year-old lady is referred to the GOPD by her GP to discuss sterilization. She had a copper IUD for the last 4 years and was under the impression that she can keep it until menopause. However, recent cervical cytology has grown actinomyces, and she has been advised that the IUD will need removal. She denies any symptoms. What contraception would you advise for her?
continue copper IUD - asymptomatic individuals with positive actinomyces on cervical cytology are more likely to be colonised than infected
51
A 33-year-old woman is referred to the GOPD to discuss contraception. She was considering sterilisation but is unsure whether her family is complete. She takes topiramate and has a bicornuate uterus. She does not want to undergo any procedures. What is the most appropriate contraceptive for her?
Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate progesterone injectable
52
Which is the contraceptive with the least failure rate from both typical and perfect use?
Etonogestrel implant
53
A patient asks you about which contraceptive choice would be most appropriate for her. She is HIV positive and is taking Efavirenz. What is the most effective contraception for her?
Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
54
A patient reported having unprotected sexual intercourse last night with an unusual partner. The condom had split during the intercourse. She takes the COCP but reports forgetting to take a pill yesterday. She is in week two of her pack. What would be the most appropriate advice for her?
Enquire about STIs, take the missed pill now (even if it means two pills in one day) and continue the pack as scheduled
55
A patient with a history of 2 previous caesarean sections and diet-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is carrying a fetus weighing 3.1 kg. She is keen for a vaginal delivery (VD). What is the most appropriate management?
Offer C/S at 39 weeks
56
A diabetic pregnant woman presents at 33 weeks gestation, unwell with vomiting and fever. She is hyperglycaemic on assessment with urinary ketones 3+. Serum potassium levels are 3. What is the most appropriate initial management?
0.9% NaCl with 40 mmol KCl over 4 hours
57
A 65-year-old patient with a background of atrial fibrillation is due to undergo hysteroscopic polypectomy under general anaesthetic today. She usually takes warfarin but she stopped this a week ago in anticipation of the surgery. Her INR today is 1.6. What is the most appropriate action?
if INR>1.5 pre op, give vitamin K (phytomenadione)
58
A 50-year-old woman has a mechanical heart valve and takes Warfarin. She weighs 60kg. She is due to undergo a bilateral salpingo-oophrectomy. How would you manage her anticoagulation pre-operatively, in terms of bridging?
Stop warfarin five days before the procedure and start Enoxaparin (a LMWH) at 90mg S/C OD. Take last enoxaparin dose 24 hours before planned surgery.
59
A patient undergoes a vulval biopsy in GOPD, following presentation with narrowing of the clitoral hood. Biopsy has found squamous-cell carcinoma. Which is the most likely associated precursor?
Differentiated VIN (dVIN)
60
A pregnant patient with diabetes insipidus is started on desmopressin (DDAVP). What test should be monitored during pregnancy?
Urea and electrolytes check for hypernatraemia - weakness, confusion, seizure, coma
61
A 38-year-old woman is reviewed in GOPD, complaining of post-coital bleeding. On speculum examination there is a mass involving the anterior and posterior fornices of the vagina and invading into the upper third of the vagina. MRI abdomen and pelvis do not report any further abnormalities. What stage of cervical cancer does the patient have?
stage 2
62
Which inherited thrombophilia is most often associated with recurrent pregnancy loss?
Prothrombin gene mutation Lupus anticoagulant has the strongest associaion with recurrent miscarriage
63
Which inherited thrombophilia is most often associated with first and particularly second trimester recurrent miscarriage
Factor V Leiden
64
40 weeks 2.5kg - most common cause of stillbirth
placental cause 28w - 1.2kg, 30- 1.6kg, 32w - 2kg
65
previous pre-eclampsia delivered at 32 weeks - risk of recurrence?
33%
66
how much isotonic fluid is overload?
more than 2500mL using isotonic more than 1000mL using hypotonic
67
lacy rash cause?
parvovirus B19
68
commonest cause of pancreatitis
gallstones
69
in ART, when is the highest risk of VTE?
first trimester
70
increased risk of miscarriage with which uterine aomalies
septate and bicornuate
71
positive ascites or washings - what stage ovarian cancer
1C3
72
raised HbA2 (>3.5) indicates what?
beta thalassaemia - avoid iron unless ferritin is low.
73
gold standard for LAM avulsion
transperineal ultrasound 3d/4D
74
Most commonly injured vessel at laparoscopy
Inferior epigastric
75
patient at 14weeks with 3 prev preterm deliveries at 27,28,29 weeks. Next step of management
History indicated cervical cerclage
76
Woman had no antenatal care, from Africa (Zambia), delivered 3 weeks ago. Baby is unwell and has blocked nose, hyperpigmented macular rash on body and rash on soles of feet. Has hepatosplenomegally.
syphilis
77