Jurisprudence Exam

Question 1

The governing body of the Registered Dentists of Oklahoma is what?

Answer 1

The Board of Governors of the Registered Dentists of Oklahoma

Question 2

This Board of Governors composed of ___ members. What is required to pass something?

Answer 2

Eleven (11) Members

Simple Majority of the board is required to pass.

Question 3

Duties of Board of Governors duties:
(1) to enforce the provisions of the State Dental Act;
(2) to perform the executive function of the organization;
(3) to examine all candidates for dental licenses;
(4) to inspect dental offices and dental laboratories;
(5) to establish minimum standards of dental care;
(6) to examine candidates for certification as dental hygienists;
(7) to issue dental laboratory permits upon appropriate
application;
(8) to conduct hearings regarding complaints against
dentists and dental hygienists and
(9) to exercise such disciplinary powers as are conferred by the
State Dental Act.

Answer 3

Duties of Board of Governors duties:
(1) to enforce the provisions of the State Dental Act;
(2) to perform the executive function of the organization;
(3) to examine all candidates for dental licenses;
(4) to inspect dental offices and dental laboratories;
(5) to establish minimum standards of dental care;
(6) to examine candidates for certification as dental hygienists;
(7) to issue dental laboratory permits upon appropriate
application;
(8) to conduct hearings regarding complaints against
dentists and dental hygienists and
(9) to exercise such disciplinary powers as are conferred by the
State Dental Act.

Question 4

Fee Info:
- License or Certificate by Examination:____
For a specialist this becomes ____
- License or Certificate by Credentialing: ____
Same price for the a specialist.
- Faculty Permit/Dental Intern Permit: _____
- General Anesthesia Permit/Conscious Sedation Permit: ____
- Re- Examination Fee written only: ____
- RE-Examination for Licensure:_____
- Annual renewal fee for dentists and specialists: ____
- Late renewal fee: _____
- Duplicate license or certificate of good standing: _______

Answer 4

• License or Certificate by Examination: $200
  For a specialist this becomes $300.
• License or Certificate by Credentialing: $500
  Same price for the a specialist.
• Faculty Permit/Dental Intern Permit: $100
• General Anesthesia Permit/Conscious Sedation Permit: $100
• Re- Examination Fee written only: $10
• RE-Examination for Licensure is the same $200 as the initial application fee.
• Annual renewal fee for dentists and specialists: $150/year.
• Late renewal fee: $100 extra.
• Duplicate license or certificate of good standing: $10

Question 5

Investigation Info:

• Any person may file a written and signed complaint. The complaint need not be on any particular form but must be in writing and signed before it is presented to the Board representative for filing.
• The President of the Board shall appoint ___ Board members to act as a review panel during the investigation of the complaint.

Answer 5

• Two Board members

Question 6

Investigation Info:

• Any person may file a written and signed complaint. The complaint need not be on any particular form but must be in writing and signed before it is presented to the Board representative for filing.
• The President of the Board shall appoint ___ Board members to act as a review panel during the investigation of the complaint and cannot be from the same geographical region as the person in question.
• The respondent shall file a written response to the Complaint within _______ days after the service of the Statement of Complaint and notice of hearing. The response shall include either an admission or denial of each material element of the Statement of Complaint.

Answer 6

• Two Board members

- Twenty (20) days

Question 7

Requirements for reciprocal licensure or licensure by credentials a Dentist must:
- Have been in active practice for at least:______

Answer 7

• 500 hours per year for the last Five (5) years

2 years for a hygienist

Question 8

What is the grade required to pass the written examination for dental, dental hygiene and specialties?

Answer 8

• 75%

Question 9

How long must you wait to re-take the Jurisprudence exam?

Answer 9

• 30 Days???

Question 10

The following acts by any person shall be regarded as practicing dentistry within the meaning of the State Dental Act:

a. Representing oneself to the public as being a dentist or as one authorized to practice dentistry;
b. Representing oneself to the public as being able to diagnose or examine clinical material or contract for the treating thereof;
c. Representing oneself as treating or professing to treat by professional instructions or by advertised use of professional equipment or products;
d. Representing oneself to the public as treating any of the diseases or disorders or lesions of the oral cavity, teeth, gums, maxillary bones, and associate structures;
e. Removing human teeth;
f. Repairing or filling cavities in human teeth;
g. Correcting or attempting to correct malposed teeth;
h. Administering anesthetics, general or local;
i. Treating deformities of the jaws and adjacent structures;
j. Using x-ray and interpreting dental x-ray film;
k. Offering, undertaking or assisting, by any means or methods, to remove stains, discolorations, or concretions from the teeth;
l. Operating or prescribing for any disease, pain, injury, deficiency, deformity, or any physical condition connected with the human mouth;
m. Taking impressions of the teeth and jaws;
n. Furnishing, supplying, constructing, reproducing, or repairing, or offering to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce, or repair, prosthetic dentures, sometimes known as plates, bridges, or other substitutes for natural teeth for the user or prospective user thereof;
o. Adjusting or attempting to adjust any prosthetic denture, bridge, appliance, or any other structure to be worn in the human mouth;
p. Diagnosing, making, and adjusting appliances to artificial casts of malposed teeth for treatment of the malposed teeth in the human mouth, without instructions;
q. Writing a laboratory prescription to a dental laboratory or dental laboratory technician for the construction, reproduction or repair of any appliance or structure to be worn in the human mouth;
r. Owning, maintaining, or operating an office or offices by holding a financial interest in same for the practice of dentistry; or
s. Any other procedure otherwise defined in the State Dental Act requiring a valid license or permit to perform while the person does not hold such valid license or permit issued by the Board. B. The fact that a person uses any dental degree, or designation, or any card, device, directory, poster, sign or other media representing oneself to be a dentist shall be prima facie evidence that the person is engaged in the practice of dentistry; provided that nothing in this section shall be so construed as to prevent the following:
i. 1. Physicians or surgeons, who are licensed under the laws of this state, from administering any kind of treatment coming within the province of medicine or surgery;
ii. 2. The practice of dentistry in the discharge of their official duties by dentists in the United States Army, the United States Navy, the United States Air Force, the United States Marine Corps, the United States Coast Guard, the United States Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans Administration;
iii. 3. Dental schools or colleges, as now conducted and approved, or as may be approved, and the practice of dentistry by students in dental schools, colleges or hospitals, approved by the Board, when acting under the direction and supervision of licensed dentists or dentists holding properly issued permits acting as instructors;
iv. 4. Acts of a dental clinician or other participant at a dental educational meeting or at an accredited dental college, when no fee is charged to or paid by a patient;
v. 5. The practice of dental hygiene, as defined herein, by a person granted a license by the Board;
vi. 6. The performing of acts by a dental assistant or oral maxillofacial surgery assistant who performs the acts under the direct supervision or direct visual supervision of a dentist and in accordance with the provisions of the State Dental Act and the rules promulgated by the Board; or
vii. 7. The fabrication of dental appliances pursuant to a laboratory prescription of a dentist, by a dental laboratory technician in a dental laboratory using inert materials and mechanical devices for the fabrication of any restoration, appliance or thing to be worn in the human mouth.

Answer 10

a. Representing oneself to the public as being a dentist or as one authorized to practice dentistry;
b. Representing oneself to the public as being able to diagnose or examine clinical material or contract for the treating thereof;
c. Representing oneself as treating or professing to treat by professional instructions or by advertised use of professional equipment or products;
d. Representing oneself to the public as treating any of the diseases or disorders or lesions of the oral cavity, teeth, gums, maxillary bones, and associate structures;
e. Removing human teeth;
f. Repairing or filling cavities in human teeth;
g. Correcting or attempting to correct malposed teeth;
h. Administering anesthetics, general or local;
i. Treating deformities of the jaws and adjacent structures;
j. Using x-ray and interpreting dental x-ray film;
k. Offering, undertaking or assisting, by any means or methods, to remove stains, discolorations, or concretions from the teeth;
l. Operating or prescribing for any disease, pain, injury, deficiency, deformity, or any physical condition connected with the human mouth;
m. Taking impressions of the teeth and jaws;
n. Furnishing, supplying, constructing, reproducing, or repairing, or offering to furnish, supply, construct, reproduce, or repair, prosthetic dentures, sometimes known as plates, bridges, or other substitutes for natural teeth for the user or prospective user thereof;
o. Adjusting or attempting to adjust any prosthetic denture, bridge, appliance, or any other structure to be worn in the human mouth;
p. Diagnosing, making, and adjusting appliances to artificial casts of malposed teeth for treatment of the malposed teeth in the human mouth, without instructions;
q. Writing a laboratory prescription to a dental laboratory or dental laboratory technician for the construction, reproduction or repair of any appliance or structure to be worn in the human mouth;
r. Owning, maintaining, or operating an office or offices by holding a financial interest in same for the practice of dentistry; or
s. Any other procedure otherwise defined in the State Dental Act requiring a valid license or permit to perform while the person does not hold such valid license or permit issued by the Board. B. The fact that a person uses any dental degree, or designation, or any card, device, directory, poster, sign or other media representing oneself to be a dentist shall be prima facie evidence that the person is engaged in the practice of dentistry; provided that nothing in this section shall be so construed as to prevent the following:
i. 1. Physicians or surgeons, who are licensed under the laws of this state, from administering any kind of treatment coming within the province of medicine or surgery;
ii. 2. The practice of dentistry in the discharge of their official duties by dentists in the United States Army, the United States Navy, the United States Air Force, the United States Marine Corps, the United States Coast Guard, the United States Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans Administration;
iii. 3. Dental schools or colleges, as now conducted and approved, or as may be approved, and the practice of dentistry by students in dental schools, colleges or hospitals, approved by the Board, when acting under the direction and supervision of licensed dentists or dentists holding properly issued permits acting as instructors;
iv. 4. Acts of a dental clinician or other participant at a dental educational meeting or at an accredited dental college, when no fee is charged to or paid by a patient;
v. 5. The practice of dental hygiene, as defined herein, by a person granted a license by the Board;
vi. 6. The performing of acts by a dental assistant or oral maxillofacial surgery assistant who performs the acts under the direct supervision or direct visual supervision of a dentist and in accordance with the provisions of the State Dental Act and the rules promulgated by the Board; or
vii. 7. The fabrication of dental appliances pursuant to a laboratory prescription of a dentist, by a dental laboratory technician in a dental laboratory using inert materials and mechanical devices for the fabrication of any restoration, appliance or thing to be worn in the human mouth.

Question 11

Age restriction for a license in Oklahoma for a dentist and dental hygienist?

Answer 11

Dentist: 21 or older
Hygienist: 18 or older

Question 12

If a dental student or dental hygiene student is applying, how close to graduation do they have to be?

Answer 12

6 months or less

Question 13

Any applicant who fails to pass the clinical examination may be given credit for such subjects as the Board may allow, but such credits shall be extended only to the succeeding examinations. If the applicant fails to pass a second examination, before further re-examination, the Board may require evidence of additional education, as specified by the Board. After a third examination, the Board may deny the applicant another examination.
All licensees and permit holders shall display their current permit or license in a visible place within the dental office or treatment facility.

Answer 13

Any applicant who fails to pass the clinical examination may be given credit for such subjects as the Board may allow, but such credits shall be extended only to the succeeding examinations. If the applicant fails to pass a second examination, before further re-examination, the Board may require evidence of additional education, as specified by the Board. After a third examination, the Board may deny the applicant another examination. All licensees and permit holders shall display their current permit or license in a visible place within the dental office or treatment facility.

Question 14

Temporary license to practice dentistry for ____ days. How long can it be extended?
**A holder of a temporary license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene shall have the same rights and privileges and be governed by the State Dental Act and the rules of the Board in the same manner as a holder of a permanent license to practice dentistry and dental hygiene.

Answer 14

thirty (30) days, A temporary license may be extended but shall not exceed ninety (90) days or the next available regularly scheduled Board meeting.

Question 15

There is established a special volunteer license for dentists and a special volunteer license for dental hygienists who are retired from active practice or out-of-state licensees in active practice who are in the Oklahoma Medical Reserve Corps or assisting with emergency management, emergency operations, or hazard mitigation in response to any emergency, man-made disaster, or natural disaster. Details:

Answer 15

1. Issued by the Board of Dentistry to eligible persons;
2. Issued without the payment of an application fee, license fee or renewal fee;
3. Issued or renewed without any continuing education requirements for a period less than one (1) calendar year; and
4. Issued for one (1) calendar year or part thereof.

Question 16

No person shall practice as a dental assistant or oral maxillofacial surgery assistant for more than one (1) day in a calendar year without having applied for a permit as a dental assistant or oral maxillofacial surgery assistant from the Board of Dentistry within thirty (30) days of beginning employment. During this time period, the dental assistant shall work under the direct visual supervision of a dentist at all times. Every dental assistant receiving a permit shall complete a class on infection control as approved by the Board within _____ year from the date of receipt of the permit.

Answer 16

• one (1)

Question 17

There shall be five types of expanded duty permits available for dental assistants upon completion of a program approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA) or a course that has been approved by the Board: What are they?

Answer 17

1. Radiation safety;
2. Coronal polishing and topical fluoride;
3. Sealants;
4. Assisting in the administration of nitrous oxide; or
5. Assisting a dentist who holds a parenteral or pediatric anesthesia permit; provided, only the dentist may administer anesthesia and assess the patient’s level of sedation.

Question 18

Every applicant for any type of license or permit issued by the Board of Dentistry shall be subject to a national criminal background check.

Answer 18

every applicant for any type of license or permit issued by the Board of Dentistry shall be subject to a national criminal background check.

Question 19

Advertisement Rules:

• The name of the dentist or dentists actually providing the dental services to the patient shall appear on all insurance claim forms, billing invoices or statements sent to the patient and on all receipts if any are given to the patient.
• A copy of the advertisement, including but not limited to any electronic form of the advertising, shall be kept by the dentist or dentists for three (3) years from the first publication date of the advertisement.
• All advertisements for dentistry shall include the name of the dentist or dentists that shall be providing treatment and shall list the type of dental or specialty license on the advertisement.

Answer 19

Advertisement Rules:

• The name of the dentist or dentists actually providing the dental services to the patient shall appear on all insurance claim forms, billing invoices or statements sent to the patient and on all receipts if any are given to the patient.
• A copy of the advertisement, including but not limited to any electronic form of the advertising, shall be kept by the dentist or dentists for three (3) years from the first publication date of the advertisement.
• All advertisements for dentistry shall include the name of the dentist or dentists that shall be providing treatment and shall list the type of dental or specialty license on the advertisement.

Question 20

Each licensed dentist shall maintain written records on each patient that shall contain, at a minimum, the following information about the patient:

Answer 20

1. A health history listing known illnesses, other treating physicians, and current medications prescribed;
2. Results of clinical examination and tests conducted, including the identification, or lack thereof, of any oral pathology or diseases;
3. Treatment plan proposed by the dentist;
4. Treatment rendered to the patient. The patient record shall clearly identify the dentist and the dental hygienist providing the treatment with the dentist, specialty or dental hygienist license number;
5. Whenever patient records are released or transferred, the dentist releasing or transferring the records shall maintain either the original records or copies thereof and a notation shall be made in the retained records indicating to whom the records were released or transferred; and
6. All claims being submitted for insurance must be signed, stamped or have an electronic signature by the treating dentist.
   C. Patient records may be kept in an electronic data format, provided that the dentist maintains a backup copy of information stored in the data processing system using disk, tape or other electronic back-up system and that backup is updated on a regular basis, at least weekly, to assure that data is not lost due to system failure. Any electronic data system shall be capable of producing a hard copy on demand.
   D. All patient records shall be maintained for seven (7) years from the date of treatment.
   E. Each licensed dentist shall retain a copy of each entry in his or her patient appointment book or such other log, calendar, book, file or computer data used in lieu of an appointment book for a period of no less than seven (7) years from the date of each entry thereon.

Question 21

Permit to Operate Dental Laboratory:

Laboratories and Dentists need to keep all prescription documents for up to______.

Answer 21

Any person, firm, corporation, partnership or other legal entity who desires to operate a dental laboratory in this state shall file with the Board of Dentistry, on a form prescribed by the Board, an application for a permit to operate a dental laboratory and pay the fee established by the rules of the Board. The application shall include the name and address of each person, firm, corporation, partnership or other legal entity who owns an interest in or will operate the dental laboratory. Upon receipt of the application and fee, the Board shall determine the qualifications of the applicant and may grant a permit to the applicant to operate a dental laboratory.

• A Dentist can own his own private non-commercial laboratory in their own practice.
• **Laboratories and Dentists need to keep all prescription documents for up to 3 years.

Question 22

At a minimum, prescriptions shall contain the following information:

Answer 22

1. The name and address of the dental laboratory;
2. The patient’s name and/or identifying number. In the event such identifying number is used, the name of the patient shall be written on a copy of the prescription retained by the dentist;
3. A description of the work to be completed with diagrams, if applicable;
4. A description of the type of materials to be used;
5. The actual date on which the authorization or prescription was written or completed;
6. The signature in ink or by electronic method of the dentist issuing the prescription and the state license number and address of such dentist; and
7. A section to be completed by the dental laboratory and returned to the issuing dentist that shall disclose all information and certify that the information is accurate by including the signature of a reasonable part of the primary contractor.
   E. The Board shall make readily available a sample form on the Board’s website for use by any licensee at no cost. F. A dentist may produce, transfer and retain copies of the form electronically.

Question 23

License Renewal:
On or before the last day of ________ of each year, every dentist, dental hygienist, dental assistant, oral maxillofacial surgery assistant and other licensee or permit holders, shall submit a completed renewal application with information as may be required by the Board, together with an annual renewal fee established by the rules of the Board.
A renewal allows continued practice of dentistry or dental hygiene, respectively, in this state for a period of _______.

Answer 23

• December *(Dentist License/Permit lasts from January 1st - December 31st). **APPLICATION MUST BE SUBMITTED ON OR BEFORE DECEMBER 31st!
• One (1) year

Question 24

Resident and fellowship permits shall be valid from _____ through ______ of each year and dental student intern permits shall be valid from _______ through ______ of each year.

Answer 24

• Residents/Fellowships: July 1 thru June 30.

- Intern: August 1 thru July 31.

Question 25

Continuing education requirements shall be due at the end of each three-year period as follows: 1. Dentists shall complete _____ hours.

Answer 25

• Sixty (60) hours

Question 26

In any matter involving a fatality or near fatality of a dental patient within ______ hours of receiving anesthesia, such matter shall be investigated by the Adverse Outcomes Review and Investigation Panel. Upon notification of a fatality to the Board, the President of the Board shall assign _____ members of the Anesthesia Committee.

Answer 26

• Forty-eight (48) hours

- Four Members

Question 27

Any person who violates any of the provisions of paragraph 1 or 3 of subsection B of this section, upon conviction, shall be guilty of a felony punishable by a fine in an amount not less than One Thousand Dollars ($1,000.00) nor more than Ten Thousand Dollars ($10,000.00), or by imprisonment in the county jail for a term of not more than one (1) year or imprisonment in the custody of the Department of Corrections for a term of not more than four (4) years, or by both such fine and imprisonment.
Any person who violates any of the provisions of paragraph 2 of subsection B of this section, upon conviction, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine in an amount not less than Five Hundred Dollars ($500.00) nor more than Two Thousand Five Hundred Dollars ($2,500.00), or by imprisonment in the county jail for a term of not more than ninety (90) days, or by both such fine and imprisonment. Any second or subsequent violation of paragraph 2 of subsection B of this section, upon conviction, shall be a felony punishable by a fine in an amount not less than One Thousand Five Hundred Dollars ($1,500.00) nor more than Five Thousand Dollars ($5,000.00), or by imprisonment in the county jail for a term of not more than one (1) year or imprisonment in the custody of the Department of Corrections for a term of not more than two (2) years, or by both such fine and imprisonment.

Answer 27

Any person who violates any of the provisions of paragraph 1 or 3 of subsection B of this section, upon conviction, shall be guilty of a felony punishable by a fine in an amount not less than One Thousand Dollars ($1,000.00) nor more than Ten Thousand Dollars ($10,000.00), or by imprisonment in the county jail for a term of not more than one (1) year or imprisonment in the custody of the Department of Corrections for a term of not more than four (4) years, or by both such fine and imprisonment.
Any person who violates any of the provisions of paragraph 2 of subsection B of this section, upon conviction, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine in an amount not less than Five Hundred Dollars ($500.00) nor more than Two Thousand Five Hundred Dollars ($2,500.00), or by imprisonment in the county jail for a term of not more than ninety (90) days, or by both such fine and imprisonment. Any second or subsequent violation of paragraph 2 of subsection B of this section, upon conviction, shall be a felony punishable by a fine in an amount not less than One Thousand Five Hundred Dollars ($1,500.00) nor more than Five Thousand Dollars ($5,000.00), or by imprisonment in the county jail for a term of not more than one (1) year or imprisonment in the custody of the Department of Corrections for a term of not more than two (2) years, or by both such fine and imprisonment.

Question 28

All dentists in active practice licensed by the Board of Dentistry shall maintain a policy for professional malpractice liability insurance; provided, however, that such requirement shall not apply to dentists:
1. Covered by a group or hospital malpractice insurance policy;
2. Practicing in a state facility subject to The Governmental Tort Claims Act, Section 151 et seq. of Title 51 of the Oklahoma Statutes;
3. Practicing in a federal facility subject to the Federal Tort Claims Act;
4. Providing care as a volunteer under a special volunteer license pursuant to Section 328.23a of this title;
5. Providing care as a retired dentist with a valid license in a volunteer, nonpaid capacity;
6. Practicing in another state or country, who will not practice within the State of Oklahoma during the license renewal year; or
7. A dentist may petition the Board to be temporarily exempted due to health, injury or other personal exigent circumstance during the year. A signed and sworn affidavit and other documentation may be required by the Board. The Board at its discretion may exempt a dentist for a specific stated period of time.
B. The Board of Dentistry may promulgate rules as necessary to carry out the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, minimum requirements for professional malpractice liability insurance policies and penalties for noncompliance.

Answer 28

All dentists in active practice licensed by the Board of Dentistry shall maintain a policy for professional malpractice liability insurance; provided, however, that such requirement shall not apply to dentists:
1. Covered by a group or hospital malpractice insurance policy;
2. Practicing in a state facility subject to The Governmental Tort Claims Act, Section 151 et seq. of Title 51 of the Oklahoma Statutes;
3. Practicing in a federal facility subject to the Federal Tort Claims Act;
4. Providing care as a volunteer under a special volunteer license pursuant to Section 328.23a of this title;
5. Providing care as a retired dentist with a valid license in a volunteer, nonpaid capacity;
6. Practicing in another state or country, who will not practice within the State of Oklahoma during the license renewal year; or
7. A dentist may petition the Board to be temporarily exempted due to health, injury or other personal exigent circumstance during the year. A signed and sworn affidavit and other documentation may be required by the Board. The Board at its discretion may exempt a dentist for a specific stated period of time.
B. The Board of Dentistry may promulgate rules as necessary to carry out the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, minimum requirements for professional malpractice liability insurance policies and penalties for noncompliance.

Question 29

Any person conducting a diagnosis for the purpose of prescribing medication or treatment or any other action determined to be a dental practice as defined by the State Dental Act, via the Internet or other telecommunications device on any patient that is physically located in this state shall hold a valid Oklahoma state dental license.

Answer 29

Any person conducting a diagnosis for the purpose of prescribing medication or treatment or any other action determined to be a dental practice as defined by the State Dental Act, via the Internet or other telecommunications device on any patient that is physically located in this state shall hold a valid Oklahoma state dental license.

Question 30

All licensees engaged in the practice of dentistry in this state shall notify the Board within _______ hours of the discovery of a death of a patient or an emergency hospital visit pursuant to treatment in a dental office and potentially related to the practice of dentistry by the licensee. A licensee shall submit a ______ to the Board of any fatality or serious injury occurring during the practice of dentistry or the discovery of the death of a patient whose death is causally related to the practice of dentistry by the licensee within _____ days of such occurrence.

Answer 30

• Twenty-four (24) hours

- Complete report, within thirty (30) days

Question 31

A Dentist must Notify the Board within ______ hours of discovery that an employee or other person, known or unknown, has forged or authorized without the dentist’s permission, a prescription via a telecommunications device, electronic prescribing device, written prescription, or otherwise communicated.

Answer 31

• twenty-four (24) hours

Question 32

A patient may voluntarily seek review of a course of treatment rendered by a dentist. If the patient elects to participate in the mediation procedure, the patient must file a written request for the review with a mediation committee in accordance with such rules that the organizations appointing the mediation committee may prescribe. In the request for review, the patient must provide the mediation committee with a true and correct statement of all material facts relating to the course of treatment complained of, the nature of the complaint, and the requested relief sought, in addition to any other requirements that may be prescribed by rule. The dentist shall thereafter submit a true and correct statement of all material facts relating to the course of treatment complained of, the nature of the complaint, and the dentist’s recommended action, if any, in addition to any other requirements that may be prescribed by rule.

Answer 32

A patient may voluntarily seek review of a course of treatment rendered by a dentist. If the patient elects to participate in the mediation procedure, the patient must file a written request for the review with a mediation committee in accordance with such rules that the organizations appointing the mediation committee may prescribe. In the request for review, the patient must provide the mediation committee with a true and correct statement of all material facts relating to the course of treatment complained of, the nature of the complaint, and the requested relief sought, in addition to any other requirements that may be prescribed by rule. The dentist shall thereafter submit a true and correct statement of all material facts relating to the course of treatment complained of, the nature of the complaint, and the dentist’s recommended action, if any, in addition to any other requirements that may be prescribed by rule.

Question 33

“Advanced procedure” means a dental procedure for which a dental hygienist has received special training in a course of study approved by the Board.
“Expanded duty” means a dental procedure for which a dental assistant has received special training in a course of study approved by the Board.
The primary responsibility of the Dentist is to ensure that the dental hygienists or dental assistants do not perform any procedure or duty except as authorized

Answer 33

“Advanced procedure” means a dental procedure for which a dental hygienist has received special training in a course of study approved by the Board.
“Expanded duty” means a dental procedure for which a dental assistant has received special training in a course of study approved by the Board.
The primary responsibility of the Dentist is to ensure that the dental hygienists or dental assistants do not perform any procedure or duty except as authorized

Question 34

Assistant Responsibilities:
It is the determination of the Board that many duties performed by a dental assistant are of a nature which do not require formal training or a permit from the Board in order to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public. A dentist may delegate to a dental assistant any duty for which the dental assistant has received adequate office-based training by the supervisory dentist to ensure that the dental assistant is properly aware of all requirements and responsibilities of each duty to be performed.
Duties delegated to a dental assistant may be performed only on a patient of record and only under the direct supervision of a dentist.
The Board hereby establishes four (4) expanded duty permits for dental assistants, what are they?

Answer 34

• Radiation Safety: May expose intra-oral and extraoral radiographs.
• Coronal Polishing/Topical Fluoride: Polish coronal surfaces of teeth, or prepare teeth for band cementation or bonding of brackets utilizing a slow speed rotary hand piece and rubber cup or brush (examination for calculus and scaling must be done by a dentist or dental hygienist), and apply topical fluoride and desensitizing agents.
• Sealants: A dental assistant holding this expanded duty
  permit may place pit and fissure sealants.
• Nitrous Oxide: A dental assistant holding this expanded duty permit may assist a dentist or a dental hygienist who holds an advanced procedure permit in the administration of nitrous oxide. THEY CANNOT ADMINISTER NITROUS! THEY CAN ONLY ASSIST IN THE ADMINISTRATION.
  **After satisfactory completion of each course of study, each applicant shall submit written verification from the applicant’s current employing dentist attesting to competent clinical experience. All applications shall contain both signatures of the employing dentist and the student.

Question 35

Duties NOT assignable to dental assistants: (14)

Answer 35

(1) Diagnosis;
(2) Treatment planning;
(3) Prescription of medications;
(4) Final placement or removal of orthodontic brackets and
bands;
(5) Removal of fully hardened cement;
(6) Surgery or the cutting or severance of hard and soft
tissue;
(7) Placement or adjustment of any removable or fixed
prosthesis;
(8) Placement or removal of restorative materials in a human
oral cavity;
(9) Administration of injectable local anesthesia;
(10) Utilization of a laser;
(11) Administration of nitrous oxide;
(12) Any procedure that may contribute to or result in an
irreversible alteration of the human oral anatomy;
(13) An expanded duty as set forth in 195:15-1-4, when the dental assistant does not hold a current permit issued by the
Board for the expanded duty; and
(14) Those procedures allocated exclusively to dental hygienists
by 195:15-1-6 or the State Dental Act.

Question 36

Procedures that CAN be delegated to dental hygienists: (15)
***The procedures specified may be performed by a dental hygienist only on a patient of record and only under the supervision of a dentist. The level of supervision, whether direct, indirect or general, shall be at the discretion of the supervisory dentist.

Answer 36

(1) The procedures and expanded duties authorized for dental
assistants as set forth in 195:15-1-3 and 195:15-1-4.;
(2) The procedures set forth in 59 O.S., Section 328.34;
(3) Health history assessment pertaining to dental
hygiene;
(4) Dental hygiene examination and the charting of intra-oral
and extra-oral conditions, which include periodontal
charting, dental charting, and classifying occlusion;
(5) Dental hygiene assessment and treatment planning for
procedures authorized by the supervisory dentist;
(6) Prophylaxis, which means the removal of calcareous deposits, stains, accretions, or concretions from the supragingival and subgingival surfaces of the teeth utilizing instrumentation by scaler or periodontal curette on the crown and root surfaces of human teeth, including rotary or power driven instruments. (This section shall not be construed to prohibit the use of a rubber cup or brush on the crowns of human teeth by a dental assistant, who holds a current expanded duty permit for Coronal
Polishing/Topical Fluoride issued by the Board.);
(7) Periodontal scaling and root planing;
(8) Dental hygiene nutritional and dietary evaluation;
(9) Placement of subgingival prescription drugs for prevention
and treatment of periodontal disease;
(10) Soft tissue curettage;
(11) Placement of temporary fillings;
(12) Removal of overhanging margins;
(13) Dental implant maintenance;
(14) Removal of periodontal packs, and;
(15) Polishing of amalgam restorations.

Question 37

Advanced procedures for dental hygienists: (2)

Answer 37

• Nitrous Oxide: A dental hygienist authorized by the Board to perform this advanced procedure may administer nitrous oxide.
• Local Anesthesia: A dental hygienist authorized by the Board to perform this advanced procedure may administer local anesthesia.

Question 38

What is a medical micropigmentologist? What are the two requirements for a dentist to have a Medical Micropigmentologist working at their practice? A dentist may not, at any time, directly supervise more than ___ micropigmentologists in his dental office.
**A supervising dentist or a certified micropigmentologist in a dental office shall only perform medical micropigmentation procedures on the hard and soft tissues of the oral and maxillofacial region.

Answer 38

• Permanent Makeup/Esthetics
  Requirements:
  (1) Have possession of a full and unrestricted license to practice dentistry or a specialty in a particular branch of dentistry in Oklahoma.
  (2) The supervising dentist shall be in full time practice with a minimum of twenty (20) hours per week of direct patient contact.
• Two

Question 39

Conscious Anesthesia definition.

Answer 39

• Conscious Anesthesia: A MINIMALLY depressed level of CONSCIOUSNESS that retains the patient’s ABILITY to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command, produced by a pharmacologic or non- pharmacologic method, or combination thereof. Drugs and techniques utilized should carry a margin of safety wide enough to render unintended loss of consciousness highly unlikely.

Question 40

Deep Sedation definition.

Answer 40

• Deep Sedation: Means a controlled state of DEPRESSED CONSCIOUSNESS, accompanied by partial or complete loss of protective reflexes, including the INABILITY to independently maintain an airway and respond purposefully to physical stimulation or verbal command, produced by a pharmacologic or non-pharmacologic method, or a combination thereof.

Question 41

General Anesthesia definition.

Answer 41

• General Anesthesia: A controlled state of UNCONSCIOUSNESS, accompanied by partial or complete loss of protective reflexes, including INABILITY to independently maintain an airway and respond purposefully to physical stimulation or verbal command, produced by a pharmacologic or non-pharmacologic method, or a combination thereof.

Question 42

Define Parenteral along with the 6 possible forms:

Answer 42

means a technique of administration in which the drug bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and includes: 
intramuscular (IM)
intravenous (IV)
intranasal (IN)
submucosal (SM)
subcutaneous (SC)
intraocular (IO).

Question 43

Pediatric conscious sedation required training for patients 12 or younger: (5)
**To renew a permit for conscious sedation, 6 hours of courses every 3 years.

Answer 43

For patients ages twelve (12) years and under must satisfy at least ONE of the following requirements:

• Accrued a minimum of sixteen (16) hours training in enteral conscious sedation techniques
• Currently holds a provider permit in the state of Oklahoma to administer conscious sedation.
• Satisfactory completion of a postgraduate program in oral and maxillofacial surgery or pediatric dentistry.
• Satisfactory completion of a general practice residency or other advanced education in a general dentistry.
• Licensed dentists in the state of Oklahoma who have provided pediatric conscious sedation utilizing enteral methods to dental patients ages twelve (12) years and under in a safe, competent, ethical, and effective manner in the past.

Question 44

Required training for conscious sedation: (6)
**No dentist shall administer conscious sedation using parenteral methods for dental patients, unless such dentist possesses a permit or authorization issued by the Oklahoma Dental Board for the administration of conscious sedation using parenteral methods. A dentist is permitted to Directly supervise the administration of parenteral conscious sedation to patients by a CRNA.

Answer 44

• Has accrued a minimum of sixty (60) hours training.
• Currently hold a permit in the State of Oklahoma to provide general anesthesia (to include deep sedation).
• Completion of an American Dental Association approved advanced dental education program which includes at least sixty (60) hours of comprehensive and appropriate training.
  (1) Current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS) and
  Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) or Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) by the American Heart Association.
  (2) Two (2) assistants involved in the procedure currently certified in Basic Life Support for Health Care Providers by the American Heart Association.
  (3) Complete every three (3) years at least six (6) hours of courses related to the administration of sedation, anesthesia or medical emergencies in the dental office. These six (6) hours are in addition to those accrued completing certification or re-certification in BLS and ACLS or PALS.

Question 45

General anesthesia (to include deep sedation) Required training. Every dentist who administers general anesthesia or deep sedation must meet ONE of the following
requirements: (7) **A dentist is permitted to directly supervise the administration of general anesthesia (including deep sedation) to patients by a CRNA.

Answer 45

(1) A minimum of two years of post-doctoral training in
anesthesiology as described by the American Dental Association.
(2) A dentist with one year of post-doctoral training in anesthesiology with a current general anesthesia permit will be grandfathered,
(3) Specialty certification in oral and maxillofacial surgery.
(4) Certification as a fellow in Anesthesia by the American
Dental Society of Anesthesiology.
(1) Current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS) and
Advanced Life Support (ACLS) or Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) by the American Heart Association.
(2) Two (2) assistants involved in the procedure currentlycertified in Basic Life Support for Health Care Providers
by the American Heart Association.
(3) Complete every three years at least six (6) hours of courses
related to the administration of anesthesia, sedation or medical emergencies in the dental office. These hours are in addition to those accrued completing certification or re-certification in BLS and ACLS or PALS.

Question 46

Minimal standards for dentists utilizing enteral
conscious sedation (oral, rectal, sublingual)
(a) Every dentist who utilizes enteral conscious sedation (oral, rectal, sublingual) shall be responsible for all aspects of the procedure as outlined in Part I, Section V of the American Dental Association Guidelines for the Use of Conscious Sedation, Deep Sedation and General Anesthesia for Dentists. This shall include careful patient evaluation and informed consent prior to the start of any sedation procedure. Continuous monitoring of what three things needs to be done? Documentation of all procedures, drugs, and agents on an appropriate time-oriented anesthesia record shall be completed for each patient. The dentist performing the sedation is required to be in the patient’s presence at all times during the procedure. No provider shall have more than one (1) patient under any form of sedation at the same time, exclusive of recovery. Supervised recovery and complete evaluation of the patient prior to discharge to a responsible adult is required. Minimal monitoring equipment shall include what two things?
(b) The anesthesia provider is responsible for the anesthetic management, adequacy of the facility, and treatment of emergencies associated with administration of enteral conscious sedation, including immediate access to pharmacologic antagonists, if any, and appropriately sized equipment for establishing a patent airway and providing positive pressure ventilation with oxygen.

Answer 46

Enteral Conscious Sedation
Continuous monitoring of:
- Oxygenation
- Ventilation
- Circulation

Minimal Monitoring Equipment:

• Blood pressure apparatus (manual or automatic).
• Pulse oximeter.

Question 47

Minimal standards for dentists utilizing conscious sedation by parenteral methods

(a) Every dentist who utilizes conscious sedation by parenteral methods shall be responsible for all aspects of the procedure as outlined in Part I, Section V of the American Dental Association Guidelines for the Use of Conscious Sedation, Deep Sedation and General Anesthesia for Dentists. This shall include careful patient evaluation and informed consent prior to the start of any sedation procedure. Continuous monitoring of oxygenation, ventilation, and circulation with documentation of all procedures, drugs, and agents on an appropriate time-oriented anesthesia record shall be completed for each patient. The dentist performing the sedation is required to be in the patient’s presence at all times during the procedure. No provider shall have more than one (1) patient under any form of sedation at the same time, exclusive of recovery. Supervised recovery and complete evaluation of the patient prior to discharge to a responsible adult is required. What is the minimal monitoring equipment required? (6)
(b) The anesthesia permit provider is responsible for the anesthetic management, adequacy of the facility, and treatment of emergencies associated with administration of parenteral conscious sedation, including immediate access to pharmacologic antagonists, if any, and appropriately sized equipment for establishing a patent airway and providing positive pressure ventilation with oxygen.

Answer 47

Conscious Sedation (Parenteral)
Minimal monitoring equipment shall include:
- Blood pressure apparatus (manual or automatic)
- Pulse oximeter
- End-tidal carbon dioxide monitor (intubated patients)
- Temperature monitor
- Electrocardiograph
- Defibrillator.

Question 48

Minimal standards for dentists utilizing general anesthesia or deep sedation

(a) Every dentist who utilizes general anesthesia or deep sedation shall be responsible for all aspects of the procedure as outlined in Part I, Section V in the American Dental Association Guidelines for the Use of Conscious Sedation, Deep Sedation and General Anesthesia for dentists and/or the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon’s “Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual.” This shall include careful patient evaluation and informed consent prior to the start of any anesthetic procedure. Continuous monitoring of oxygenation, ventilation, and circulation with documentation of all procedures, drugs, and agents on an appropriate time-oriented anesthesia record shall be completed for each patient. A device capable of measuring body temperature should be readily available, if needed, during the administration of deep sedation/general anesthesia. When agents implicated in precipitating malignant hyperthermia are utilized, continual monitoring of body temperature must be performed. The dentist performing the anesthesia is required to be in the patient’s presence at all times during the procedure. No provider shall have more than one patient under any form of sedation or anesthesia at the same time, exclusive of recovery. Supervised recovery and complete evaluation of the patient prior to discharge to a responsible adult is required. Minimal monitoring equipment shall include what 6 things?
(b) The anesthesia permit provider is responsible for the anesthetic management, adequacy of the facility, and treatment of emergencies associated with the administration of general anesthesia, including immediate access to pharmacologic antagonists, if any, and appropriately sized equipment for establishing a patent airway and providing positive pressure ventilation with oxygen.

Answer 48

General Anesthesia or Deep Sedation:
Minimal monitoring equipment shall include:
- Blood pressure apparatus (manual or automatic)
- Pulse oximeter
- End-tidal carbon dioxide monitor (intubated patients)
- Temperature monitor
- Electrocardiograph
- Defibrillator

Question 49

The Anesthesia Advisory Committee shall be composed of:

Answer 49

(1) A dentist who holds a general anesthesia provider
permit;
(2) A dentist who holds a conscious sedation provider permit;
(3) A dentist provider permit holder at large;
(4) A current dentist member of the Board;
(5) A dentist who holds a pediatric conscious sedation
provider permit.

Question 50

CE Information:

• Any course is acceptable that contributes to updating and maintaining the knowledge and skills of the dentist and dental hygienist in the treatment of the individual dental patient.
• Courses directly related to provision of services and patient care shall be considered for credit. Courses dealing substantially with other subjects of professional concern are outside the scope of the continuing dental education program. Such courses or programs would include money management, investments, and professional organizational business meetings. However, the Board may allow exception as specified in Category D.
• Proof of CPR course provided by the American Heart Association/ Health Care Provider Level or the American Red Cross/Professional Rescuer shall be required for every licensed dentist and dental hygienist once in each three (3) year reporting cycle. Courses for the Professional Rescuer sponsored by the American Safety and Health Institute and Programs sponsored by the Veterans Administration or Armed Forces shall also be recognized for approval.
• Proof of a course in Ethics shall be required for every licensed dentist and dental hygienist once in each three (3) year reporting cycle. Courses shall be given hour for hour credit. Dentists and dental hygienists may obtain continuing education in ethics from any designated category.

Answer 50

CE HOURS:

• Sixty (60) credit hours for every three (3) year reporting period.
• The continuing education requirements for new graduates (dentists and dental hygienists) will begin July 1, of the calendar year following their year of graduation.

Question 51

• At least 50% of the continuing education requirement must be from category A and/or B. Not more than 50% of the requirement can be obtained from Category C.
• Category A:
  (A) Formalized structured learning situations at colleges or universities at regular undergraduate or college course levels will be allowed one (1) hour credit for each hour in attendance. Regular university or college courses are evaluated at semester hour, i.e.: A dentally related three (3) hour college credit course will be allowed three (3) hours of continuing education credit.
  (B) Any university may co-sponsor a program within the State of Oklahoma. They must send a copy of the letter to the Board.
  (C) Programs sponsored by the Veterans Administration or Armed Forces, given at a government facility will be granted hour for hour credit without university co- sponsorship.
• Category B:
  (A) Formalized Meetings:
  Meetings of the following recognized groups will be granted hour for hour credit for the scientific portions of their programs:
  (i) National professional organizations and their components
  (ii) University sponsored professional Alumni clinical
  meetings
  (iii) Organized Dental or Dental Hygiene Study Club
  Meetings
  (iv) Seminars–sponsored by recognized Dental/Dental
  Hygiene constituent societies
  (B) Advanced Study:
  Graduate study, internships, residencies, Dentists or hygienists engaged in acceptable full-time programs will fulfill their continuing education requirements for each calendar year in which they are actively participating in such programs by nature of these activities, and will have no additional formal requirements for that year. However, persons so engaged must notify the Board.

Answer 51

• Category C.
  (A) Publishing Papers – Presenting clinics – Lecturing- Teaching: these activities will be granted six (6) hour credit for each hour of the original presentation, and hour for hour credit for additional presentation of the same material. Full or part-time teaching will receive credit for the semester credit hours. One (1) hour credit can be recorded for every 18 hours of clinical instruction. (B) Self-Instructional Programs – Study Tapes- Correspondence Programs: These programs will be granted hour for hour credit. Only 50% of
  the total requirement may be obtained through this category.
  The dentists or dental hygienists must submit a certificate of registration from the sponsoring institution, organization or study club or have the participation in the course verified by the sponsoring agency in a manner specified by the Board Continuing Education Committee to be considered for approval.
  (C) Volunteer Service- Licensees who donate their expertise for the dental care and treatment of indigent and needy persons shall be granted hour for hour credit for up to ten (10) hours for a dentist and five (5) hours for a dental hygienist within a reporting cycle. Dentists and dental hygienists must submit proof of actual volunteer work from a recognized entity approved by the Board. Volunteer service submitted for credit shall not receive or have the expectation to receive any payment or compensation, either direct or indirect, for any dental.
• Category D:
  Exceptions: Exceptions will be considered at the discretion of the Board.
  (A) No more than six (6) hours of the sixty (60) hour requirement for dentists can be from practice management type courses.
  (B) No more than three (3) hours of the thirty (30) hour requirement for dental hygienists can be from practice management type courses.

Question 52

Form for reporting. Continuing education credits shall be reported by dentists and dental hygienists on a form specified and furnished by the Board.
(b) Time for forwarding form. Forms must be forwarded to the Board office. All continuing education reporting shall occur at the discretion of the licensee either annually or at the end of the three (3) year reporting period.
(c) Hours beyond requirement. Continuing education hours acquired beyond the requirement cannot be credited to the next reporting period. Hours acquired in excess of the requirement will not be reported or maintained.
(d) Requirement for individuals licensed in the midst of a reporting cycle. Those individuals who are licensed in the midst of a reporting cycle will have a pro-rated requirement, beginning July 1 following the date of licensure. Dentists must accumulate twenty (20) hours per year and dental hygienists ten (10) hours per year until the end of the reporting period. All pro-rated licensees shall submit continuing education forms annually.
(e) Random audits shall be conducted as directed by the Board at the end of the reporting period. An audit shall require documentation to match the information submitted to the Board on the continuing
education form.

Answer 52

Form for reporting. Continuing education credits shall be reported by dentists and dental hygienists on a form specified and furnished by the Board.
(b) Time for forwarding form. Forms must be forwarded to the Board office. All continuing education reporting shall occur at the discretion of the licensee either annually or at the end of the three (3) year reporting period.
(c) Hours beyond requirement. Continuing education hours acquired beyond the requirement cannot be credited to the next reporting period. Hours acquired in excess of the requirement will not be reported or maintained.
(d) Requirement for individuals licensed in the midst of a reporting cycle. Those individuals who are licensed in the midst of a reporting cycle will have a pro-rated requirement, beginning July 1 following the date of licensure. Dentists must accumulate twenty (20) hours per year and dental hygienists ten (10) hours per year until the end of the reporting period. All pro-rated licensees shall submit continuing education forms annually.
(e) Random audits shall be conducted as directed by the Board at the end of the reporting period. An audit shall require documentation to match the information submitted to the Board on the continuing
education form.

Question 53

All licensed dentists or dental hygienists who fail to submit the prerequisite number of hours during the reporting period(s) ending on June 30th shall receive a monetary fine. The Board shall send a certified notice to all dentists and dental hygienists who fail to comply with the requirement sixty (60) days after the June 30 ending date of the reporting period. A monetary fine of one thousand dollars ($1000.00) for dentists and five hundred dollars ($500.00) for dental hygienists shall be assessed. for failing to submit the required continuing education. All monetary fines shall be paid by certified check or money order to the Board of Dentistry on or before December 1st of the year the continuing education is due. Failure to submit the monetary fine shall result in the failure to secure a renewal certificate.

Answer 53

All licensed dentists or dental hygienists who fail to submit the prerequisite number of hours during the reporting period(s) ending on June 30th shall receive a monetary fine. The Board shall send a certified notice to all dentists and dental hygienists who fail to comply with the requirement sixty (60) days after the June 30 ending date of the reporting period. A monetary fine of one thousand dollars ($1000.00) for dentists and five hundred dollars ($500.00) for dental hygienists shall be assessed. for failing to submit the required continuing education. All monetary fines shall be paid by certified check or money order to the Board of Dentistry on or before December 1st of the year the continuing education is due. Failure to submit the monetary fine shall result in the failure to secure a renewal certificate.

Question 54

Disinfect vs Sterilization:

Answer 54

“Disinfection” means the partial elimination of active growth stage bacteria and the inactivation of some viruses. The potential for infection remains after disinfection, including infection with M tuberculosis, hepatitis A virus (HAV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV). The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may also remain active following disinfection.
“Sterilization” means a process by which all forms of life within a defined environment are completely destroyed.

Question 55

All instruments subject to sterilization must undergo at least one of the following procedures:
(1) Steam autoclave
(2) Chemical vapor autoclave
(3) Dry-heat oven
(4) Ethylene oxide
(5) Chemical sterilant (used in concentrations and time
periods approved by the manufacturer)

Answer 55

All instruments subject to sterilization must undergo at least one of the following procedures:
(1) Steam autoclave
(2) Chemical vapor autoclave
(3) Dry-heat oven
(4) Ethylene oxide
(5) Chemical sterilant (used in concentrations and time
periods approved by the manufacturer)