JW B/B Missed Questions

Question 1

What is ubiquitination?

Answer 1

It is a post-translational modification which targets a protein for degradation at a proteasome.

The protein ubiquitin is appended to another protein of interest.

Question 2

What is glycosylation?

Answer 2

Process in which a carbohydrate is covalently attached to a target macromolecule.

Question 3

Describe prenylation.

Answer 3

Prenylation is the first step for membrane targeting and binding. It is involved in mediating protein-protein interactions.

Question 4

What is anterograde movement?

Answer 4

Movement from the center of the cell towards the outside of the cell.

Center—–> cell periphery

Question 5

What is retrograde movement?

Answer 5

Movement from the periphery of the cell towards the center.

Question 6

What are some categories of hydrolases?

Answer 6

Hydrolases are a class of enzymes that breaks down covalent bonds using water.
Examples, include protease, phosphatase, and GTPase.

Question 7

Describe complex II of the electron transport chain.

Answer 7

Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase) uses FADH2 to reduce succinate to fumarate. Succinate dehydrogenase is a key enzyme of the citric acid cycle.

Question 8

What is the appoximate LD50 of rotenolone for a child who weighs 40 kilograms?

Answer 8

Question 9

How can a protein isoform be created?

Answer 9

A protein isoform can be created through occasional exon splicing.

Before eukaryotic RNA is translated into proteins, it must be post-transcriptionally processed in the nucleus. During the processing of immature RNA numerous modifications are made such as the addition of a 5’ cap and Poly A tail, intron splicing, and occasional alternative splicing when RNA exons are removed. By splicing out some exons, different versions of a gene can be created.

Question 10

Answer 10

5’ GCGCGUAUAGCU 3’

Question 11

Which enzymes are used during the process of HIV-1 infection into the host cell genome?

Answer 11

Reverse transcriptase and viral integrase

Question 12

Explain the function of lyase enzyme.

Answer 12

Lyase enzymes are a class of enzymes which catalyses the breaking of covalent bonds, often resulting in the formation of a double bond.

Question 13

Explain the Gq family of GPCR’s

Answer 13

The Gq family of GPCRs activate phospholipases which hydrolyzes PIP2 to IP3 and DAG.

Question 14

Explain the Gs family of GPCR’s

Answer 14

The Gs family of GPCRs is coupled with adenylate cyclase activation which increases levels of cAMP.

Question 15

What does carcinogenesis mean ? Also, provide some reasons that would cause this to occur.

Answer 15

Carcinogenesis is the initiation of cancer.

Factors that could lead to it
-Loss of cell cycle control
-Loss of the ability to respond to extrinsic apoptotic signaling
-Loss of DNA repair machinery
-Upregulation of proteins that promote replication

Question 16

Explain a protooncogene and what occurs when it becomes activated.

Answer 16

A protooncogene is a gene that normally promotes the cell cycle. When mutated to become constitutively active, a protooncogene becomes an oncogene, which allows the cell cycle to occur out of control.

Question 17

PCR primers

Answer 17

PCR requires 2 primers in order for DNA polymerase to correctly bind to and synthesize the necessary sequence. The primers must point in the 5’-3’ direction.

Question 18

What are regions of repetitive DNA?

Answer 18

Repetitive DNA is regions of DNA which are noncoding and contain repeat DNA sequences. These include transposons and microsatellites.

Question 19

What method is best to visualize the structure of the RNA polymerase II active site?

Answer 19

X-ray crystallography.

It is a technique used to obtain the 3-D structure of a particular protein through the X-ray diffraction of its crystallized form.

Question 20

How can fatty acids enter the mitochondrial matrix?

Answer 20

Small fatty acids are able to pass directly through the mitochondrial membranes to participate in beta oxidation. (Simple diffusion).

Long chain fatty acids needs help (facilitated diffusion)

Simple and facilitated diffusion are both examples of passive diffusion which do not require ATP.

Question 21

Explain what is an agonist.

Answer 21

Agonist are molecules which fit the ligand-binding site of a receptor and cause activation of that receptor.

Question 22

Explain what is an antagonist.

Answer 22

Antagonist is a molecule which fits the ligand-binding site of a receptor and causes inhibition of that receptor.

Question 23

What is an totipotent cell?

Answer 23

Totipotent cells are cells that can form any cell of the body.

DEGREE OF SPECIALIZATION IS AS FOLLOWS: TOTIPOTENT, PLURIPOTENT, MULLTIPOTENT.

Question 24

What is the primary purpose of real time quantitative PCR (real time qPCR)?

Answer 24

To determine gene expression.
Greater readouts from real time qPCR indicate that a gene is more heavily expressed in a cell and that a gene is more heavily expressed in a cell and that a cell is producing a greater number of RNA transcripts of that gene.

Question 25

Explain the role of snRNPs?

Answer 25

A snRNP is composed of snRNA and proteins, several snRNPs compose a spliceosome complex. Spliceosome complex play an important role in pre-mRNA processing, working to splice introns from the code and join exons.

EXons are Expressed.

Question 26

What is a frameshift mutation?

Answer 26

Frameshift mutations are deletions or insertions that result in a number of nucleotides bases being lost from a gene that is not evenly divisible by 3.

Question 27

What arises from the mesoderm?

Answer 27

Think of moving/muscle/ getting around.
Muscles, cardiovascular, urogenital organs, dermis of skin, connective tissue.

Muscle, connective tissues, blood cells, and blood vessels are derived from.

Question 28

What arises from the ectoderm?

Answer 28

Think about attraction.
Nervous system (brain/spinal cord), cornea, epidermis of skin, nasal, oral, and anal epithelium, pituitary gland.

The ectoderm is primarily composed of skin and nervous structures.

Question 29

What arises from the endoderm?

Answer 29

Think of tubing systems

GI system, respiratory system, GI glands, urinary ducts, epithelium of urogenital organs.

The endoderm gives rise to digestive tract and accessory digestive structures.

Question 30

Describe the function of scramblase, flippases, and floppase.

Answer 30

Scramblase are ATP-independent enzymes which move phospholipids from the inner leaflet of a cell membrane to the outer leaflet simultaneously moving phospholipids from the outer leaflet to the inner leaflet.

Flippases are ATP dependent and move phospholipids from the outside in.

Floppases are ATP dependent and move phospholipids from the inside out.

Question 31

What are the 4 general regions of the brain?

Answer 31

Temporal lobe- primary auditory complex and is involved in audition

Parietal lobe- intergrates sensory input from the visual system to form a single perception.

Occipital lobe- involved in visual processing

Frontal lobe- important for voluntary movement, expressive language, and for managing higher level executive functions.

Question 32

What is true of an enveloped virus?

Answer 32

An enveloped virus has a lipid membrane that is obtained while budding from the host cell.

Enveloped viruses have:
host proteins
viral glycoproteins
phospholipids

Viruses w/out an envelope have a capsid.

Question 33

What properties are important to target when making a vaccine?

Answer 33

Vaccines induce the production of antibodies against a specific antigen.

A good antigen is one that induces a strong immune response and highly conserved ( present on all strains of a virus)