Knowledge Test Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

What is the MTOW for fins 101-124?

A

67,585 KG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the MTOW for fins 125-133?

A

69,853 KG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the MLW?

A

57,833 KG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is VFE for Flap 1?

A

230 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is VFE for flap 2?

A

210 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the VFE for flap 3?

A

210 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is VFE for flap 4?

A

190 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is VFE for flap 5?

A

170 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is VLO? Extension and Retraction speeds?

A

Extension: 250 KIAS
Retraction: 220 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is VLE (extended speed)?

A

250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is VRA, Turbulence penetration speed 10,000’ and below?

A

265 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is VRA Turbulence penetration speed above10,000’?

A

280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach, which ever works S lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is max windshield wiper operation speed?

A

250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is tire limit speed?

A

195 KTS Ground Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

10,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

41,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the maximum temperature approved for takeoff and landing?

A

52.5 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the minimum temperature approved for takeoff and landing?

A

-54 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At what temperature must Cowl anti-ice be selected ON in the ground with visible moisture present?

A

OAT 10 C or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what temperature must the wing anti-ice system be selected ON when visible moisture is present?

A

OAT 5 C or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what temperature is Wing anti-ice prohibited in flight?

A

When TAT is above 15 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Wing anti-ice must be selected OFF above what altitude?

A

35,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False:

Both the Wing anti-ice and Cowl anti-ice must be selected ON during flight in super cooled water droplets?

A

TRUE but flight in SLD is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is engine ice shedding required?

A

When OAT is 3 C or below and visible moisture in any form is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How do we perform an engine run-up for ice shedding?
Momentarily move thrust to a minimum of 60% N1 and at intervals of not more than 30 min.
26
What speeds must be corrected when landing Flap 5 in icing conditions?
Vref, Vac and Vga
27
What is the maximum runway Slopes for takeoff and landing?
+-2%
28
What is the maximum pressure differential?
8.8 PSID
29
What is the maximum negative differential pressure?
-0.5 PSID
30
During initial landing (at touchdown) the pressure differential must not exceed……..?
1.0 PSID
31
What is the maximum time doors should be closed with passengers on board and the packs OFF with no ground ventilation?
15 minutes
32
What is the maximum time you can operate without ECS or external cooling when the OAT is above 40 C?
30 minutes
33
What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?
400 feet AGL
34
What is the minimum height for use of autopilot?
80 feet AGL
35
True or false: | Land 2 and Land 3 (Autoland) can be conducted during single engine operations?
FALSE
36
What is the required visibility for a CAT II approach in Canada?
RVR A: 1200 RVR B: 600 Or charted visibility, which ever is higher.
37
What is the required visibility for a CAT II approach in the US?
One RVR: 1400 Two RVR’s reported; RVR A: 1200 RVR B: 600 RVR C: 300 Or charted visibility, which ever is higher. Either RVR B or C are required. Both are controlling if both are available.
38
What is the required visibility an DH for a CAT III Land 3 (Fail Passive) approach?
- Greater of charted visibility or 600 RVR. | - Published DH or 50 ft. Which ever is higher.
39
What is the required visibility and DH for a CAT III Land 3 (Fail Operational) approach?
- Charted visibility or RVR 150 ft. Which ever is higher. | - Published DH or if DH not published, minimums left blank, and use AH 100 ft.
40
What is the formula for manual TPL calculation?
TPL= LDA - OpLD + 1500
41
If unable to obtain an ATC clearance on a WATRS Oceanic Eastbound Track (000-179 degrees M) for a weather deviation greater than 5nm, what would be you altitude change for a turn LEFT or RIGHT?
Left turn: Descend 300 ft | Right Turn: Climb 300 ft
42
If unable to obtain an ATC Clearance on a WATRS oceanic Westbound track (180-359 degrees M) for a weather deviation greater than 5nm. What would be the altitude change for a turn LEFT or RIGHT?
Left: Climb 300 ft Right: Descent 300 ft
43
What is the minimum runway width for a CAT III Autoland?
150 ft
44
What is the maximum airport pressure altitude for Autoland (Land 2 or Land 3)?
8466 ft
45
What is the maximum altitude with flaps/slats extended?
20,000 ft
46
What is the minimum height with flight spoilers manually extended?
500 ft
47
What is the minimum speed with flight spoilers manually extended?
Vref + 10
48
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the contents of the left and right fuel tanks?
454 kg
49
What is the maximum total fuel load?
17,400 kg
50
What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go-around?
442 KG per wing (With the airplane level) and at a maximum airplane climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up.
51
Take-off with bulk fuel temperature indications below ______ is prohibited.
-37 C
52
What is the maximum bulk fuel temperature for starting and operating?
52.5 C
53
What is the maximum allowable brake temperature for take-off?
06 units
54
What is the maximum brake temperature (BTMS) for gear retraction?
BTMS value 13 Units
55
For CPDLC.. Is the use of WX DEV TO POS from the ROUTE REQUEST page permitted?
No, it is prohibited
56
For CPDLC… is the use of DIVERT TO from the EMERGENCY MESSAGE page in the SETTINGS menu permitted?
No, it is prohibited.
57
What are the required equipment for flight in RVSM airspace?
1. Autopilot 2. Altitude Alerting System 3. Altitude Reporting Transponder (1) 4. Air Data Computers (2)
58
For the TLAF system. What must not be exceeded until within 10 degrees of the runway heading?
- Do not exceed 35 KTS Groundspeed | - Do not exceed 55% N1
59
What is the minimum oil temperature for an APU start?
-40 C
60
How many APU starts / start attempts can you do in 1 hour?
Maximum of 3
61
How long of a delay must you observe between APU start attempts?
Two-delay must be observed
62
What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction?
23,000 ft
63
What type of engines is the A220 300 equipped with?
Pratt & Whitney PurePower PW1524G-3
64
What is the maximum N1 with a oil temperature below -40 C
Engine start is prohibited
65
What is the maximum N1 with an oik temperature above -40 C but below -6 C?
Idle
66
What is the maximum N1 when the oil temperature is between -6 C and 21 C?
30% N1
67
What is the maximum N1 when the oil temperature between 21 C and 49 C?
50% N1
68
What is the maximum N1 when the oil temperature is above 49 C?
No limit
69
Currently, what is the maximum N1 above 29,100 ft?
95.2 % N1
70
Do not engage starter on the ground if indicated N2 RPM exceeds _____?
20% RPM N2
71
How long does the engine have to be near idle before shutdown?
3 minutes
72
What is the definition of “Near Idle” with respect to engine shutdown?
Up to 40% N1
73
What is the maximum cross wind / tailwind component for engine start / ice shedding?
43 KTS crosswind / 18 KTS tailwind
74
What is the maximum allowable oil consumption?
0.38 l/hr (0.4 qt/hr)
75
The actioning of what controls require verbal confirmation?
1. Any red or yellow guarded switch 2. GEN DISC switches 3. ENG run switches 4. Thrust levers when actioning a checklist
76
What order should checklists be completed in a non-Normal situation?
1. Warning messages (Red) 2. Normal checklists (White) 3. Caution messages (Amber) or non-normal procedures (PROC tile in ECL)
77
What is the wingspan of the A220-300?
115 ft
78
What is the height from the ground to the tail of the A220-300?
38 ft
79
What is the length of the A220-300?
127 ft
80
What is the clearance from the ground to the engine nacelles?
1.7 ft