Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Private Pilot > Knowledge Test > Flashcards

Knowledge Test Flashcards

1
Q

ANDS

A

Accelerate North, Decelerate South - on EW trajectory. No error on NS. Compass will show a turn to the North if you accelerate on an EW trajectory. Turn to the S if you decelerate on an EW trajectory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NOSE

A

North Opposite, South Exaggerated. During turn from northerly or southerly heading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Heat does what to the altimeter?

A

Pressure level is raised in terms of altitude, altimeter will measure a higher pressure at a lower altitude. Indicated altitude will be lower than true altitude on warm days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gyroscopic Instruments

A

Heading, attitude, turn coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pitot Static

A

Altimeter, VSI and airspeed (pitot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What makes an airplane turn?

A

Horizontal component of life. Some of the lift is now working to turn the airplane, less upward lift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does the nose pitch down with reduced power?

A

Less air over plane, decreases the elevator’s effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why does an airplane descend during a turn?

A

Increased load on the wings due to centrifugal force. Amount of increased load depends on the speed of airplane, caution between too fast to put too much load during a turn and going below the increased stall speed during a turn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stall during a turn

A

Higher stall speed; as load factor increases, stall speed increases.

As bank angle increases, AOA needs to increase to create more lift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to calculate load factor?

A

Use chart, enter angle of turn and determine G factor. Times G factor by weight of aircraft. Load is given in lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is P Factor?

A

Caused by the pitch of the prop. Each blade has a chord line and an AOA, but the right has more thrust than the left. At high AOA, the plane will turn to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Torque Effect - when greatest?

A

High power
Low airspeed
High AOA

Manufacturer built in ways to battle - slightly bigger AOA on left wing, tail a bit to the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

V le

A

Max velocity can fly with Landing gear Extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vx

A

Best angle of climb speed - altitude over distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vy

A

Best rate of climb - altitude over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How to handle severe turbulence

A

Maintain maneuvering speed or below Va (note: Va is not marked on airspeed indicator). Highest speed that does not create undue stress on airplane
Fly at level flight
Allow minor changes to airspeed and altitude. Do not chase the airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Va

A

Maneuvering speed - a single flight control can be at its greatest deflection without risk of damage to the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vno

A

Max structural cruising speed. Anything above light turbulence above this speed could cause structural damage to the plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vne

A

Never exceed speed. Shown by the red radial line. Max speed plane can be flown in calm air, but risk of structural damage if turbulence hits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vfe

A

Top speed with flaps extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vso

A

Power-off stall speed in landing condition (flaps and landing gear extended). Lower limit of white arc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Caution Range

A

Vno to Vne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Wingtip Vortices

A

Air moves around edge of wing to go to low pressure. Creates vortex going out and then back towards the plane on both sides.

Stronger at high AOA and when creating lift.

Strongest when airplane is heavy, clean (no flaps) and slow

Avoid by approaching above glide path and landing beyond. Takeoff before and turn upwind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ground Effect

A

Interference of the Earth’s surface with the airplanes airflow patterns. Ground keeps the air from going over the tip of the wing. Allows the airplane to fly better.

Increases lift, decreases drag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Problems with Ground Effect

A

Can become airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed

Floating - if have increased speed, due to decreased drag in GE, will float long distance along the runway if less than one wingspan above the runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ticks on airport symbol on sectional chart
Star on top?

A

Has fuel.
Star = rotating beacon, on when there is fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Star next to airport frequency?

A

CT is not 24h. Check chart supplement for hours of operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

White and green beacon

A

Civilian airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

White white green beacon

A

Military air station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

White yellow green beacon

A

Héliport (not for planes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inside fuzzy blue lines

A

Class E - floor is 14,500 MSL but enough airports to make it 1,200 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inside fuzzy magenta lines

A

Class E down to 700 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dotted magenta line

A

Class E from surface to 699 ft AGL (then fuzzy magenta to 1,200 AGL, then fuzzy blue upwards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How wide are airways?

A

8 NM - 4 on each side of center. Class E airspace (floor 1,200 AGL unless goes through other Class E that is lower, up to 17,999)

Federal airways, Victor

Controlled airspace

Designed for IFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Class D distance around airport

A

5SM (4.4NM) around airport (can be extended); ceiling 2,500 above airport elevation # in [ ] denotes if ceiling is higher. If -, up to but not including 2,500.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Communication requirements in Class D

A
  • VHF transmitter and receiver (radio)
  • Receive clearance to takeoff and land. ATC maintains separation on ground but not in the air.
  • Airport turns into E or G when ATC closes (check CS for details)
  • Can land at secondary airport within Class D but must inform ATC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inside blue segmented line

A

Class D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Solid Magenta Line

A

Class C airspace - Inner = 5NM from airport to 4,000 AGL. Outer = 10NM, 1,200-4,000AGL (likely given in MSL though)

Procedural outer area - 20 NM radius from Airport. Establish contact before enter 10NM radius (ie. outer area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Communications in Class C

A
  • Require Mode C Transponder/Altitude encoding and two way communications (4096 or Mode S)
    Same as Class D
  • Must establish two way comms before reaching the 10NM radius (20NM radius is the procedural area, should establish there) but do not need clearance. ATC must say call sign.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Solid dark blue line

A

Class Bravo. Find numbers within the lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Requirements in Class B

A
  • Must have clearance
  • Private Pilot or Student with specific logbook entry
  • Two way comms radio
  • 4096 - required in a radius and height of surface to 10,000 MSL w/in 30m of primary airport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Class A

A

18-60 FL
IFR rated, current and equipped
Clearance and altitude cleared by ATC
4096 Mode C
VFR not allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

3 digit vs 4 digit Military Training Route

A

3 - generally above 1,500 AGL
4- at or below 1,500 AGL

Low altitude, high-speed training (above 250kts) in any kind of weather

IR - instrument
VR - Visual conditions

Ex. IR-644-646

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Solid blue line with polka dots in the box

A

National wildlife areas

Min alt is 2,000 AGL
Not mandatory but highly suggested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Distances around Washington

A

60NM - special awareness

30NM - Special Flight Rules Area
- file IFR flight plan
- file SFRA flight plan
- Mode C Transponder with assigned code
- Two way comms before enter airspace

15NM - flight restricted zone
- need background check
- personal identification number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rotating beacon during day at airport means?

A

Weather is below VFR minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

VFR minimums at an aiport

A

3SM ground visibility
1,000 ceiling AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Parameters of special VFR clearance at airports

A
  • 1 SM viz and clear of clouds during day
  • Night - require IFR equipped and rated

ATC will then separate aircraft (like IFR), because weather conditions are less than the minimums. ATC will not offer or encourage, but can provide if requested and has time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where can you find additional information about restricted areas?

A

Legend of chart in ‘Special Use Airspace Areas’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who can grant special VFR clearance to land at an airport?

A

Class E - Air Route Traffic Control Center
Class D-B - ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Exceptions to basic VFR Minimums

A
  • Uncontrolled (G) at night within .5M of airport. Still need 1SM viz and clear of clouds
  • Class B = 3M viz, clear of clouds

Other exceptions must be requested from ATC or Air Route Traffic Control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is in a restricted area?

A

Unusual, hazardous, often invisible. Artillery, guided missiles. Must have clearance from controlling agency, or if the chart depicts times when it is not restricted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Magenta hashed line

A

Military Operations Area - exercise extreme caution. Likely best to avoid but can contact ATC or controlling for updated info. Check details on sectional for when used, and altitudes covered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Emergency Squawk and Frequency

A

7700 and 121.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lost Squawk

A

7600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Highjack squawk

A

7500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Transponder is required in:

A
  1. Class ABC
  2. Mode C Veil (30NM of Class B)
  3. At and above 10,000 ft MSL except airspace at or below 2,500 AGL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Basic radar services include:

A
  1. Traffic Advisories
  2. Safety Alerts
  3. Limited VFR radar vectors

Can also receive at Class C
- Sequencing of all aircraft
- Separation from IFR aircraft

Class B
- Sequencing AND separation of ALL aircraft to primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Airport Advisory Area

A

Within 10 SM of an airport with FSS but no CT.

Call them (“Radio”) for:
- Pilot weather briefing
- Filing flight plans
- TFR
- Status of special use or military training routes
- Initiate search and rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Air circular numbers

A

M
S
A GO

60
70
90

Airmen
Airspace
ATC and General Operating Rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Aux electric fuel pump - when can use?

A

Redundancy if engine driven pump fails. Use during TO and L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Constant Speed Prop. What to avoid? How is it changed?

A

Change the angle of the prop to adjust pitch for best performance.

Avoid high manifold pressure with high RPM.

Changed by a governor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does a throttle do?

A

Regulates power output. Changes the amount of air and fuel going into the intake manifold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How to adjust mixture when changing altitude

A

Lean going up - air is less dense, fewer molecules per unit of volume. Need ‘more air’ to mix with fuel. If mixture is too rich, engine will run rough.

Increase going doing for opposite reason

Mixture changes the ‘weight’ of the fuel and air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What causes carburetor icing?

A

Pressure differential between the venturi throat and the air inlet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Conditions favorable to carb icing?

A

20-70 F, high humidity.

Float type is more susceptible to icing than fuel injection system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What happens to RPM when apply carb heat?

A

Decrease in RPM because hot air going into engine (hot air is less dense, mixture is momentarily too rich). As ice melts, RPM increases. Adjust mixture as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What causes engine overheating?

A
  • Mixture too lean
  • Operating with too much power
  • Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How to cool engine mid-flight if overheating?

A

Add fuel (fuel carries away heat)
Decrease rate of climb, pitch nose down (more air over engine)
Increase airspeed (more air over engine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is an engine cooled?

A

Oil - carries away heat. If not enough oil, the oil temp will be too high
Air cooled but not sufficient without oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What happens if an engine overheats?

A
  • Loss of power
  • Excessive oil consumption
  • Potential permanent internal engine damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is detonation and how to respond?

A

Unburned charge in cylinder explodes instead of burning normally. Can be caused by using a fuel of a lesser grade than specified. NOTE: Can use a fuel of a higher grade than specified.

Lower nose and pull back on throttle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is pre-ignition and how to respond?

A

Fuel air charge fires in advance of the normal spark ignition.

Need mechanic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does haze do in terms of vision?

A

Makes traffic and terrain seem farther away than it is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How to scan for aircraft

A

Right to left, 10 degree sections of the sky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How to scan for aircraft at night

A

Use peripheral vision. Slowly scan, off center viewing. Avoid looking white lights or strobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

For enhanced visibility, what does FAA recommend regarding daytime lights?

A

Use landing lights whenever below 10,000’. Voluntary, but especially during periods of reduced visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What to do in a Near mid-air collision (NMAC), and distance of one.

A

500’

File report immediately to (in order of preference)
1. Nearest ATC
2. FSS
3. In writing to the Flight Standards District Office

Immediate filing allows FAA to listen to audio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is hypoxia and how to respond?

A

State of O2 deficiency. Higher altitudes, lower air pressure with less O2.

Descend immediately (one of 2 cases for an emergency descent).

Can carry supplemental O2

80
Q

What is hyperventilation and how to address it?

A

Emotional tension (anxiety, fear) leads to breathing too fast.
Exhaling CO2 but not inhaling sufficient O2.
Can happen when using O2

Solutions:
- Speak out loud
- Slow breathing
- Breathe into brown bag

81
Q

What is Carbon Monoxide poison in an aircraft and affects?

A

Leak from aircraft heater, which is heat exchange from engine exhaust.

Susceptibility increases as altitude increases. Poisoning prevents O2 from combining with the blood, more pronounced at higher altitudes.

Turn cabin heat off. Open windows if safe.

82
Q

What is somatogravic illusion?

A

During rapid acceleration or deceleration, body thinks plane is pitching up (former) or down (latter)

83
Q

Spatial Disorientation

A

Temporary confusion from misleading information from sensory organs to brain. More susceptible when visual cues are removed (poor viz or IFR). Body reacts to centrifugal force and gravity, but lies.

TRUST instruments.

84
Q

Visual approach slope indicator (VASI) colours

A

Red over white - you’re all right
White over white - you’ll fly all night
Red over red - you’re dead (too low)

85
Q

Pulsating Approach Slope Indicator (PASI)

A

Fairly rare. Single light to the side of runway
- Pulsating white - slight high
- Steady white - on glide
- Steady red - slightly too low
- Pulsating red - much too low

86
Q

Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)

A

On side of runway, 4 lights in a row.

2 white, 2 red - on glide path

4 white - too high
4 red - too low
3W1R - slightly high
3R1W - Slight low

87
Q

How to activate lights at an airport when ATC is closed

A

High intensity - 7x in 5 secs
Med intensity - 5x in 5 secs

Start with high then go to med

Lights remain on for 15 mins

88
Q

Taxiway lights vs Runway lights

A

TW - blue
RW - white

89
Q

Yellow background, black letter of an arrow

A

Taxiway direction

90
Q

Yellow background, black words (with arrow?)

A

Direction to destination sign

91
Q

Yellow background, black number

A

Runway direction sign

92
Q

Black background, yellow letter.

A

Destination sign. Black square, you’re there

93
Q

Red background, white letter

A

Mandatory instruction - Ex. 26-8. RW 26 to left, RW 8 to right

94
Q

Runway numbers are magnetic or north?

A

Magnetic to nearest 10 degree

95
Q

How to enter traffic pattern and why

A

45 downwind at mid field. Best chance of seeing other planes.

96
Q

How to exit a pattern

A

Straight out departure, or 45 to left unless airport has RP

97
Q

Parameters of land and hold short

A

Landing procedure used to increase capacity at airport. Not mandatory if cannot accept for safety (ie cannot slow down). Does not prevent go around. Not for students or those uncertain.

Check chart supplement of airport for LAHSO procedure

Depicted on runway with line of squares in front on straight line

98
Q

Minimum weather clearance for LAHSO

A

Basic VFR
1,000 ceiling
3SM viz

99
Q

How to taxi in strong wind

A

Headwind:
Ailerons - up on the side of the wind
Elevator - tail wheel: up; tricycle: neutral

Tailwind
Ailerons - down on side of wind
Elevator - down on all aircraft

100
Q

Risk Elements to flying

A

P - pilot
A - aircraft
V - environment
E - external stresses (make a meeting, impress a friend etc.)

101
Q

How to reduce risk?

A

Situational awareness
Problem recognition
Good judgement

102
Q

Hazardous attitudes that reduce safe flight

A

Anti-authority - Follow the rules. They are usually right.
Impulsivity - Don’t think so fast.
Invulnerability - It could happen to me.
Macho - Taking chances is foolish.
Resignation - I am not helpless.

103
Q

Common behavioural traps

A

Scud running (trying to maintain visibility with terrain despite poor viz and low ceiling)
VFR into IFR - spatial disorientation. LEADING CAUSE OF ACCIDENTS
Relying on memory to perform repetitive tasks. Use checklist, can forget simple things.

104
Q

Fixed prop, float type carb. First sign of carb icing?

A

Loss in RPM.

105
Q

What does an outbound destination sign identify?

A

Taxi route to takeoff runway

106
Q

Chevrons on runway

A

Emergency overrun area, or blast pad cover to prevent erosion from jet blasts. Not suitable for taxi, TO or L.

107
Q

When using a constant speed prop, what do the throttle and prop control?

A

Throttle - manifold pressure
Prop - RPM of engine

108
Q

Standard temp at sea level

A

15 C or 59 F

109
Q

Altimeter changes are caused by?

A

Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface

110
Q

Winds aloft move in which directions?

A

Clockwise around a high pressure system
Counterclockwise around a low pressure system

111
Q

What is a boundary between two air masses?

A

Front - will always notice a wind shift when crossing a front and a temperature differential.

Winds move counter clockwise in low pressure, clockwise in high pressure. Hence why notice a difference in wind when crossing a front.

112
Q

What are the cloud height ranges?

A

1) Low
2) Middle
3) High
4) Lots of vertical development (require unstable air to form)

Nimbus = raincloud

113
Q

How is moisture added to air?

A

Evaporation (water to vapour) or sublimation (frozen to vapour)

114
Q

What is deposition?

A

Vapour to frozen

115
Q

Dew Point

A

The temperature air must be cooled to be saturated. -4.4 F for every 1,000’ AGL

Calculate base of clouds of cumulus clouds if temp is 82 and dew point is 38. 82-38=44. 44/4.4=10 10x1000=10,000 AGL

116
Q

What leads to highest accumulation of structural icing?

A

Freezing Rain

117
Q

When does frost form?

A

When the temperature of collecting surface is at or below dew point, and dew point is below freezing.

Dangerous because disrupts airflow over wings

118
Q

What is a temperature inversion?

A

Warm air above cool air (under normal conditions, temp decreases when alt increases). Requires stable air. Stable air is more hazy, does not move away dust or dirt in the air.

Occurs when no clouds to trap in heat, heat escapes. Ground (terrestrial radiation) cools air around it, calm so does not blow it away. Fog forms.

119
Q

Context when there is high relative humidity

A

Poor viz, fog, haze, low clouds. Smooth air (no air currents)

120
Q

What is wind shear?

A

Température inversion, resulting in rapid change of wind direction and speed. Air 2-4,000 AGL is at least 25kts.

121
Q

What is radiation fog?

A

Warm moist air on calm, clear nights. Land loses heat to atmosphere, vapour in air will condense once dewpoint is reached.

122
Q

What is advection fog?

A

Winter coastal areas where ocean is colder than the land. Air mass moves in from coast to land, and is cooled by moving across the cooler surface. Fog forms.

Requires wind.

123
Q

What is steam fog?

A

Cold air moving over relatively warm water. Evaporated air over the water is cooled by the cold air and turns to fog. Happens in higher latitudes, can lead to icing conditions and low turbulence.

124
Q

What is upslope fog?

A

Air pushed upslope, that cools and reaches dew point. Turns to fog.

125
Q

What is lapse rate?

A

The rate that temperature changes with altitude. Positive = temp decreases with alt increase. Negative = temp increases with alt increase.

2C or 3.5F. Slower is stable, faster is unstable.

126
Q

When calling for a weather briefing, need to state:

A
  • That you are a pilot
  • Aircraft ID/Pilot Name
  • VFR or IFR
  • Route
  • Destination
  • Type of Aircraft
127
Q

What conditions are necessary for a thunderstorm?

A
  • Unstable air (air can keep rising)
  • High humidity (provide energy for the storm to grow)
  • Lifting force (starts the air rising)
128
Q

What is convective turbulence?

A

Found in towering cumulus clouds, which indicate strong updrafts. Can eventually turn into thunderstorms.

Cumulus clouds have a lot of turbulence, cumulonimbus have more.

129
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A
  1. Cumulus Stage - continuous updrafts
  2. Mature - strong up (continues to feed storm) and down drafts (cause precipitation to fall). Most hazardous, could turn into thunderstorm.
    - Could have cumulonimbus mama at this stage (lumpy long body, could turn into tornado)
  3. Dissipai ting Stage - downdrafts, storm does not have new energy
130
Q

What is a cumulonimbus mama?

A

lumpy long body, could turn into tornado

131
Q

What is a lenticular cloud?

A

Almond shape, appears stationary, often above mountains. Can have winds of up to 49kts. Need stable wind. If unstable, can be thunderstorm.

132
Q

Différence between sigmet and airmet?

A

Airmet - small, single engine planes
Sigmet - all planes

Convective Sigmet - large hail (3/4” or more) or embedded thunderstorms (covered by clouds so not seen)

133
Q

Stable air and cloud formation

A

Stable air tends to resist rising, so it forms flat clouds. Stratiform clouds.

134
Q

What are the inflight weather information advisories?

A

Collective name for airmets, sigmets and convective sigmets.

135
Q

When is wind shear most hazardous?

A

Frontal zone
Clear air turbulence
Low level temp inversions

Can also happen in vicinity of thunderstorm

136
Q

Radar in weather prediction

A

Detects general areas of precipitation (rain, snow, thunderstorms). Includes type, intensity and cell movement (direction and speed the precipitation is moving), and top of precipitation echoes (ie. top of the clouds).

137
Q

The more rapid the decrease in temperature as altitude increases…

A

The more unstable. (Above the standard lapse rate)

138
Q

How long do medical certificates last?

A

First: 12months (<40), 6 months (>40)
Second: 12 months
Third: 60 months/5 years (<40 as long as was issued before you were 40), 24 months (>40)

139
Q

Basic Med provisions

A

Cannot fly more than 6 seats, more than 6 passengers including pilot, more than 6,000 lbs. Not outside US unless specifically state accept basic med.
VFR or IFR up to 18,000, 250kts max

Require: US driver license, medical course every 24 months, medical exam 48 months

140
Q

Certificate of Airmen is based on…

A

Aircraft Category:
Airplane (SE/ME, Land/Sea, and if need specific type rating (more than 12,500lbs or turbojet)
Rotorcraft
Glider
Lighter than Air

141
Q

Certificate of Aircraft is based on…

A

Category of Aircraft based on Intended Use:
Normal
Utility - limited maneuvers in acrobats
Acrobatic
Restricted - work operation (crop duster, water bomber) and cannot fly over populated areas
Experimental - home built, not over populated area unless specific permission

Note: Class is the same as category for Airmen (aircraft, rotor, glider, lighter)

142
Q

How long is the registration of an aircraft valid?

A

7 year. If a new buyer, must immediately obtain new one.

143
Q

Required Aircraft documents

A

A - airworthiness (birth certificate, never changed)
R - Registration (current owner. Renewed after 7 years - last day if new, imported or reinstated. Same day if renewal)
O- Operating Limitations (flight manual, markings etc).
W - Weight and Balance

If experimental, Operating Limits show with airworthiness

144
Q

What is a high performance aircraft?

A

Above 200 HP

145
Q

What is complex aircraft?

A

Retractable landing gear, controllable prop

146
Q

Alternatives to the 24 month flight review

A

New rating
Complete phase of ‘Wings’
Annual check as PIC for a jet or heavy aircraft

147
Q

Definition of night - carrying passengers versus official

A

Passengers: 1 hour before/after sunrise/sunset
Official: end of evening civil twilight to start of morning civil twilight (30 mins ish)

148
Q

If deviate from regulation due to emergency, submit report?

A

Only if requested by FAA.

149
Q

What must be logged after an annual inspection?

A
  • Inspection Complete
  • Date
  • Returned to service
  • Who did the work

Every 12 months, expires at end of month
Note: Annual condition inspection for experimental and light sport

Rentals require 100hr inspection

150
Q

Log required if pilot performs preventive maintenance?

A

Signature
Cert number and kind
Description of work done

Has to be PP or commercial who can approve return to service

151
Q

Transponder inspection timeline

A

24 months

152
Q

If flying with inoperative equipment, must:

A

Determine if required by manual, type, design, FAR, AD, MEL if have an FAA approved one.
Deactivate or remove, place placard over (ie. pull circuit breaker, or might need avionics technician)
Adjust weight and balance
Record in log

153
Q

How does minimum equipment list work?

A

Could be in manual, otherwise can create and seek FAA approval.

A - longer time can fly without it
B
C - 10 days to get fixed

If have MEL, must use it. Must be in aircraft at all times.

154
Q

Correct altitude

A

ONE - odd north east

Based on Magnetic course NOT magnetic heading

155
Q

Speed limits

A

Above 10 - none
Below - 250kts
C, D within 4 NM of primary and up to 2,500 - 200 it’s
B - none, separated by radar
Below B or in VFR corridor through B - 200 kts

156
Q

Light gun signals - in flight

A

Flash R - Abandon, cannot land here
Steady R - Give way, keep circling
Flash G - Return for landing but not clear to land
Steady G - Clear to land

R/G - extreme caution

157
Q

O2 altitude requirements

A

12,500-14,00 - 30 mins, then need for crew. Above 14,000, required for crew

15,000 - passengers, but voluntary. PIC must provide.

158
Q

If caught for alcohol related driving infraction, you must:

A

Submit written report within 60 days to FAA Civil Aviation Security Division

159
Q

Minimum safe altitudes

A

Minimum required to make emergency landing without undue harm
No minimum in sparse/open water
500 ft AGL -non congested
500ft AGL from any person, vessel, structure
1000 ft AGL above highest obstacle within 2,000 ft of aircraft in congested

160
Q

Light Gun Signals - Taxi

A

Red - stop do not taxi
Flashing red - taxi clear of runway
Flash green - clear to taxi
Flash white - return to starting point

Red and Green - extreme caution

Can thank by flash lights. Lift ailerons up and down, bank.

161
Q

Which regulation allows a pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

A

14 CFR Part 43.7

162
Q

Three definitions of night

A

Official - civil twilight
Passengers and night currency - 1 hour before and after sunrise/sunset
Recreational pilots - sunset to sunrise

163
Q

Rules for using E6B for distance and time

A
  1. Miles go first (could be gallons instead of miles)
  2. Miles outside, minutes inner
  3. Does it make sense?
164
Q

Compas gives directions based on?

A

Magnetic North

165
Q

What is your true course?

A

Path of aircraft along ground to True North (Lat and Long)

166
Q

What is magnetic course?

A

Path along ground to magnetic North (compass)

167
Q

What is the difference between magnetic and true North?

A

Magnetic north

168
Q

What is the heading of the aircraft?

A

The direction the nose is pointed. Wind creates a difference between nose/heading and direction of flying.

169
Q

What is the wind correction angle?

A

Difference between course and heading.

WCA

170
Q

Is wind given in true or magnetic?

A

True, except for TO and L since RWs are magnetic.

171
Q

What are instruments based off?

A

Magnetic headings

172
Q

What is the compass heading?

A

Magnetic heading - deviation (deviation is errors in compass reading due to magnetic fields on the plane. Read card to determine the amount on your aircraft)

173
Q

What is your true airspeed?

A

Speed going through the air

174
Q

What is your ground speed?

A

Speed going compared to ground. Increases with tail wind, decreases with headwind.

175
Q

How to determine your magnetic course on a sectional chart?

A
  • Draw line from departure to destination airports. Then either:
    1. Use a compass rose
    2. Use Lat and Long (will give you true north, and convert to magnetic north)
  • Use E6B to determine degrees (true north)
  • Determine the WCA (add right wind, subtract left wind)
  • Look on chart for magnetic variation amount. Add to true north if west, subtract if east. Gives Magnetic Heading
  • +/- deviation = compass heading
176
Q

How to find the time travelled using wind and E6B?

A

Distance, and ground speed. Then use calculator.

Find ground speed based on where grommet is after plugging in wind and TAS.

177
Q

Pressure Altitude equals true altitude when?

A

Under standard atmospheric conditions (pressure and temp)

178
Q

What decreases performance, specifically during TO and climb?

A

Hot, humid and high alt (ie. changes in pressure altitude)

Less air to flow over the wings, wings have to move faster to produce same amount of lift.
Less air for engine to burn, decrease in horsepower.

179
Q

What is density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temp.

Warm air = far apart molecules = high DA

180
Q

How does humidity affect density altitude?

A

Increases DA because vapour takes up space of air. Decreases performance.

181
Q

Center of Gravity is

A

Total Moment
——————-
Total Weight

182
Q

Arm is

A

Moment
_________
Weight

183
Q

What is the positive load limit?

A

The highest load the aircraft can handle. Going faster can cause structural damage.

184
Q

Special VFR clearance at night requires..

A

IFR

185
Q

When barometer goes down, indicated altitude…

A

Decreases

186
Q

To be stable, where must the center of pressure be?

A

Behind the center of gravity. Creates positive static stability.

187
Q

What effects the controllability of an aircraft?

A
  • Center of gravity aft
  • Decrease in RPM (tail elevator effectiveness goes down because less air moving over aircraft)
  • Change in the centre of pressure/lift (increase in AOA moves CP forward, closer to CG. When they are close together, the airplane is more stable and will maintain the current attitude if a disturbance such as turbulence hits. )
188
Q

Absence of sky condition and visibility during ATIS means?

A

5,000 ceiling or more
5M viz or more

189
Q

Vmca

A

Minimum controllable airspeed - The speed at which any further (1) increase in angle of attack or (2) load factor, or (3) reduction in power will cause an immediate stall

190
Q

What causes an increase in load factor?

A
  • Abrupt changes to pilot controls
  • Turbulence
  • Steep turns
  • Increase in weight
191
Q

What is Va?

A

Maneuvering speed - max speed before a stall without causing structural damage. Based on movement of a single flight control, in a single direction, in smooth air.

If hit turbulence, can increase speed and go over. Recommend is go below to have a buffer.

192
Q

What services does an FSS provide?

A

Air traffic facilities which provide:
- Pilot briefings
- Flight plan processing
- En route flight advisories
- Search and rescue services
- Assistance to lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations
- Relay ATC clearances
- Process NOTAMs
- Broadcast aviation weather and aeronautical information

193
Q

Below 10,000 ft, pressure is said to increase/decrease at what rate?

A

1”hg per 1,000’ (.1”/100)

194
Q

When is O2 required?

A

At cabin pressure altitudes of:
12,500-14,00 (including) - if 30 mins or more, required for crew
Above 14,000 - mandatory for crew
Above 15,000 - must be provided for passengers but voluntary

At night - vision is impaired by lack of O2. Recommended for above 6,000MSL.

195
Q

When are cabin pressure altitude and altitude equal?

A

Always, unless aircraft is pressurized.

Private Pilot (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions