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MS2 Unit 2 > Kaplan Pharm > Flashcards

Kaplan Pharm Flashcards

(113 cards)

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1
Q

choline uptake is inhibited by (hemicholinium/botulinum toxin)

A

hemicholinium

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2
Q

(hemicholinium/botulinum toxin) interacts with synaptobrevin to prevent ACh release

A

botulinum toxin

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3
Q

(hemicholinium/botulinum toxin) is used in blepharospasm, strabismus/hyperhydrosis, dystonia

A

botulinum toxin

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4
Q

M receptor activation (increases/decreases) CV function

A

decreases

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5
Q

M receptor activation (increases/decreases) secretions and (increases/decreases) smooth muscle contractions

A

increases both

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6
Q

all M receptor activators and blockers are (specific/nonspecific)

A

nonspecific

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7
Q

blood vessels are solely innervated by (symp/parasymp), so stimulation of autonomic ganglia results in vasoconstriction

A

sympathetic nervous system

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8
Q

the GI tract is dominated by (symp/parasymp) so ganglionic stimulation causes increased GI motility and secretions

A

parasymp

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9
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): treats glaucoma and xerostomia

A

pilocarpine

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10
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): treats bronchial hyperreactivity

A

methacholine

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11
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): treats ileus (postop/neurogenic), urinary retention

A

bethanechol

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12
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): short half life, no clinical use

A

ACh

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13
Q

ACh, bethanechol, methacholine, pilocarpine are muscarinic (agonists/antagonists)

A

agonists

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14
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats glaucoma, lipid soluble, irreversible inhibitor

A

organophosphates

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15
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats glaucoma, antidote in atropine overdose, enters CNS

A

physostigmine

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16
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats ileus, urinary retention, myasthenia, reversal of nondepolarizing NM blockers

A

neostigmine and pyridostigmine

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17
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats myasthenia; used to differentiate myasthenia from cholinergic crisis

A

edrophonium

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18
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats Alzheimer disease

A

donepezil

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19
Q

ACh inhibitor poisoning mnemonic

A

Dumbbeelss

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20
Q

Dumbbeelss (ACh inhibitor mnemonic) stands for:

A

diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, emesis, excitation (CNS/muscle), lacrimation, salivation, sweating

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21
Q

edrophonium, physostigmine, neostigmine, pyridostigmine, donepezil, organophosphates are: _____ (drug class)

A

AChE inhibitors (indirect acting cholinomimetics)

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22
Q

atropine, tropicamide, ipratropium, tiotropium, scopolamine, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl are: Muscarinic receptor (agonists/antagonists)

A

antagonists

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23
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): lipid soluble (CNS entry), Parkinsons, acute extrapyramidal symptoms induced by antipsychotics

A

benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

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24
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): used in motion sickness, causes sedation and short-term memory block

A

scopolamine

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25
(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl):asthma and COPD, no CNS entry, no change in mucus viscosity
ipratropium, tiotropium
26
(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): opathalmology
tropicamide
27
(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): antispasmodic, antisecretory, management of AChE inhibitor overdose, antidiarrheal, opthalmology
atropine
28
Fenoldopam is a D1 (agonist/antagonist) used for severe HTN
agonist
29
(beta/alpha) receptors are usually more sensitive to activators than (alpha/beta) receptors
beta more sensitive than alpha
30
phenylephrine for nasal congestion and opthalmologic use: an alpha1 (agonist/antagonist)
agonist
31
clonidine and methyldopa for HTN: alpha (1/2) (agonist/antagonist)
alpha2 agonist
32
isoproterenol is a beta (agonist/antagonist)
agonist. effect on B1=B2
33
dobutamine is a beta (agonist/antagonist)
agonist. effect on B1 > effect on B2
34
isoproterenol is a beta agonist used for treatment of: (three conditions)
bronchospasm, heart block, bradyarrhthmias
35
dobutamine is a beta agonist used for treatment of: (one condition)
CHF
36
selective beta (1/2) agonists: salmeterol, albuterol, terbutaline (for asthma)
beta 2 agonists
37
(salmeterol/albuterol/terbutaline): beta 2 agonist used in premature labor
terbutaline
38
tyramine, amphetamines, ephedrine, cocaine, and tricyclic antidepressants are (direct/indirect) acting adrenergic receptor agonists
indirect
39
(releasers/reuptake inhibitors): tyramine, amphetamines, ephedrine
releasers
40
(releasers/reuptake inhibitors): cocaine, tricyclic antidepressants
reuptake inhibitors
41
nonselective alpha (agonist/blocker): phentolamine, phenoxybenzamine
blocker
42
(phentolamine/phenoxybenzamine): competitive inhibitor of alpha receptors
phentolamine
43
(phentolamine/phenoxybenzamine): noncompetitive inhibitor of alpha receptors
phenoxybenzamine
44
alpha receptor (agonists/blockers): used for HTN, pheochromocytoma, benign prostatic hyperplasia
blockers
45
prazosin, doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin: alpha (1/2) (agonist/blocker)
alpha 1 blocker
46
mirtazapine (antidepressant): alpha (1/2) (agonist/blocker)
alpha 2 blocker
47
(alpha/beta) (1/2) blockade: ↓HR, ↓SV, ↓CO, ↓renin release
beta 1 blockade
48
(alpha/beta) (1/2) blockade: bronchospasm, ↓aqueous humor production, blocks glycogenolysis, blocks gluconeogenesis
beta 2 blockade
49
three beta 1 selective blockers: (acebutolol/timolol/atenolol/pindolol/propranolol/metoprolol)
acebutolol, atenolol, metoprolol
50
three beta non selective blockers: (acebutolol/timolol/atenolol/pindolol/propranolol/metoprolol)
pindolol, propranolol, timolol
51
atenolol, beta blocker, (can/cannot) enter the CNS
cannot
52
propranolol, acebutolol, esmolol are beta blockers used for:
arrhythmias
53
(timolol/atenolol/propranolol) is a beta blocker used for glaucoma
timolol
54
(timolol/atenolol/propranolol) is a beta blocker used for migraine, thyrotoxicosis, performance anxiety, essential tremor
propranolol
55
labetalol and carvedilol have beta blocking and (alpha 1 blocking/K channel blocking) activity
alpha 1 blocking
56
(labetalol/carvedilol): used in CHF
carvedilol
57
(labetalol/carvedilol): used in hypertensive emergencies
labetalol
58
sotalol is a beta blocker with (alpha 1 blocking/K channel blocking) activity
K channel blocking
59
mixed agonist (epi/norepi): alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1
norepi
60
mixed agonist (epi/norepi): alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2
epi
61
(M1/M2/M3) activation: miosis (sphincter contraction), ciliary muscle contraction for near vision accommodation
M3
62
(M1/M2/M3) activation: decrease in HR (SA node) and conduction velocity (AV node)
M2
63
(M1/M2/M3) activation: bronchospasm (bronchiole contraction), lung gland secretion
M3
64
(M1/M2/M3) activation: increase stomach motility (cramps), intestine contraction (diarrhea, involuntary, defecation)
M3
65
(M1/M2/M3) activation: increase GI gland secretion
M1
66
(M1/M2/M3) activation: bladder contraction (detrusor), relaxation (trigone/sphincter), voiding, urinary incontinence
M3
67
(M1/M2/M3) activation: sphincter relaxation except lower esophageal, which contracts
M3
68
(M1/M2/M3) activation: gland secretion (sweat, salivation, lacrimation)
M3
69
(M1/M2/M3) activation: dilation of blood vessels via NO/endothelium-derived relaxing factor
M3
70
(pilocarpine and echothiophate/timolol): activation of M receptors causes contraction of ciliary muscle, which increases flow through the canal of Schlemm
pilocarpine and echothiophate
71
(pilocarpine/echothiophate): AChE inhibitor to increase outflow in treatment of glaucoma
echothiophate (organophosphate)
72
(pilocarpine and echothiophate/timolol): blocks action of NE at ciliary epithelium, decreases aqueous humor formation
timolol
73
methyl p-tyrosine blocks which enzyme in the catecholamine synthesis pathway
tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosine to dopa)
74
alpha 2 Gi coupled receptor (increases/decreases) cAMP
decreases
75
beta 1, beta 2, D1 Gs coupled receptor (increases/decreases) cAMP
increases
76
____: autacoid released from mast cells and basophils by type I HSR, drugs, venoms, and trauma
histamine
77
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) capillary dilation
increases, via NO
78
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) blood pressure
decreases, via capillary dilation
79
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) capillary permeability
increases
80
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) edema
increases, via increased capillary permeability
81
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) bronchiolar smooth muscle contraction
increases
82
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) activation of peripheral nociceptive receptors
increases (increases pain and pruritus)
83
H1 activation: (increases/decreases) AV nodal conduction
decreases
84
(H1/H2) activation: increases gastric acid secretion, increasing GI ulcers
H2
85
(H1/H2) activation: increased SA nodal rate, positive inotropism
H2
86
H1 antagonists act as (competitive/noncompetitive) antagonists of histamine
competitive
87
since H1 antagonists act competitively, they are (equally effective/ineffective) at high levels of histamine
ineffective
88
H1 antagonist adverse effect: (N/M) block and sedation
M block
89
H1 antagonists require metabolism in the _____ and (do/do not) cross the placental barrier
liver, do cross the placental barrier
90
most widely used H1 antagonist: (meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine)
diphenhydramine
91
H1 antagonist with strong M blocking, sedation, antimotion, and some alpha block, local anesthetic action: (meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine)
promethazine
92
(meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine): H1 antagonist with possible CNS stimulation
chlorpheniramine
93
(meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine): strongest antimotion properties
meclizine
94
(meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine): three H1 antagonists that don't cross the BBB, only used for allergic rxns
cetirizine (zyrtec), loratadine, fexofenadine
95
_____: autacoid synthesized and stored in GI cells, neurons, and platelets. MAO type A degrades it
serotonin 5HT
96
5HT3 receptor is a (GPCR/ion channel)
ion channel
97
six out of the seven 5HT receptor types are (GPCRs/ion channels)
GPCRs
98
5HT (1/2/3): found in CNS (usually inhibitory), smooth muscle (excitatory or inhibitory)
1
99
5HT (1/2/3): found in CNS (excitatory)
2
100
5HT (1/2/3): found in area postrema, peripheral sensory and enteric nerves
3
101
5HT (1/2/3): drugs are buspirone and sumatripan and other -tripans
1
102
5HT (1/2/3): drugs are olanzapine and cyproheptadine
2
103
5HT (1/2/3): drugs are ondansetron and -setrons
3
104
(buspirone/sumatripan): anxiolytic for generalized anxiety disorder
buspirone
105
(buspirone/sumatripan): decrease migraine pain
sumatripan
106
(buspirone/sumatripan): side effects could include asthenia, chest or throat pressure or pain
sumatripan
107
(olanzapine/cyproheptadine): atypical antipsychotic
olanzapine
108
(olanzapine/cyproheptadine): used in carcinoid, GI tumors, postgastrectomy, anorexia nervosa
cyproheptadine
109
ondansteron decreases emesis via which receptor
5HT3
110
ergotamine acts as partial agonists at both (alpha/beta) and (H1/5HT1/5HT2) receptors in the vasculature and possibly CNS
alpha and 5HT2
111
ergotamine: vaso (constriction/dilation) to cerebral vessels
vaso constriction: decrease pulsation
112
use ergotamine for (chronic/acute) migraines
acute attack
113
ergotamine is contraindicated in pregnancy because...
highly vasoconstrictive, will cause abortion near term

MS2 Unit 2 (9 decks)

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