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CQ 2022 > Knowledge Validation > Flashcards

Knowledge Validation Flashcards

(155 cards)

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1
Q

Why does the Emergency/Parking Brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

To check the brake wear indicators.

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the brake wear indicators?

A

No
Hydraulic 1 and 2 must be pressurized

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3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walk around?

A

Activation of system 1 and 2 hydraulic pumps.

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4
Q

On the external inspection, you notice that the air data smart probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

Turn the ADSP Heater Switch to ON to remove frozen contaminants.

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5
Q

When parked aircraft have been exposed to freezing conditions, moisture can freeze inside the ADSPs and create undesired indications on the ground.

When airspeed indication is present on the PFD’s what messages may be displayed?

A

AFCS FAULT

AT FAIL

AP FAIL

FD FAIL

YD FAIL

APPR 2 NOT AVAIL

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6
Q

When is the ADSP Heater button pushed out?

A

After engine start, after Hydraulic Sys 1 pump is turned off.

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7
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADSPs during preflight.

A

OAT is at or below freezing and water, ice, or snow is present or suspected

On the first flight with temperatures below -18C

Smart Probes frozen

Eroneous airspeed indications present on the PFD with the following EICAS messages:

AFCS FAULT

AT FAIL - AP FAIL - FD FAIL - YD FAIL - APPR 2 NOT AVAIL

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8
Q

Describe preflight of Nose Landing Gear

A

Wheels and Tires - Check condition: flat spots, chord showing, pressure etc.

Check Clear of Ice ***

Uplock Hook - UNLOCKED

Downlock Springs - Check Condition

Strut / Wheel Well / Doors - Condition, No Leaks

Ground Locking Pin - Removed

Landing and Taxi Lights - Condition, Clean and Undamaged

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9
Q

Items with *** indicate what?

A

Items with *** must be accomplished when icing conditions exist or suspected

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10
Q

Describe the preflight of the RAT

A

Rat Safety Lock Pin - Removed

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11
Q

What is the proper preflight of the Engine Inlet

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet.

Ensure there is no damage to T12 sensor and FADEC cooling inlet is clear.

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12
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades?

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate

Check for damage on spinner

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13
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect?

A

3 on each wing

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14
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection

A

Wheels and tires - Condition

Up Lock Hook - unlocked

Down Lock Springs - Condition

Strut / Wheel Wells - Condition and no leaks

Grond Locking Pin - Removed

Break Wear Indicators - Check

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15
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges?

Where is it located?

A

CDL

(Configuration Deviation List)

Located in AFM

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16
Q

What atmospheric conditions require a cold weather preflight inspection?

A

OAT is 5 degrees or less

Wing fuel temperature 0 degrees C or less

conditions conducive to icing exist

RON and may have frozen contaminants

Residual ice from previous flight

Cold soaked aircraft

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17
Q

What checklist is required prior to completing the deice/anti ice process

A

The Before Start Checklist

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18
Q

What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off

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19
Q

Where are the Deice / Anti-Ice communications elements found?

A

They are required

Found in Communication Elements Table

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20
Q

List the required communications elements

A

Type of fluid used

Percentage of fluid

Time of beginning of final step

Deicing complete

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21
Q

When does the final Hold Over Time begin?

A

When the final fluid application commences.

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22
Q

What does the HOT represent?

A

A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for varying precipation intensities

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23
Q

In the HOT table, what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier vs. Lighter precipitation

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24
Q

What should the crew use to determine a HOT

A

Official weather observations

Tables from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensities listed in the official observation

GDPM Precipitation intensities and types

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25
When is a pre-takeoff contamination check required
After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions. Operating in Heavy Snow to ensure wings, control surfacess and critical surfaces are free of contaminants.
26
Can the pre takeoff contamination check be performed if the deice process was initiated at a location other than the wings?
NO
27
Engine failure procedure says hold STD What do you do at fix?
Hold on inbound course Standard Turns Right Turns
28
What is the landing performance heirarcy
RW RCC values when reported Contaminant type and BA Most restrictive RCC is used for landing assessment
29
Are RCCs bidirectional
YES They are evaluated to include displaced thresholds and are measured equally in either direction
30
What does TALPA stand for?
Takeoff and Landing Perforformance Assessment
31
What is the RCAM
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix It is the tool used to access and report surface conditions Maps FICON (field condition) contamination type and depth to a RCC
32
RCCs are used for?
For landing distance calculations Used for departures to identify the runway third with most limiting contaminant Used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway friction
33
RCC of 0 represents what?
NIL Runway immediately closed
34
Limitations of RCC of 1 and 2
An Alternate must be listed Not required with multiple runways with one runway reporting 3 or higher for every 3rd. Dispatch requires expected runway to have reported an RCC of 3 or higher
35
How long are RCC Notams for?
RSC Notams are valid for 8 hours
36
What percentage of the runway surface needs to be covered to be considered contaminated?
Greater than 25%
37
What are RCCs used for?
For determining landing performance. Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant. Used to determine operating crosswind limitations
38
What does TALPA stand for?
Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment
39
What is RCAM
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix Used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via FICON Maps contamination type and depth to a RCC
40
What does RCC represent?
The braking action expected for a particular contaminant level
41
When powering up the aircraft, what is the minimum voltage?
22.5 volts 21V -22V consult SOP Safety and Power up table. Recharge batteries prior to takeoff per the table. Based on battery temp
42
Battery voltage is less than 21Volts
Report as an irregularity Do Not Depart
43
Max Start ITT
815 deg C
44
Max Takeoff Weight For LR For LL
85,517 lbs ERJ LR 85,098 lbs for ERJ LL
45
Max Ramp Weight LR LL
85,870 lbs ERJ LR 85,470 lbs ERJ LL
46
Max landing weight
74,957 lbs
47
Max Runway Width
100 ft.
48
Min Taxi Width
50 ft
49
Wing Span
93 ft 11 in
50
Aircraft Length
103 ft 11 in
51
Tail Height
32 ft 4 in
52
Turn Radius wheel main to wing tip Nose Tip Tail Nose Wheel Minimum Turn Width
Wing Tip - 58 ft Nose 52 ft Tail 57 ft Nose Wheel 38 ft Min Turn Width 59 ft 2 in
53
Max Temp Takeoff and Land
ISA + 35 deg C
54
Min Temp for Takeoff
-40 deg C
55
Max Single Pack Operations
31,000 ft
56
After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?
After Fire Test and verifying no Fire Fail messages 30 seconds
57
Can takeoff and landing occur with a Fuel Imbalance Caution message?
Yes, as long as it is below 794 lbs.
58
Minimum Fuel Tank Temperature
-37 degrees C
59
Starter cranking limits attempts 1 and 2?
90 seconds
60
Minimum time between starts 1 and 2
10 seconds
61
How do starter cranking limits change in flight?
Max cumulative starter run time is 120 seconds per attempt
62
During engine start, N1 rotation must be verified by what N2?
Positive N1 rotation by 50% N2
63
Max brake temperature for takeoff
Green
64
Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind greater than 25 kts?
No, due to comprressor stall possibility
65
After Takeoff, when can the autopilot be engaged?
400 ft
66
Turbulent penetration speed?
270 KIAS .76 Mach Whichever is slower
67
Minimum OAT for APU start and operation?
-54 deg C
68
Maximum APU operational altitude?
33,000 ft.
69
Maximum crosswind for dry runway?
38 kts
70
Maximum crosswind for wet runway?
31 kts
71
Maximum gear retraction/extension/operation speed?
250 kts
72
Flap setting for CAT II
Flap 5 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
73
Max wiper speed?
250 kts
74
Can we use RNAV LP mimimums?
NO
75
What is V2
Engine Failure Climb Speed
76
Minimum Runway Width?
100 ft
77
V tire
195 kts
78
Vmo
.82 Mach
79
Va
240 kts
80
Vle Vlo Vret
250 kts
81
Vmin to provide electrical power
130 kts
82
Vb above 10,000 ft
270 kts / .76 mach
83
V window
160 kts
84
Vfe 1
230 kts
85
Vfe 2
215 kts
86
Vfe 3
200 kts
87
Vfe 4/5
180 kts
88
Vfull
165 kts
89
Max altitude flaps / slats extended
20,000 ft
90
Starter Cranking Limts
Starts 1 and 2 90 seconds on 10 seconds off Starts 3 - 5 90 seconds on 5 minutes off
91
Dry motoring cycle limits
First attempt 90 seconds on 5 minutes off 2 through 5 30 seconds on 5 minutes off
92
Max Fuel Capacity
20,935 lbs
93
Max Fuel Imbalance
794 lbs
94
Min Fuel Tank Temp
-37 deg C
95
APU Limitations Minimum temperature Max temperature Max Altitude
-54 deg C ISA +35 deg C 30,000 ft
96
If IDG fails in flight and the QRH directs to start APU, what considerations must be made?
Max altitude for APU start 30,000 ft Min temperature for APU start -54 deg C
97
Once the APU is started, what altitude can one climb to?
33,000 ft
98
Max crosswind for dry runway?
38 kts
99
Max crosswind for wet runway?
31 kts
100
Max wiper speed?
250 kts
101
Can we use RNAV LP minima?
NO
102
Max cumulative start time in flight?
120 seconds
103
During engine start, must see N1 rotation by .... ?
50%N2
104
Maximum brake temperature for takeoff
Must be in the green
105
What altitude can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
400 ft
106
Turbulent air penetration speed?
270 kts / .76 mach
107
Flaps setting for CATII approch
Flaps 5
108
Deviations called out by the PM are "recommended"?
Mandatory
109
"Glide Path" is a callout required when?
\> One dot deviation on glide slope
110
On approach what bank angle would be a deviation requiring a call out?
\> 25 degrees "Bank Angle"
111
Stabilized Approach Criteria?
1500 ft or FAF, whichever occurs first: Gear down, Flaps 3, 180 kts. 1000 ft: On lateral and vertical profile Airspeed + 15 kts - 5 kts Vap Sink Rate no more than 1000 fpm Fully Configured 500 ft. in the bug and thrust above idle.
112
Battery 1 Overtemp
Associated Battery - OFF Verify QRC Followed by QRH
113
Max ITT on engine start? Memory Item for Hot Start
815 deg C Affected Engine Start / Stop Selector: STOP QRC QRH (Non Annunciated 1-6)
114
Shortly after takeoff cockpit fills with smoke... What is the memory item?
Crew O2: Don / Emergency Crew Communications: Establish Pressurization Dump: Push In
115
List the 5 CRM issues that are included in nearly every ASAP report
Unable to manage distractions Inability to recognize task saturation and level Non-specific WANT briefings that exclude key arrival procedure elements and go-around/missed approach planning Briefing excludes key components preventing crew from having a shared mental model - especially during visual approaches. Not holding other crewmembers accountable to the SOPM
116
The FOM lists 4 tools to mitigate distraction.
Recognize a state of becoming distracted, verbalize the concern and request help to reduce task saturation and increase awareness. Use task prioritazation to determine what can be delayed for a later time during lower workload period. Use good planning during low workload periods to coordinate efficient efforts during high workload periods First officers maintain a state of readiness to assume delegated responsibilities, as directed by the Captain.
117
Name the common cues of task saturation observed through ASAP, LOSA, and FOQA.
Missed checklist items or entire checklists Missed callouts Missed configuration changes Missed ATC read-backs Abbreviated or omitted WANT briefings Little or no communication Lack of FMA correlation to intended mode
118
Min Temperature for APU start and operation
-54 deg C
119
When does the PM call out "Sink Rate"
When greater than 1000 fpm decent on approach
120
When does the PM call out the deviation "Speed"?
Target - 5 kts or any speed less than REF
121
When does the PM call "BANK"
On approach when bank angle is greater than 25 deg
122
Max speed above Vref at 1000 ft AFE
+15 kts
123
What speed is mandatory at 500 ft AFE
Speed in the bug and thrust above idle
124
What is min fuel
Fuel status has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, the PIC cannot accept any undue delay
125
When would you declare Emergency Fuel
While in flight, when it is determined that the remaining fuel supply results in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel
126
What can cause the FMS landing fuel to be inaccurate?
Arrivals with long downwind legs Wrong runway loaded into FMS Flying too fast or below filed altitude Winds aloft don't match forecast EFC in hold page is wrong STAR inaccurate for runway in use
127
Memory Items
Smoke Evacuation Smoke Fire Fumes Cabin Altitude High Jammed Control Column Pitch Jammec Control Wheel Roll Pitch Trim Runaway Roll or Yaw Trim Runaway Steering Runaway BATT 1 or 2 Overtemp
128
Smoke Evacuation
Oxygen Masks: DON / 100% Crew Communications: Establish Pressurization Dump: Push In
129
Smoke Fire Fumes Memory Items
Oxygen Masks: Don, 100% Crew Communications Establish
130
Cabin Altitude High Memory Items
Oxygen Masks: Don 100% Crew Communication Establish
131
Jammed Control Column
Elevator Disconnect Handle: Pull
132
Jammed Control Wheel - Roll
Aileron Disconnect Handle: Pull
133
Pitch Trim Runaway
AP / Trim Disc Button: Press and Hold Pitch Trim Sys 1 and 2 Cutout Buttons: Push In
134
Roll or Yaw Trim Runaway
AP / Trim Disconnect Button: Press and Hold
135
Steering Runaway
Steer Disconnect Switch: Press Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder
136
BATT 1 or 2 Overtemp
Associated Battery: OFF
137
Engine Abnormal Start
Affected Engine Start Stop Selector: Stop Check QRC QRH: NAP Engine Abnormal Start NAP Page 1-6
138
You're flying at cruise when the AP kicks off and the aircraft pitches up Pitch Trim Runaway
AP Disconnect switch: Press and Hold Pitch Trim System 1 and 2 cutout buttons: Press
139
You're flying at cruise when the AP disconnects and the airplane starts yawing and banking to the right. The Yaw Trim on the EICAS is deflecting to the right.
AP Disconnect Button: Press and Hold QRC - QRH NAP 1-16
140
What four principle CRM skills is SkyWest choosing to focus on
Communication Workload Management Situational Awarness Saturation Management
141
Lis the 5 CRM issues included in nearly every ASAP report
Unable to manage distractions Inability to recognize task satuation and level Non-specific WANT briefings that exclude key elements and go around/missed approach planning Briefing excludes key components preventing crew from having a shared mental model - Especially during visual approach procedures, when to configure etc. Not holding crewmembers accountable to the SOPM
142
4 tools to mitigate distraction
Recognize a state of becoming distracted, verbalize the concern and request help to reduce task satuation and increase awareness Use task prioritization to determine what can be delayed for a later time during lower workloads Use good planning during low workload periods to coordinate efficient efforts during high workload periods First officers maintain a state of readiness to assume delegated responsibilities, as directed by the captain.
143
Does the FOM require briefings to include anticipated distractions along with a plan of how to manage this threat?
YES, the captain is responsible to brief anticipated distractions.
144
What is tunneling and how does it contribute to a loss of situational awareness
Under stress a pilot may focus on a single flight deck indicator and not notice other indications also relevant to the situation.
145
What CRM skill is severely diminished during tunneling
Situational awareness. Vigilance and problem identification lapses and ability to detect and manage threats is reduced.
146
What common errors do pilots make during high workload situations in regard to personal ability?
Overestimate peraonal ability to manage the workload and level of satuation. They may not even recognize the level of saturation.
147
Name the common cues of task saturation observed through ASAP, LOSA and FOQA
Missed checklist items or entire checklists Missed callouts Missed configuration changes Missed ATC readbacks Abbreviated or ommitted WANT briefings Little or no communication Lack of FMA correlation to intended mode
148
How mahy CRM issues that are included in nearly every ASAP report are a potential result of task satuarion?
4 out of 5
149
What Action should be employed when a pilot realizes they are in the yellow?
Verbalize the condition. Follow the TEAM. Choose an appropriate level of automation, access the criticality of the threat, communicate a plan of action to return to a greel level of saturation.
150
What key component must be included in visual approachy execution when the 10-7 contains EGPWS warning information?
Pilots follow the track and descent profile of an instrument approach procedure when conducting a visual approach at night.
151
If ACARS is inop, can a weight and balance be calculated? Can it be used for departure?
YES, by using the Flt View Manifiest applet. It can be used for departure.
152
Where can instructions for completing a manifest using the applet be found?
Flight View User Guide under the EFB iPad tile
153
When a mechanical irregularity is discovered after block out but prior to takeoff, the flight is autorized to continue under what conditions?
If there is an approved QRH procedure for the situation, not an inflight procedure. Depart and enter discrepancy at destination. Maintenance directed reset procedure or deferral. PIC reports this immediately to MX and MX deteremins the action.
154
155

CQ 2022 (6 decks)

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