K101 Final Exam Practice Unit 5 Flashcards by Anna Abid

Ch 20: By fusing protein-coding eukaryotic DNA with bacterial promoter sequences, scientists can ensure:

A. that bacterial DNA sequences will be inserted into the eukaryotic DNA sequence.
B. that the eukaryotic DNA can be expressed in bacterial cells.
C. that no mutations will occur within the eukaryotic sequence.
D. that transcription of the eukaryotic DNA will not occur.
E. that introns of the eukaryotic DNA will not be expressed.

B. that the eukaryotic DNA can be expressed in bacterial cells.

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Ch 20: Which of the recombinant DNA drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication (the disease it is prescribed to treat)?

A. Humulin (Lilly): Diabetes (Insulin)
B. Epogen (Amgen): Anemia (Erythropoetin)
C. Neupogen (Amgen): Multiple sclerosis (interferon)
D. Activase/TNKase (Genentech): AMI - Acure myocardial infarction (heart attack)
E. Regranex (Novartis): Diabetic foot ulcers (PDGF)

C. Neupogen (Amgen): Multiple sclerosis (interferon)

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Ch 20: What process or enzyme was used for Step 1 at right?

A. PCR
B. a bacteriophage
C. a reverse transcriptase
D. a DNA ligase
E. a restriction enzyme

E. a restriction enzyme

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Ch 20: In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate in cycles. An original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total cycles to amplify the DNA ~1 billion times? (What about 2 billion times? What about 1 trillion times?)

A. 20
B. 21
C. 30
D. 31
E. 40

C. 30

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Ch 20: Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule at right?

A. ligase
B. transcriptase
C. a restriction enzyme
D. RNA polymerase
E. DNA polymerase

C. a restriction enzyme

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Ch 20: Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat: Herceptin

A. RSV (Respiratory syncytial Virus
B. Cancer (anti-VEGF, anti angiogenesis)
C. HER-2+ breast cancer
D. CD20+ Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
E. T-cell autoimmune diseases like Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis

C. HER-2+ breast cancer

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Ch 20: Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat: Rituxin

D. CD20+ Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

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Ch 20: Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat: Enbrel

E. T-cell autoimmune diseases like Rheumatoid arthritis and Psoriasis

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Ch 20: Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat: Synagis

A. RSV (Respiratory syncytial Virus

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Ch 20: Match the mAb (monoclonal Antibody) drug with the disease it is intended to treat: Avastin

B. Cancer (anti-VEGF, anti angiogenesis)

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Ch 20: Gene Therapy treatments with new drugs like Kymriah and Yescarta (select all that apply)

A. Provide a safer bone marrow transplant procedure using matched donors
B. Are the first FDA-approved drugs for personalized immunotherapy to treat specific leukemias
C. Involve the use of a genetically engineered Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell to recognize proteins like CD19 on cancer cells
D. Require the formation of a blastocyst that is then used for gene editing
e. Can cure autoimmune disprders like diabetes and nultiple sclerosis

B. Are the first FDA-approved drugs for personalized immunotherapy to treat specific leukemias
C. Involve the use of a genetically engineered Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell to recognize proteins like CD19 on cancer cells

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Ch 20: .Match the following compoments of the CRISPR Cas9 Gene Editing system to their function: Cas9

A. An endonuclease that can create double strand breaks in DNA
B. An RNA molecule engineered to be complementary to the target to be edited
C. A 3-6 nucleotide DNA sequence immediately downstream of the target site in the genomic DNA to be edited

A. An endonuclease that can create double strand breaks in DNA

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Ch 20: .Match the following compoments of the CRISPR Cas9 Gene Editing system to their function: sgRNA

B. An RNA molecule engineered to be complementary to the target to be edited

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Ch 20: .Match the following compoments of the CRISPR Cas9 Gene Editing system to their function: PAM

C. A 3-6 nucleotide DNA sequence immediately downstream of the target site in the genomic DNA to be edited

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Ch 20: Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding the procedure for making cloned animals by somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A. The recipient egg is e-nucleated before the procedure
B. The donor nucleus can be either from a male or a female cell
C. The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell
D. A brief electric shock is used to simulate fertilization
E. A surrogate mother is used to carry the pregnancy to term

C. The donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Ian Wilmut

A. first human gene therapy
B. dideoxy DNA sequencing
C. isolation of bacterial plasmids
D. cloning of dolly the sheep
E. derivation of human embryonic cells
F. whole genome shotgun sequencing
G. CRISPR Cas9
H. isolation of restriction enzymes, founder of Genentech
I. polymerase chain reaction
j. induced pleuripotent stem cells

D. cloning of dolly the sheep

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Jennifer Duodna

G. CRISPR Cas9

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: W. French Anderson

A first human gene therapy

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Shinya Yamanaka

j. induced pleuripotent stem cells

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Stanley Cohen

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Kary Mullis

I. polymerase chain reaction

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Herb Boyer

H. isolation of restriction enzymes, founder of Genentech

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: James Thompson

E. derivation of human embryonic cells

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Fred Sanger

B. dideoxy DNA sequencing

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Ch 20: Where would Biotech be without these scientists? Briefly describe the contribution (experiment, technique) of these scientists in the timeline of Biotechnology::: Craig Venter A. first human gene therapy B. dideoxy DNA sequencing C. isolation of bacterial plasmids D. cloning of dolly the sheep E. derivation of human embryonic cells F. whole genome shotgun sequencing G. CRISPR Cas9 H. isolation of restriction enzymes, founder of Genentech I. polymerase chain reaction j. induced pleuripotent stem cells

F. whole genome shotgun sequencing

Ch 20: Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame: Idaho Gem A. first cloned housecat (female calico) B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin C. First cloned mule D. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants E. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research F. First cloned mammal (1996)

C. first cloned mule

Ch 20: Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame: Dolly A. first cloned housecat (female calico) B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin C. First cloned mule D. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants E. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research F. First cloned mammal (1996)

F. first cloned mammal (1996)

Ch 20: Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame: Prometia A. first cloned housecat (female calico) B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin C. First cloned mule D. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants E. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research F. First cloned mammal (1996)

B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin

Ch 20: Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame: Zhong Zhong A. first cloned housecat (female calico) B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin C. First cloned mule D. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants E. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research F. First cloned mammal (1996)

E. first cloned macaque for neuroscience research

Ch 20: Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame: Cc A. first cloned housecat (female calico) B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin C. First cloned mule D. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants E. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research F. First cloned mammal (1996)

A. first cloned housecat (female calico)

Ch 20: Match the cloned animal with their claim to fame: Joy A. first cloned housecat (female calico) B. first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin C. First cloned mule D. First cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants E. First cloned macaque for neuroscience research F. First cloned mammal (1996

D. first cloned piggie engineered for human organ transplants

Ch 20: Human embryonic stem cells (hES cells) and Human Induced Pleuripotent Stem Cells (hiPS)may be useful in transplantation medicine because the cells A. Are pleuripotent and can form virtually any cell type in the body with appropriate hormones and growth factors B. Make the enzyme telomerase, allowing them to replicate indefinitely in tissue culture C. Have the same genetic karyotype as a normal human cell D. Can be prepared to provide an exact tissue match to a patient E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Ch 27: Some bacteria avoid a host's immune system by means of: A. efficient use of their flagella. B. cloaking the cell with host proteins. C. cloaking the cell with a watery capsule D. changing their cell wall structure to resemble that of their host. E. eliminating the use of a membrane.

C. cloaking the cell with a watery capsule

Ch 27: Even though bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria, they can still perform the functions of these organelles by localizing certain metabolic enzymes on: A. the nuclear membranes. B. the endoplasmic reticulum. C. infoldings of the plasma membrane. D. ribosomes. E. the cell wall.

C. infoldings of the plasma membrane.

Ch 27: Extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria called ______ often carry genes involved in _______:a.capsids, bacterial reproduction A. capsids, bacterial reproduction B. capsids, antibiotic resistance. C. plasmids, viral resistance. D. plasmids, antibiotic resistance.

D. plasmids, antibiotic resistance.

Ch 27: Many Gram (+) Eubacteria like Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthraxis have the ability to survive harsh environmental conditions by protecting their DNA in a dormant structure called a(n)a.capsule A. capsule B. endospore C. endotoxin D. sporangium E. capsid

B. endospore

Ch 27: Match the bacterium with the human disease it can cause Heliobacter pylori A. Anthrax B. Gonorrhea C. Tetanus ("Lockjaw") D. Stomach ulcers E. Botulism (food poisoning)

D. stomach ulcers

Ch 20: Once they appeared on Earth, ___ forever changed the atmosphere on earth by the production of large quantities of oxygen gas. A. Gm (+) eubacteria B. archaebacteria C. cyanobacteria D. plants E. Gm (-) rickettsias

C. cyanobacteria

Ch 20: Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be the _____. A. cyanobacteria B. extreme halophiles C. methanogens D. extreme thermophiles

B. extreme halophiles

Ch 20: The structure in the accompanying figure labeled C (outermost layer) is ___, and the structure indicated by the letter I is _____: A. C - the plasma membrane, I - the cilia. B. C - the capsule, I - the cilia C. C - the capsule, I - the flagella D. C - the cell wall, I - the flagella E. C - the capsule, I - the pilus

C. C - the capsule, I - the flagella

Ch 20: What is the function of the structures labeled B? A. to adhere to host cells, or other bacteria, or solid substrates B. to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the host C. to transmit DNA from one cell to another D. to exchange genetic material and genetic traits like antibiotic resistance between cells E. All answers except B

E. All answers except B

Ch 27: The ____ Archaebacteria are typically found in extremely hot environments, whereas the _______ Archaebacteria are typically found in swampy environments lacking oxygen. A. Extreme halophile, methanogenic B. Extreme thermophile, methanogenic C. Pyrrhanogen, Extreme halophilic D. Methanogens, Extreme thermophilic E. Gram positive, Gram negative

B. Extreme thermophile, methanogenic

Ch 27: Organisms that share the most DNA homology to mitochondria and chloroplasts, respectively, are: A. Proteobacteria, cyanobacteria. B. Proteobacteria, green sulfur bacteria. C. Eubacteria, green sulfur bacteria. D. Eubacteria, cyanobacteria. F. E. coli, green sulfur bacteria

A. Proteobacteria, cyanobacteria.

Ch 27: What makes rRNA (or another sequence) a good 'evolutionary chronometer'? A. It is universally distributed across group chosen - all organisms have rRNA. B. It is functionaly similar between organisms - rRNAs all participate in protein synthesis. C. Its sequence changes slowly - good for looking across long periods of time D. The rRNA sequences can be aligned, or matched up, between 2 organisms. E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Ch 27: The most significant difference between the Archaea and the Eubacteria is: A. the lack of a nuclear envelope in the Archaea. B. the absence of the 70S ribosomes in the Eubacteria. C. the presence of a single filament flagellum in the Eubacteria. D. the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence. E. All of the above.

D. the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence.

Ch 27: The first indication that Archaea were different from the Eubacteria came from: A. the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea. B. Ribosome size. C. 16 S rRNA sequence. D. nuclei. E. response to antibiotics.

A. the absence of peptidoglycans in the cell walls of the Archaea.

Ch 27: Most bacterial cells keep from bursting in a hypotonic environment by A. an efficient water pump. B. a tough cell membrane. C. pumping large quantities of salts into the cell. D. a rigid cell wall. E. a stiff capsule.

D. a rigid cell wall.

Ch 27: Gram-positive bacteria stain _____ in a gram stain because of a thick layer of _____ in their cell walls A. green; peptidoglycan B. purple; peptidoglycan C. green; cellulose D. purple; polysaccharides E. red; polysaccharides

B. purple; peptidoglycan

Ch 27: Which of the following groups of prokaryotes contains the genus Clostridium, responsible for the human diseases tetanus and botulism? A. Spirochetes B. Cyanobacteria C. Methanogens D. Gram Positive Eubacteria E. Proteobacteria

D. Gram Positive Eubacteria

Ch 27: Which of the following groups of prokaryotes in the figure above contains the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, responsible for the human ulcers, and E. coli, beneficial intestinal bacteria in humans? A. Thermophiles B. Cyanobacteria C. Methanogens D. Gram Postive Eubacteria E. Proteobacteria

E. proteobacteria

Ch 27: Which of the following groups of prokaryotes might be found in the Great Salt Lake, the Red Sea, the Dead Sea, but NOT necessarily in the ocean? A. Cyanobacteria B. Methanogens C. Gram positive eubacteria D. proteobacteria E. Extreme halophiles

E. extreme halophiles

Ch 27: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following cellular structures are shared by bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes? A. plasma membrane B. nuclear envelope C. membrane-bound organelles D. cell wall composed of peptidoglycan E. linear chromosomes

A. plasma membrane

Ch 28: What type of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk, as seen in the White Cliffs of Dover? A. Diatoms B. Dinoflagellates C. Alveolates (Ciliates) D. Cercozoans (Forams) E. Euglenas

D. Cercozoans (Forams)

Ch 28: Pseudopods are used by the members of clade Amoebozoa for ingesting food as well as for: A. reproduction B. excretion C. digestion D. movement E. avoiding predation

D. movement

Ch 28: Which of the following is true about Radiolarans? A. They cause periodic red tides, poisoning shellfish and the people who eat the shellfish B. They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopods C. They have a test (shell) of calcium carbonate (chalk) D. B and c E. All of the above

B. They capture prey through the use of thread-like pseudopods

Ch 28: Entamoeba histolytica, a parasite that is the causative agent of Amoebic Dysentery, crawls through the small intestine of its victims via pseudopod formation. Based on this information, Entamoeba histolytica is a member of the clade: A. Euglenozoa B. Amoebozoa C. Alveolata D. Strameopila

B. Amoebozoa

Ch 28: A commercially important unicellular protist whose silica shells are used in filters, polishes, toothpaste and various industrial processes are the: A. Dinoflagellates B. euglenoids C. apicomplexans D. zooflagellates E. diatoms

E. diatoms

Ch 28: Protists like ________________ represent an intermediate stage in eukaryotic evolution when cells each had two haploid nuclei but fusion to become a true diploid organism had not occurred. A. Plasmodium B. Amoeba C. Euglena D. Giardia E. paramecium

D. Giardia

Ch 28: The parasitic protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium, must spend part of its life cycle in a nonhuman host. What organism(s) serve(s) as the vector for this life cycle? A. rats B. sand flies C. mosquitos D. leeches E. tse-tse flies

C. mosquitos

Ch 28: Trypanosomes are eukaryotes that are currently classified in the SuperClade A. Superclade I: Excavata B. Superclade II: S.A.R. C. Superclade III: Archaeplastida D. Superclade IV: Unikonta

A. Superclade I: Excavata

Which organisms are capable of producing a "red tide", secreting a nerve agent toxic to humans? A.dinoflagellates B. chrysophytes (diatoms) C. sporozoans D. euglenids E. red algae

A. dinoflagellates

Ch 28: The mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose as a result of endosymbiosis between a eukaryotic cell and a A. Cyanobacteria (Blue-green bacteria). B. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia C. Gram (+) bacterium like Bacillusd D. Gram (-) bacterium like E. coli E. Spiral bacteria like spirochaetes

B. Gram (-) bacterium like Rickettsia

Ch 28: In paramecium and stentor, the surface of the cell is covered with thousands of short, hairlike _____: A. pili B. pseudopods C. flagella D. cilia E. trichomes

D. cilia

Ch 28: Molecular data in support of endosymbiosis indicates that chloroplasts are highly similar to __________ that may have been engulfed by a heterotrophic eukaryote over a billion year ago. A. mitochondria B. euglenids C. cyanobacteria D. ciliates E. dinoflagellates

C. cyanobacteria

Ch 28: Euglena and dinoflagellates show Secondary Endosymbiosis in that A. they have both mitochondria and chloroplasts B. they have both mitochondria and chloroplasts C. they have chloroplasts, but they are non-functional D. they have two lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts E. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts.

E. they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts.

Ch 28: Which parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei, 2 pairs of flagella, remnants of mitochondrial genes (but no intact mitochondria) and lives and reproduces in the small intestines of mammals? A. Chara B. Giaridia C. Amoeba D. Stentor E. Volvox

B. Giaridia

Ch 28: Evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory (Margulis, 1967) includes A. similarity between bacterial size and the size of mitochondria and chloroplasts B. the presence of a single circular chromosome in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts C. reproduction by binary fission in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts D. 70S ribosomes in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts E. All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory.

E. All of the above provides evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory.

Ch 28: Evidence that Chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants includes A. the mechanism of cell wall synthesis in Chara and all land plants B. the presence of vascular tissue in Chara and all land plants C. the presence of homologous chloroplasts (chlorophylls a and b, as well as accessory pigments) in Chara and all land plants D. the presence of a cuticle in in Chara and all land plants E. A and C only

E. A and C only

Ch 28: Which example below is a characteristic shared by all excavates (diplomonads and parabasalids): A. Both lack nuclei. B. Both are adapted to anaerobic environments. C. Both lack, or have highly reduced, mitochondria. D. Both have a single flagellum. E. Both have two nuclei and 4 flagella

C. Both lack, or have highly reduced, mitochondria.

Ch 28: Among the protists below, which typically moves with one "tinsel" and one "smooth" flagella? A. stentor B. euglena C. trypanosoma D. plasmodium E. diatoms

E. diatoms

Ch 31: Aspergillus soyae, one of the fungi used commercially to make soy sauce, reproduces asexually via conidia but has no known sexual cycle. It is thus classified as one of the A. ascomycota B. basidiomycota C. deuteromycota D. zygomycota

C. deuteromycota

Ch 31: A wildlife pathologist is examining some skin tissue from a dead frog. She notes the presence of a fungus. She cultures the fungal cells and notices that some of the cells are flagellated. She concludes that the frog has a disease caused by A. an ascomycete fungus B. a zygomycete fungus C. a basidiomycete fungus D. a chytridomycete fungus

D. a chytridomycete fungus

Ch 31: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: A coenocytic mycelium is: A. A mesh of branched filaments produced by spores. B. Formed of hyphae with chitin-reinforced walls. C. A mycelium characterized by long hyphal cells with hundreds or thousands of nuclei. D. Characteristic of the zygomycota

A. A mesh of branched filaments produced by spores. B. Formed of hyphae with chitin-reinforced walls. C. A mycelium characterized by long hyphal cells with hundreds or thousands of nuclei. D. Characteristic of the zygomycota

Ch 31: Use the fungal life cycle figure at right to answer the following 3 questions: The cells in this mushroom are A. 1 = haploid, 2= diploid B. 1= dikaryotic, 2 = haploid C. 1= diploid, 2 = haploid D. 1= dilkaryotic, 2 = diploid E. 1= haploid, 2 = dikaryotic

D. 1= dilkaryotic, 2 = diploid

Ch 31: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY : The products of meiosis released by this fungus (arrow indicated by 3): A. Are haploid B. Are diploid C. Are called basidiospores D. Are called conidia E. A and b only F. A and C only

F. A and C only

Ch 31: Which pathway below generally represents the order of events during fungal sexual reproduction? A. Plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis, germination B. Karyogamy, meiosis, plasmogamy, germination C. Meiosis, plasmogamy, karyogamy, germination D. Germination, meiosis, karyogamy, plasmogamy E. Plasmogamy, meiosis, germination, karyogamy

A. Plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis, germination

Ch 31: The sac fungi are characterized by sexual reproductive structures called__________ and asexual reproductive structures called _____________: A. asci, conidia B. basidia, sporangia C. gemmae cups, conidia D. conidiophores, ascocarps E. conidia, asci

A. asci, conidia

Ch 31: The cell walls of fungi are composed of: A. cellulose B. lipids C. glycogen D. chitin E. chlorophyll

D. chitin

Ch 31: Claviceps purpurea infests grain like rye and produces _______________, a precursor of LSD which, if accidentally ingested, can cause hallucinations and even death. A. an ergot B. a smut C. a rust D. a brown rot E. a mildew

A. an ergot

Ch 31: Consuming even a single mushroom of the genus _____________ can be fatal due to irreversible inhibition of the enzyme RNA polymerase A. Agaricus B. Shittake C. Portobello D. Amanita E. Oyster

D. Amanita

Ch 31: DNA and rRNA analysis indicates that modern fungi descended from A. Plants B. Diatoms and other protists with a shell made of chitin C. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates D. Colonial, photosynthetic protists similar to volvox E. Protists that have large masses of amoeboid cells like plasmodia slime molds

C. Colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates

Ch 31: Puffballs and shelf fungi are most closely related to: A. molds B. truffles C. the common edible mushroom D. yeast E. the black bread mold

C. the common edible mushroom

Ch 31: Which TWO of the following choices (a-j) is mismatched? A. Bread mold - zygomycetes B. Sac fungi - ascomycota C. Yeast - ascomycota D. Amanita mushrooms - ascomycota E. Shelf fungi - Basidiomycota F. mushroom - basidiomycetes G. sac fungi - ascomycetes H. club fungi - basidiomycetes I. Puff balls - basidiomycetes J. Corn smut - ascomycetes

D. Amanita mushrooms - ascomycota J. Corn smut - ascomycetes

Ch 31: Mycorrhizal fungi benefits plants by: A. increasing photosynthetic area B. increasing absorptive surface area of roots C. increasing chlorophyll content D. increasing leaf area E. all of the above

B. increasing absorptive surface area of roots

Ch 31: the sexual spores produced by black bread mold, Rhizopus, are called A. zygospores B. ascospores C. basidiospores D. conidia E. puffballs

A. zygospores

Ch 31: Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by _________, which are fragments of the body of a lichen A. conidia B. soredia C. asci D. thalli

B. soredia

Ch 29: an important difference between plants and algae is the presence of: A. chlorophyll B. a waxy cuticle C. lignin D. stomata with guard cells E. cellulose

B. a waxy cuticle

Ch 29: Which is the key difference between alteration of generations in plants and sexual reproduction in non-plant organisms? A. In plants, the haploid and diploid stages are both multicellular. B. In plants, only the haploid stage is multicellular. C. In plants, the haploid generation is always dependent on the diploid generation. D. In other sexually reproducing organisms, the haploid and diploid generations are both multicellular. E. In other sexually reproducing organisms, the fusion of gametes forms a zygote before an embryo.

A. In plants, the haploid and diploid stages are both multicellular.

Ch 29: When you see a green "leafy" moss, you are looking at the _________ generation A. haploid sporophyte B. haploid gametophyte C. diploid sporophyte D. diploid gametophyte E. structure where meiosis occurs F. structure that results directly from a fertilized egg

B. haploid gametophyte

Ch 29: One type of asexual reproduction in liverworts involves formation of: A. setae B. gemmae C. fronds D. archegonia E. prothalli

B. gemmae

Ch 29: the main advancement exhibited by ferns over mosses and other byrophytes is: A. presence of leaves B. presence of special vascular tissue C. presence of gametophyte generation and sporophyte generation D. presence of seeds

B. presence of special vascular tissue

Ch 29: In the fern life cycle shown at right, where is the process of meiosis taking place? A. in the archaegonium - A B. In the fern sori - A C. In the diploid zygote - B D. in the heart-shaped Prothallus - C E. In the fiddlehead - D

B. In the fern sori - A

Ch 29: The haploid gametophyte (C) A. develops from meiosis in the sori B. has some calls that make flagellated sperm C. has some cells that make haploid eggs D. will nourish the young fern fiddlehead E. all of the above

E. all of the above

Ch 29: The "dots" on the underside of a fern front are spore cases; therefore, what is true of the plant to which the front belongs? A. it is a spore B. it is a sporophyte C. it is a gametophyte D. it is a spermatophyte

B. it is a sporophyte

Ch 29: In mosses, the antheridia produce A. sperm B. spores C. buds D. eggs E. leaves

A. sperm

Ch 29: The leafy fern that you might have as a house plant is the _________ generation A. diploid sporophyte B. diploid gametophyte C. haploid sporophyte D. haploid gametophyte

A. diploid sporophyte

Ch 29: Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim from a(n) ______ and down the neck of a(n) ______ A. antheridium... sporangium B. sporangium... antheridium C. antheridium... archegonium D. archegonium...antheridium E. sporangium... archegonium

C. antheridium... archegonium

Ch 29: The simplest vascular plants are the: A. whisk ferns B. charophytes C. hornworts E. liverworts

B. whisk ferns

Ch 29: The most recent group of plants to evolve are the: A. gymnosperms B. hornworth C. angiosperms D. conifers E. gnetophytes

C. angiosperms

Ch 29: In plants the fertilized egg develops into a multicellular _______ with female gametangium A. zygote B. seed C. embryo D. endosperm E. cotyledon

C. embryo

Ch 29: In the age of the dinosaurs (~100 million years ago), these plants were tree sized and the dominant plants of the Carboniferous period. (Today, only 1 genus remains) A. equisetum, the horsetails B. lycopodium, the club moss C. psilotum, the whisk fern D. polyp odium, a true fern

A. equisetum, the horsetails

Ch 30: The eggs of seed plants are fertilized within ovules then develop into _______ A. seeds B. spores C. gametophytes D. fruit E. ovaries

A. seeds

Ch 30: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: In this extreme close-up of the female gametophyte of a flowering plant (above), which will be fertilized by the 2 pollen nuclei, and what will happen as a result? A. cell 5 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 2n embryo B. cell 2 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 2n embryo C. Nuclei 7 and 8 will fuse with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 3n endosperm D. cells 4 and 6 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 3n endosperm

A. cell 5 will be fertilized with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 2n embryo C. Nuclei 7 and 8 will fuse with a pollen nucleus, which will become the 3n endosperm

Ch 30: In angiosperms, double fertilization produced A. twin embryos (diploid) B. the 2n embryo and the 3n antipodals C. the 2n embryo and the 2n seed coat D. the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm E. the 3n endosperm and the 2n seed coat

D. the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm

Ch 30: Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells. Which of the following is true? A. the upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo and eventually the new plant B. the lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor and anchors the embryo within the seed C. the upper, terminal cell becomes the endosperm D. a and b only E. b and c only

D. a and b only

Ch 30: SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Seeds have advantages over spores. For example _________ A. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective coating B. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic rates C. seeds are single cells, demanding fewer nutrients from the parent plants D. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants

A. seeds contain embryonic plants, an abundant food supply, and a protective coating B. seeds can survive for extended periods of time at reduced metabolic rates D. seeds can survive even in conditions that are unfavorable for the parent plants

Ch 30: Pollen is ________ and contains __________ A. diploid .. spores B. diploid .. sperm nuclei C. haploid .. spores D. haploid .. sperm nuclei

D. haploid .. sperm nuclei

Ch 30: The receptive portion of flower that receives the pollen is the A. ovary B. stigma C. anther D. carpel E. anther

B. stigma

Ch 30: In flowering plants on megaspore gives rise to ______ nuclei A. four diploid B. four haploid C. eight haploid D. eight diploid E. microsporangia

C. eight haploid

Ch 30: the triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the ______ A. embryo B. endosperm C. fruit D. carpel E. seed

B. endosperm

Ch 30: A pea pod is formed from _________. A pea inside the pod is formed from _______ A. an ovule .. a carpel B. an ovary .. an ovule C. an ovary .. a pollen grain D. an anther .. an ovule E. endosperm .. an ovary

B. an ovary .. an ovule

Ch 30: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots? A. two seed leaves B. parts of flowers in fours or fives C. a taproot D. vascular bundles arranged in a ring E. veins in leaves usually parallel

E. veins in leaves usually parallel

Ch 35: If you were able to start you car at the center of a large redwood tree and then drive out to the bark, as above, you would cross in this order: A. Young wood, old wood, oldest wood, vascular cambium, phloem, periderm B. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, phloem, periderm C. Periderm, phloem, vascular cambium, oldest wood, old wood, youngest wood D. Young wood, old wood, oldest wood, vascular cambium, periderm, phloem E. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, periderm, phloem

B. Oldest wood, old wood, young wood, vascular cambium, phloem, periderm

Ch 35: Plant anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e): Living cells that lack nuclei and ribosomes A. chlorenchyma B. collenchyma C. sieve tubes D. tracheids E. vessel elements

C. sieve tubes

Ch 35: Plant anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e): Thin, tapered water transport cells with numerous pits A. chlorenchyma B. collenchyma C. sieve tubes D. tracheids E. vessel elements

D. tracheids

Ch 35: Plant anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e): Thick, barrel shaped cells with end plate perforations A. chlorenchyma B. collenchyma C. sieve tubes D. tracheids E. vessel elements

B. collenchyma

Ch 35: Plant anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e): Cells with unevenly thickened primary walls that support young, growing parts of a plant A. chlorenchyma B. collenchyma C. sieve tubes D. tracheids E. vessel elements

E. vessel elements

Ch 35: Plant anatomy: Match each of the descriptions with one of the cell types of a plant listed below (a-e): Paranchyma cells specialized in function for photosynthesis A. chlorenchyma B. collenchyma C. sieve tubes D. tracheids E. vessel elements

A. chlorenchyma

Ch 35: Water and dissolved minerals are conducted from the roots to the stems and leaves via ___________, whereas sugar is conducted through specialized cells known as _____________ A. parenchyma, collenchyma B. sieve tubes, xylem C. xylem, companion cells D. xylem, sieve tubes E. phloem, companion cells

D. xylem, sieve tubes

Ch 35: Secondary plant tissue produced by the vascular cambium includes all of the following except: A. vessel elements B. sieve cells C. tracheids D. trichomes E. companion cells

D. trichomes

Ch 35: Specialized cells of the dermal system in plants that function in gas exchange are called A. cuticle cells B. trichomes C. periderm D. guard cells E. companion cells

D. guard cells

Ch 35: Primary growth in a young stem occurs at the A. root apical meristem B. lateral meristem C. shoot apical meristem D. vascular cambium E. epidermis

C. shoot apical meristem

K101 Final Exam Practice Unit 5 Flashcards

(122 cards)