KNS - MBE Questions Missed Flashcards

1
Q

Does the Constitution expressly give Congress the power to dispose of property of the United States?

A

Yes, the Constitution does give this power expressly. THEY DO NOT NEED ANYONE’s permission to exercise this power (AKA don’t need to get the president’s permission, etc.)

The missed Q was about an old navy ship being turned into a cruise ship. Article IV, Section 3 of the Constitution gives Congress the power to dispose of all property belonging to the federal government. There are no express limits placed on this power, and a disposal has never been invalidated on the ground that it places a competitor of the purchaser at a disadvantage.

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2
Q

A plaintiff sued a defendant for fraud. After a verdict for the plaintiff, the defendant talked with a juror about the trial. The juror informed the defendant that, during the trial, (i) he had misunderstood the judge’s instructions concerning the standard of proof in a fraud case, (ii) he was feeling ill and needed to get home quickly, (iii) he had relied on testimony that the judge had stricken and ordered the jury to disregard, and (iv) he had learned from a court clerk that the defendant had been accused of fraud in several recent lawsuits. Hoping to receive a new trial, the defendant wants the juror to testify as to these facts in a post-verdict hearing.

About which of these facts will the juror most likely be allowed to testify? ..

A) He had misunderstood the judges instructions concerning the standard of proof in a fraud case.
B) He was feeling ill and needed to get home quickly.
C) He had relied on testimony that the judge had stricken and ordered the jury to disregard.
D) He had learned from a court clerk that the defendant had been accused of fraud in several recent lawsuits.

A

(D) is correct. Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, a juror generally may not testify in post-verdict proceedings as to matters or statements occurring during the course of jury deliberations. However, a juror may testify as to whether extraneous prejudicial information or any outside influence was improperly brought to bear on any juror. The fact that a juror received evidence about the defendant’s involvement in similar lawsuits from an improper source is considered extraneous prejudicial information.

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3
Q

In a real property dispute over a decedent’s vacation home, the plaintiff offers a deed to show that the home had been transferred to her two months before the decedent died. The defendant, the decedent’s heir, disputes the plaintiff’s claim and alleges that the decedent’s signature on the deed was forged. The defendant testifies that he is familiar with the decedent’s signature and the signature on the deed is not his.

How should the judge rule on this testimony?..

A) Inadmissible because the defendant is not a handwriting expert.
B) Inadmissible because the defendant has a stake in the outcome and his opinion is unreliable.
C) Admissible, because the defendant knows the decedent’s signature.
D) Admissible, because he is disputing the genuineness of the document, not seeking to establish it.

A

The correct answer is C. The judge should rule this testimony admissible because the defendant knows the decedent’s signature. Lay opinion testimony is permissible and often essential to identify telephone voices and handwriting. Any lay witness who is familiar with the signature of a person may testify as to his opinion as to its genuineness. In such a case, a foundation must first be laid to show familiarity with the handwriting, as was done here by the defendant’s testimony.

Therefore, (A) is wrong. (B) is wrong because it goes to the weight of the testimony, not the admissibility. (D) is wrong because the lay witness may testify in support of, or against, the genuineness

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4
Q

In a civil case, a plaintiff must demonstrate that gold is denser than silver. After consulting a textbook on metallurgy, the judge took judicial notice of the fact at the plaintiff’s request.

What is the effect of the judge’s ruling?

A

The fact is conclusively established. The fact that gold is denser than silver is an appropriate subject for judicial notice because it is a fact capable of accurate and ready determination by resorting to sources that have unquestionable accuracy (i.e., the metallurgy textbook).

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5
Q

A plaintiff purchased a new car manufactured by an automotive corporation. While the plaintiff was driving home from the local dealership, she stopped at a stop sign. She was struck from behind by a jeep driven by a driver who had negligently failed to stop. On impact, the plaintiff was injured when she hit her head on the front windshield. The car’s airbag should have prevented this, but the airbag was defective and failed to inflate. Assume that a state law requires all automobiles to be equipped with airbags that will prevent drivers from hitting their heads on windshields on impact.

If the plaintiff asserts a claim against the driver, will the plaintiff prevail?…

A) Yes, unless the corporation was negligent in the manufacture of the car the plaintiff was driving.
B) Yes, because the driver’s negligent driving was a cause in fact of the collision.
C) No, because the airbag in plaintiff’s car violated a state law.
D) No, because the plaintiff would not have been injured but for the failure of the airbag.

A

B is correct. The plaintiff will prevail because the driver’s negligence was a cause in fact of the plaintiff’s injuries. But for the driver’s negligent act of colliding with the plaintiff’s car, the plaintiff would not have been injured, regardless of the fact that the airbag was defective. Note that there can be more than one cause in fact of an injury.

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6
Q

Why is A incorrect? - A) Yes, unless the corporation was negligent in the manufacture of the car the plaintiff was driving.

A

(A) is incorrect because the corporation’s negligence would not qualify as an intervening act, because it occurred earlier in time than the driver’s. An intervening force comes into motion after the time of the defendant’s negligent act and combines with it to cause injury to the plaintiff.

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7
Q

Why is C incorrect?

C) No, because the airbag in plaintiff’s car violated a state law.

A

(C) is incorrect because the fact that the defective airbag violated a statute may establish a breach of duty by the corporation, but it does not relieve the driver from liability for negligence.

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8
Q

Why is D incorrect?

D) No, because the plaintiff would not have been injured but for the failure of the airbag.

A

(D) is incorrect because the “but for” test is used to establish liability in concurrent cause cases, not limit another’s liability. As stated above, there may be more than one cause in fact of an injury.

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9
Q

Are parents vicariously liable for the intentional torts of their children at common law?

A

Parents are not vicariously liable at common law for the intentional torts of their children (although many states have imposed limited liability for certain conduct by statute).

However, a parent (or anyone else having care or custody of a child) can be held liable for injuries caused by the child where the parent herself was negligent.

For example, the parent may be liable for failing to exercise reasonable care to protect against the child’s known dangerous tendencies.

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10
Q

Is there a First Amendment exception to copyright laws?

A

No, there is no first amendment exception to copyright laws. Thus, magazines, newspapers, etc. have no right to publish copyrighted material without permission beyond the statutory fair use exception, if it applies.

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11
Q

Do newspapers have an ABSOLUTE right under the First Amendment to print whatever information they receive?

A

NO - the press generally has no greater freedom to speak than does the public. So the restrictions that apply to the public typically apply to the press as well.

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12
Q

A federal statute authorized the President to designate countries as state sponsors of terrorism and impose economic sanctions on them. When a new President took office, he declared numerous traditional U.S. allies state sponsors of terrorism and imposed sanctions on them. In response, Congress passed a joint resolution, identifying many of the allies as non-sponsors of terrorism and reinstating previously existing trade agreements with those countries.

If the President seeks to enforce the sanctions, are they valid?…

A

YES BECAUSE the joint resolution passed by Congress was not signed by the president.

The president’s action is valid because it complied with a valid statute, and the joint resolution did nothing to change the statute. To modify a statute, Congress must enact a new law, passed by both houses and signed by the President. A joint resolution passed by both houses but not signed by the President has no legal impact.

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13
Q

True or False - Congress has the power to regulate domestic commerce, but not foreign commerce.

A

False - Congress has power to regulate both domestic commerce and commerce with other countries. Congress must pass laws to exercise its power to regulate foreign commerce.

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14
Q

A store security guard who reasonably but mistakenly thought that a shopper had tried to steal a scarf directed her to accompany him to the manager’s office, which had an interior window overlooking the sales floor. Because the blinds were up on the window, the occupants of the office could be seen from the sales floor. After the security guard described what he had seen, the manager began to berate her for trying to steal the scarf and threatened to prosecute her as a shoplifter. However, the manager had neglected to make sure that the public address system that he used to announce specials was turned off, and his statements were broadcast to everyone in the store.

In an action against the store for defamation, will the shopper likely recover?..

A

The shopper can recover against the store for defamation because the store manager negligently communicated his defamatory statements to third persons. A prima facie case for defamation at common law consists of (i) defamatory language by defendant (ii) of or concerning the plaintiff, (iii) publication of the defamatory language by the defendant to a third person, and (iv) damage to the reputation of the plaintiff. The publication requirement is satisfied when there is a communication of the defamatory statement to a third person who understood it. The communication to the third person may be made either intentionally or negligently. Here, the store manager’s statements were defamatory, they were of or concerning the shopper because those hearing the statement could see that the manager was talking to her, and damage to the shopper’s reputation is presumed by law because the allegation that she was a thief is slanderous per se. Because the manager neglected to check that the public address system was not on, his broadcasting of the statements to third persons was negligent. Hence, the publication requirement is satisfied. The store, as the employer of the store manager, will be vicariously liable for the manager’s defamation because it was committed within the scope of his employment.

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15
Q

With defamation, does a publication need to be intentional, or does negligence suffice?

A

Negligence will suffice.

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16
Q

In matters not of public concern defamation cases, does whether the speaker thinks he is telling the truth matter? Is that a defense?

A

NO! A reasonable belief in the truth of your statements is irrelevant in a common law defamation action that does not involve a matter of public concern. In this situation not involving a matter of public concern, the plaintiff does not need to establish that the defendant was negligent in his belief as to the truth or falsity of the statements.

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17
Q

Is assumption of the risk a defense in any tort?

A

NO! - Assumption of the risk is a defense applicable only in negligence.

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18
Q

The police received an anonymous phone call that a man was illegally growing marijuana in a back room of his house. One evening, the police set up a thermal imaging device on the outside wall of the back room. After gathering sufficient evidence that marijuana was being grown, the police entered the home without an arrest warrant. They placed the man under arrest and seized the marijuana.

The evidence was presented before a grand jury which returned an indictment for unlawful possession of marijuana. Before the man was brought to trial, his attorney moved to dismiss the indictment, claiming the man’s arrest and the seizure violated the man’s Fourth Amendment rights.

Will the defense motion be likely to succeed? …

A

NO because the indictment was properly issued!

(D) is correct. The defense motion to dismiss the indictment will not likely succeed, because the indictment was properly issued. The exclusionary rule does not apply when evidence is presented before a grand jury. Therefore, (A) and (B) are incorrect, because whether the police violated the Fourth Amendment (by searching without probable cause and/or a warrant) is irrelevant to the question presented. (C) is incorrect because the police did not have a warrant to arrest the man in his home, and, therefore, the marijuana was not seized incident to a valid arrest

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19
Q

Is scorching sufficient for arson?

A

No - Scorching is not sufficient for arson.

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20
Q

A state study indicated that an inordinately high percentage of homeless in the state were afflicted by alcoholism or addiction to illegal drugs. The legislature therefore decided to levy a special tax, with all proceeds marked for rehabilitative services for the homeless. However, the legislators determined that direct taxes on alcoholic beverages would be resented by the citizenry. Lobbyists from the state’s growing wine industry also objected to anything that would retard the industry’s development. There were no breweries or distilleries within the state. Thus, a tax was eventually passed requiring newspapers and magazines of general circulation published in the state to be taxed at a rate of 20% on all advertising space sold for beer or distilled spirits promotions.

For certain historical reasons, a high proportion of the advertising revenue of a particular small newspaper within the state came from beer and wine ads. The publisher of the small paper filed suit to have the tax declared unconstitutional. A major wholesale beer and liquor distributor located within the state and several out-of-state brewers and distillers who sold and advertised their products in the state also joined in the suit as plaintiffs.

If the tax is declared unconstitutional, what is the most likely reason?…

A

The best answer choice was that this tax infringes on freedom of the press, which is guaranteed by the first and fourteenth amendments. Press and broadcasting companies can be subject to general business taxes, but a tax applicable only to the press or based on the content of a publication will not be upheld absent a compelling justification. Mere need for revenue probably is not a sufficiently compelling interest.

I ANSWERED WRONG - I said that the tax was not okay because it burdens interstate commerce. this is wrong because:

there is no unconstitutional burden on interstate commerce here. The law treats all businesses subject to the tax (namely breweries and distilleries) equally, and so is not protecting local business against out-of-state competition. The fact that the law treats breweries and distilleries differently from wineries and that the state has no breweries or distilleries but does have wineries probably does not change this, because a court will probably find these to be distinct businesses for purposes of advertising.

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21
Q

Does the tort of conversion require that the defendant damage or permanently deprive the owner of the chattel? (Car driven 900 miles by friend question that you were surprised by). Answer to this Q is she could recover the fair market value of the car.

A

The tort of conversion does not require that the defendant damage the chattel or permanently deprive the owner of the chattel. All that is required is that defendant’s volitional conduct result in a serious invasion of the chattel interest of another in some manner. In this case the friend could be considered the bailee of the woman’s car. A bailee is liable to the owner for conversion if the bailee uses the chattel in such a manner as to constitute a material breach of the bailment agreement. A substantial interference with the woman’s possession, such as is shown by the facts in this question, would constitute a material breach.

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22
Q

How is an implied in fact contract formed? The answer to the question about the sneaky woman letting the guy work on her well when she must have known it was an accident and just didn’t say anything to him was that he could argue it was an implied in fact contract.

A

An implied-in-fact contract is formed by manifestations of assent other than oral or written language, i.e., by conduct. Where a person knowingly accepts offered benefits, such conduct, viewed objectively, may be said to manifest an agreement to the conferral of such benefits, resulting in a contract implied in fact. While generally an acceptance must be communicated to an offeror to be effective, courts will often find an acceptance where an offeree silently accepts offered benefits.

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23
Q

In contract law, what is mistake a defense to?

A

MISTAKE IS A DEFENSE ONLY TO FORMATION of a contract. FORMATION only!

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24
Q

A jogger not paying attention to where he was going collided with an elderly woman in a wheelchair, injuring her. The woman, who was mentally incapacitated, was being pushed down the sidewalk by her daughter, who was also her legal guardian. After the accident, the daughter did not take the woman to the doctor for treatment because the daughter had an unreasonable fear of catching a virus at the doctor’s office. As a result, the woman’s wounds became infected and took longer to heal.

What argument provides the woman with her best chance to recover against the jogger for all of her injuries?

A) The doctrine of mitigation of damages does not bar recovery for the original injuries caused by the jogger.
B) Any unreasonable conduct on her daughter’s part is not to be imputed to the woman.
C) Neither the woman nor her daughter were contributorily negligent in causing the collision.
D) Defendants must take their victims as they find them, including the unreasonable behavior of their legal guardians.

A

B is Correct. The woman’s best argument is that her daughter’s refusal to take her to a physician, if deemed to be negligent, is not imputed to her. A plaintiff has a duty to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages. Thus, in personal injury cases, there is a duty to seek appropriate treatment to effect healing and to prevent aggravation. Failure to do so will preclude recovery for any particular item of injury that occurs or is aggravated due to the failure to mitigate. Thus, the woman’s not consulting a doctor could limit her recovery to the damages for the original injury only. However, she is incapacitated and in the care and control of a legal guardian (her daughter), who decided not to bring her to a doctor. In actions against a third party, a legal guardian’s negligence is not imputed to the person under her care. Thus, using the argument in choice (B) that any negligence on the part of the woman’s daughter will not be imputed to her, she should receive a full recovery for all of her injuries if she prevails in an action against the jogger.

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25
Q

Why is answer choice A wrong? (This is the answer you selected):

A) The doctrine of mitigation of damages does not bar recovery for the original injuries caused by the jogger.

A

(A) is incorrect even though it is a true statement. The doctrine of mitigation of damages requires a plaintiff to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages, which in personal injury cases means seeking appropriate treatment to effect a cure or healing and to prevent aggravation. Hence, it does not bar recovery for the plaintiff’s original injuries. However, choice (B) gives her a chance to recover for all of her injuries, and choice (A) does not

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26
Q

Why is choice C wrong?

C) Neither the woman nor her daughter were contributorily negligent in causing the collision.

A

(C) is incorrect because a plaintiff’s contributory negligence as to the accident itself is relevant only as to the amount of damages recoverable for the original injury; it does not affect the rule that a plaintiff must take all reasonable measures to mitigate damages after the original injury is inflicted.

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27
Q

Why is choice D wrong - pay attention - YOU almost chose this one, you weren’t sure how legal guardians impact eggshell plaintiff.

D) Defendants must take their victims as they find them, including the unreasonable behavior of their legal guardians.

A

(D) is incorrect because it misstates the concept of “taking your victim as you find her.” This concept refers to the physical or mental condition of the victim at the time of the injury (e.g., the “eggshell skull plaintiff”); it does not cover the victim’s relationship to others and their attitudes or actions. Thus, the attitude of a victim’s legal guardian toward medical treatment is not included in “taking your victim as you find her.”

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28
Q

A homeowner heard a loud bang against his window one evening. He looked out the window and saw a 12-year-old boy from the neighborhood packing a large snowball. Fearful that he would break the window with another throw, the homeowner went outside and said, “Come here, I want to talk to you.” The boy ran in the other direction and jumped over the fence belonging to a neighbor. Because it was dark, the boy landed on a birdbath and knocked it over, breaking it. The neighbor brought an action against the homeowner for trespass.

If the homeowner prevails, what is the most likely reason?

A) the homeowner confronted the boy in order to defend his property.
B) The homeowner did not enter onto the neighbor’s land.
C) The boy was the one who made the decision to jump over the fence.
D) The homeowner did not intend to frighten the boy onto the neighbor’s property.

A

The correct answer is D.

D is Correct. The best basis for the homeowner to prevail is that he did not intend to frighten the boy onto the neighbor’s property. For the neighbor to succeed in his trespass suit, he must show that the homeowner intended to bring about a physical invasion of the neighbor’s property. The homeowner did not chase the boy onto the neighbor’s yard, nor did the homeowner intend or know with substantial certainty that the boy would enter onto the neighbor’s yard as a result of the homeowner’s actions.

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29
Q

Why is answer choice A incorrect?

A) the homeowner confronted the boy in order to defend his property.

A

(A) is incorrect because a landowner is not automatically privileged to chase or otherwise cause third persons to enter onto another’s land to prevent the commission of a tort against his property. While the landowner may have a qualified defense if the trespass was reasonable and apparently necessary to protect his property from destruction or serious injury, the interference with the neighbor’s property here did not result from necessity.

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30
Q

Why is answer choice B incorrect?

B) The homeowner did not enter onto the neighbor’s land.

A

(B) is incorrect because it is not necessary to establish a prima facie case for trespass to land that the defendant personally came onto the land; e.g., trespass exists where the defendant floods the plaintiff’s land, throws rocks onto it, or chases third persons upon it.

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31
Q

Why is answer choice C incorrect?

C) The boy was the one who made the decision to jump over the fence.

A

(C) is incorrect because even though the boy made the decision to go over the fence, the homeowner could still be liable for trespass if the homeowner acted with the intention of causing the boy to enter onto the neighbor’s land.

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32
Q

A sporting goods retailer whose tent stock was running low saw a listing for the tent she wanted priced at $90 in the catalog of a large camping goods manufacturer. The retailer phoned the manufacturer and placed her order for 10 tents on May 1. The next day, the manufacturer mailed the retailer a letter informing her that the tents were now $92 and that they would be shipped to her on May 16. The retailer received the letter on May 4, but never responded. On May 15, the retailer received a catalog from another company showing tents similar to the ones that she ordered, but for a cost of $70. She immediately called the manufacturer to cancel her order. Nevertheless, the manufacturer shipped the tents to the retailer on May 16.

Assuming that the parties’ communications were sufficient to form a contract, on what day was the contract formed?

A) May 1
B) May 2
C) May 4
D) May 16

A

B is Correct. The contract was formed on May 2. An offer to buy goods for shipment is generally construed as inviting acceptance either by a promise to ship or by shipment. Here, the letter constitutes a promise to ship and thus is an acceptance. The rule for acceptances is that they are effective as soon as they are dispatched, which was May 2. Thus, (B) is correct. (C) is incorrect because, under the mailbox rule, a letter of acceptance creates a contract at the moment of dispatch, not on the day that the offeree receives it. (A) is wrong because the order was an offer, not an acceptance of the catalog listing. Catalogs containing price quotations are generally construed as invitations to offer rather than offers. (D) is wrong because acceptance occurred before shipment; it occurred when the manufacturer sent its promise to ship.

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33
Q

What is intergovernmental immunity?

A

The employee’s best defense is intergovernmental immunity. State and local governments cannot tax or regulate the activities of the federal government. This principle is often termed “intergovernmental immunity.” The arrest and prosecution of a federal employee who was on the job violates this principle, which is based on the supremacy of the federal government and federal law.

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34
Q

A Congressman was indicted for conspiracy to use improper influence to prevent a tax fraud investigation of his ex-law partner. The prosecution desires to show that, as part of the conspiracy, the Congressman made a speech on the floor of the United States House of Representatives at a relevant time, urging a cutback in appropriations for the Internal Revenue Service. The Congressman’s legislative aide and speechwriter have been called as a witness to the circumstances of the preparation of that speech. The Congressman objects to the calling of his speechwriter.

How should the court rule on the objection? …

A) Deny the objection, because the speech or debate clause does not protect speeches when they are the subject of a criminal prosecution.
B) Deny the objection, because the speech or debate clause only protects speeches made on the floor of congress, not relations with congressional aids.
C) Sustain the objection, because the speech or debate clause protects all confidential communications between a Congressman and his aid.
D) Sustain the objection, because the aide is protected by the speech or debate clause when preparing a speech for the floor of Congress.

A

(D) is correct. The Speech or Debate Clause provides that “For any speech or debate in either House [members of Congress] shall not be questioned in any other place.” The immunity extends to aides who engage in acts that would be immune if performed by a legislator. Here, the aide assisted in the legislative process by preparing a speech to be delivered during a legislative session and, thus, is protected under the Speech or Debate Clause. Therefore, (B) is incorrect. (A) is incorrect. Under the Speech or Debate Clause, the deliberative process on the floor of Congress is a protected activity, even when it is relevant to a criminal investigation. (C) is incorrect. This statement is too broad. The scope of the Speech or Debate Clause extends only to material prepared for the deliberative process. It does not create a general privilege between a member of Congress and his aides.

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35
Q

A motorist who failed to stop at a stop sign was struck by a car being taken for a test drive by a mechanic who had repaired the car’s brakes. The motorist sued the repair shop that employed her to recover for his injuries. At trial, the motorist called a bystander to testify that when the mechanic saw that the motorist was injured, she ran over and told him, “I’m really sorry. I guess I didn’t fix the brakes as well as I thought.”

Should the repair shop’s objection to the bystander’s testimony be sustained?…

A) Yes, because the mechanic’s statement is inadmissable against the repair shop.
B) Yes, because the motorist did not stop at the stop sign.
C) No, because it is a declaration against interest.
D) No, because it is a statement attributable to a party opponent.

A

D - The mechanic’s statement is admissible as a statement attributable to a party-opponent. The Federal Rules treat statements by a party-opponent (commonly known as admissions) as nonhearsay (whereas most states consider them to be an exception to the hearsay rule). This rule applies to any statement made by a party and offered against that party. Such a statement need not have been against interest at the time it was made.

Some statements are considered admissions even if not made by the party against whom they are offered, as long as they are attributable to the party. One such vicarious admission is a statement by an agent concerning a matter within the scope of her agency, made during the existence of the agency relationship. [Fed. R. Evid. 801(d)(2)(D)]

Here, the bystander’s testimony as to the mechanic’s statement is offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted therein; i.e., that the mechanic had not properly fixed the brakes. Thus, the mechanic’s statement would normally be considered hearsay.

However, the statement was made while she was an agent of the repair shop, and the statement concerned a matter within the scope of her agency (i.e., whether she had properly performed the job for which she was employed by the repair shop). Consequently, her statement may be introduced against the repair shop as an admission by a party-opponent of negligence in the repair of the brakes.

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36
Q

A driver and her passenger were injured when their car collided with a truck owned and driven by a trucker. The driver brought suit against the trucker alleging negligence. During the course of her case-in-chief, the driver failed to call the passenger to the stand to testify. The trucker also failed to call the passenger to testify.

If the jury is to be given an instruction concerning the inference to be drawn from the failure to call the passenger, which of the following is proper? …

A

“There is no adverse inference to be drawn from the driver’s failure to call the passenger to testify.”

37
Q

A boy and his parents sued a driver for $75,000 for injuries they claim were caused when the driver’s car hit the boy one night when the boy was out delivering papers. The boy was knocked unconscious in the accident, and the driver claims that it was not his car that hit the boy. Except for damages, the main issue in the suit is whether it was the driver’s car that hit the boy. The driver’s own attorney asks him, “Could the boy have mistaken your car for another?”

Is this question objectionable?

A) Yes, because this answer would be hearsay.
B) Yes, because this answer would be an opinion.
C) No, because the answer would be relevant to the issue of whose car hit the boy.
D) No, if a proper foundation has been laid.

A

B is Correct. The driver’s answer could only reflect his opinion of what the boy did or thought, and is thus impermissible opinion evidence. A layperson’s opinion is admissible if it is rationally based on the perception of the witness, helpful to a clear understanding of the witness’s testimony on the determination of a fact in issue, and not based on scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge. The driver’s opinion does not meet those requirements; he is speculating rather than testifying to his own perceptions.

(A) is wrong because the question does not call for the driver to testify about an out-of-court declaration. (C) is wrong because, although relevant, the answer would still be improper. (D) is wrong because the form of the question is improper.

38
Q

Did a person coming to the assistance of someone hanging off a building act negligently if they placed the ladder on a patch of ice and the ladder then falls over with the plaintiff on it, causing injury?

A

A person generally is under no duty to assist another. However, when someone gratuitously undertakes to do so, they come under a duty to act as an ordinary, reasonable person while rendering such assistance.

In this situation, he breached this duty by setting the ladder atop the patch of ice, thus creating an unreasonable risk that the ladder would slip while the neighbor was climbing down, causing him injury. And the ladder did fall, creating the injury, so can be liable for the plaintiff’s injuries.

39
Q

The owner of a gourmet food store entered into oral negotiations with the president of a food products corporation to secure an exclusive distributorship in the state for a popular truffle sauce. After some discussion, the parties agreed on all salient points and shook hands on the deal. They agreed further that the corporation’s general counsel would reduce the agreement to writing and that the agreement would become effective after it was drawn up and initialed by the corporation’s general counsel and by the store owner’s attorney. The corporation’s general counsel duly committed the agreement to writing and sent the writing to the store owner’s attorney, but without initialing it first. The attorney looked over the agreement, made no changes, initialed it, and mailed the agreement to the corporation’s counsel on May 1. On May 2, the president of the corporation decided that a large national grocery chain would be a better distributor for the sauce than the gourmet food store, so he had the general counsel call the store’s attorney to say that the deal was off. The corporation’s counsel received the written agreement with the attorney’s initials on it on May 3. Nevertheless, the corporation began to distribute its products through the national grocery chain.

If the gourmet food store owner files suit against the corporation and its president for breach, is she likely to prevail?

A) Yes, because the mailing of the written agreement to the attorney constituted an irrevocable offer.
B) Yes, because the owner and the corporation’s president entered into a valid oral contract.
C) No, because the corporation’s general counsel never initialed the written agreement and there was, therefore, failure of an express condition.
D) No, because the phone call from the corporation’s general counsel to the owner’s attorney constituted a valid revocation before acceptance.

A

B is Correct. The gourmet food store owner is likely to prevail, because she and the corporation’s president formed a valid oral contract when they agreed on all salient points after negotiations. One element of their agreement was that the terms would be put in writing, a process sometimes called “memorializing” the agreement. The writing does not constitute the agreement itself, but is merely a written record of it. Another element of their oral agreement concerned when it would take effect: on completion of the “memorialization.” The general counsel’s failure to initial the writing, whether deliberate or inadvertent, was a breach of the oral agreement that he would do so, but cannot be used to avoid performance of the contract. Note that even though the contract involves the sale of goods and may be for $500 or more, a violation of the Statute of Frauds does not affect the contract’s validity, just its enforceability . Here, the memorialization of the contract makes it enforceable under the Statute (even without his initials).

40
Q

The owner of a gourmet food store entered into oral negotiations with the president of a food products corporation to secure an exclusive distributorship in the state for a popular truffle sauce. After some discussion, the parties agreed on all salient points and shook hands on the deal. They agreed further that the corporation’s general counsel would reduce the agreement to writing and that the agreement would become effective after it was drawn up and initialed by the corporation’s general counsel and by the store owner’s attorney. The corporation’s general counsel duly committed the agreement to writing and sent the writing to the store owner’s attorney, but without initialing it first. The attorney looked over the agreement, made no changes, initialed it, and mailed the agreement to the corporation’s counsel on May 1. On May 2, the president of the corporation decided that a large national grocery chain would be a better distributor for the sauce than the gourmet food store, so he had the general counsel call the store’s attorney to say that the deal was off. The corporation’s counsel received the written agreement with the attorney’s initials on it on May 3. Nevertheless, the corporation began to distribute its products through the national grocery chain.

If the gourmet food store owner files suit against the corporation and its president for breach, is she likely to prevail?

A) Yes, because the mailing of the written agreement to the attorney constituted an irrevocable offer.
B) Yes, because the owner and the corporation’s president entered into a valid oral contract.
C) No, because the corporation’s general counsel never initialed the written agreement and there was, therefore, failure of an express condition.
D) No, because the phone call from the corporation’s general counsel to the owner’s attorney constituted a valid revocation before acceptance.

A

B is Correct. The gourmet food store owner is likely to prevail, because she and the corporation’s president formed a valid oral contract when they agreed on all salient points after negotiations. One element of their agreement was that the terms would be put in writing, a process sometimes called “memorializing” the agreement. The writing does not constitute the agreement itself, but is merely a written record of it. Another element of their oral agreement concerned when it would take effect: on completion of the “memorialization.” The general counsel’s failure to initial the writing, whether deliberate or inadvertent, was a breach of the oral agreement that he would do so, but cannot be used to avoid performance of the contract. Note that even though the contract involves the sale of goods and may be for $500 or more, a violation of the Statute of Frauds does not affect the contract’s validity, just its enforceability . Here, the memorialization of the contract makes it enforceable under the Statute (even without his initials).

41
Q

Why is A incorrect?

A) Yes, because the mailing of the written agreement to the attorney constituted an irrevocable offer.

A

(A) is incorrect because the oral agreement was already in effect at the time the writing was mailed. The processes of offer and acceptance took place during the oral negotiations. Even if the mailing of the writing could somehow be seen as an offer, there are no facts, such as detrimental reliance, that show it to be irrevocable.

42
Q

Why is C incorrect?

C) No, because the corporation’s general counsel never initialed the written agreement and there was, therefore, failure of an express condition.

A

(C) is incorrect because, as described above, the writing was a memorial of the existing oral agreement. Even if the requirement of the general counsel’s initialing is characterized as an express condition, the corporation’s president would not be permitted to prevent the occurrence of the condition and then claim the benefit of its nonoccurrence

43
Q

Why is D incorrect?

D) No, because the phone call from the corporation’s general counsel to the owner’s attorney constituted a valid revocation before acceptance.

A

(D) is incorrect because acceptance had already taken place on the parties’ reaching an oral agreement. This choice appears to invoke the mailbox rule but gets it wrong, since a mailed acceptance is generally effective on posting (which occurred prior to the phone call), not on receipt. In any event, the mailbox rule is not applicable to these facts.

44
Q

A defendant was convicted in federal court for possession of two kilograms of cocaine with intent to distribute and sentenced to two years in prison. The defendant was then indicted by a federal grand jury for conspiracy to distribute the same two kilograms of cocaine. She moved to dismiss the indictment.

Should her motion be granted? ..

A

The defendant’s motion should be denied because a prosecution for conspiracy is distinct from a prosecution for any substantive offense involving the same conduct as the conspiracy. The Fifth Amendment provides that no person shall be twice put in jeopardy for the same offense.

The general rule is that two crimes do not constitute the same offense if each crime requires proof of an additional element that the other crime does not require, even though some of the same facts may be necessary to prove both crimes. [Blockburger v. United States (1932)]

Furthermore, a prosecution for conspiracy is not barred merely because some of the alleged overt acts of that conspiracy have already been prosecuted. [United States v. Felix (1992)] Here, both the conspiracy charge and the possession charge require proof of an element that the other charge does not; hence, there is no double jeopardy problem with the indictment.

45
Q

The plaintiff was exiting from a parking garage owned and operated by the city when he discovered that the exit ramp was blocked by construction barricades and a pile of broken-up concrete. No workers or detour signs were around and the plaintiff was in a hurry, so he backed up and drove down an entrance ramp that was clearly marked as such. As he came around a corner, his car was broadsided by a pickup truck. The plaintiff was seriously injured in the collision. A statute in the jurisdiction requires drivers to obey all traffic directional markings in both public and private parking lots and garages. The jurisdiction retains governmental immunity for municipalities.

If the plaintiff brings a lawsuit against the city to recover for his injuries, which of the following facts will be LEAST helpful in the city’s defense?

A) The plaintiff was aware than another exit on the other side of the garage was open.
B) The construction workers responsible for blocking off the exit ramp were employees of an independent contractor rather than the city.
C) The city does not collect fees or make a profit in the operation of the garage.

A

B is Correct. The fact least helpful to the city’s defense of the plaintiff’s lawsuit is the identity of the workers who blocked the exit ramp. Under vicarious liability rules, a principal will be liable for the tortious acts of an independent contractor if the duty is nondelegable on public policy grounds; included is the duty of a possessor of land to keep its premises safe for its invitees. If the workers were negligent in leaving the ramp blocked without providing another means of exiting, the fact that they were not city employees would not absolve the city of liability; hence, their identity would be of no help to the city’s defense.

46
Q

Why is C incorrect? How is this helpful to the city in their defense.

C) The city does not collect fees or make a profit in the operation of the garage.

A

(C) is incorrect because whether the city collects fees and makes a profit in operation of the garage will be considered by the court in determining whether the jurisdiction’s governmental immunity applies.

Where municipal immunity still exists, courts have limited its scope by differentiating between “governmental” and “proprietary” functions of the municipality. If the municipality is performing a function that might as well have been provided by a private corporation, the function may be construed as a proprietary one and no immunity will attach. The inference that a function is proprietary will be strengthened where the city collects revenues by virtue of providing the service.

Hence, the fact that the city is not collecting revenues or making a profit in operating the garage will make it less likely that the function will be deemed to be proprietary and more likely that it will be deemed to be governmental and thus immune; in other words, it will be more helpful rather than less helpful in the city’s defense.

47
Q

For jurisdictions that have a dead man act, what does it do?

A

A typical Dead Man Act provides that a party or person interested in the event, or her predecessor in interest, is incompetent to testify to a personal transaction or communication with a deceased when such testimony is offered against the representative or successor in interest of the deceased.

Such statutes are designed to protect those who claim directly under the decedent from perjured claims.

So used in wills cases!!!!!!

48
Q

To be liable for battery, do you need to intend to cause harm?

A

No - To be liable for battery, the defendant must have intended to bring about harmful or offensive contact with the plaintiff. Intent is defined as having a purpose or desire to bring about given consequences or having a belief or knowledge that certain consequences are substantially certain to result from an act.

49
Q

A housing development contained one-, two-, and three-bedroom units. All units were suitable for occupancy, and the developers of the project filed the appropriate documents, including a Declaration of Restrictions that limited ownership and occupancy of the units to families or to groups of unrelated adults of not more than three in number. Each deed to the individual units also contained the restriction.

One of the two-bedroom units was purchased by a woman and her boyfriend. They immediately moved into the unit with another unmarried couple who were friends of theirs. Other unit owners brought suit against the woman and her boyfriend to enjoin the occupancy by the other couple.

If the other unit owners prevail, what will likely be the reason?..

A) The litigants are private parties and the restriction was not enacted by the government.
B) Enforcement of the restriction is rationally related to a legitimate government interest.
C) Notice was not given by the woman and her boyfriend to the sellers of the unit that they intended to occupy the residence with another couple.
D) The restriction constitutes a lawful restraint on alienation.

A

B - If the other owners prevail, it will be because the court’s enforcement of the regulation is rationally related to a legitimate government interest. The Supreme Court has held that court enforcement of restrictive covenants in deeds constitutes state action, and thus a court may enforce a restrictive covenant only if it is constitutional. Under the Due Process Clause, unless fundamental rights are involved, government action is constitutional as long as it is rationally related to any conceivable legitimate end of government. Zoning regulations prohibiting three or more unrelated persons from living together have been held not to infringe on any fundamental rights in Village of Belle Terre v. Boraas (1974); hence, judicial enforcement of a private covenant with that prohibition likely would also be valid for that reason.

50
Q

Why are A, C, and D wrong?

A) The litigants are private parties and the restriction was not enacted by the government.

C) Notice was not given by the woman and her boyfriend to the sellers of the unit that they intended to occupy the residence with another couple.

D) The restriction constitutes a lawful restraint on alienation.

A

(A) is wrong because, as discussed above, government action includes court enforcement of restrictive covenants between private parties, and deed restrictions based on race have been held unenforceable in Shelley v. Kraemer (1948), because enforcement would constitute government action supporting discrimination against a suspect class. Here, however, no suspect class or fundamental right is involved. (C) is wrong because it is not relevant to a determination of whether the restriction can be properly enforced by the court. (D) is wrong because the issue here involves occupancy of the unit rather than transfer or sale.

51
Q

The defendant is being tried for murder. A witness to the crime had aided the police artist in making the composite picture by which the defendant was identified. This witness disappeared before trial, and the prosecutor now wants to offer the sketch into evidence.

The sketch is:
A) Inadmissible, under the best evidence rule.
B) Inadmissible, as hearsay not within any exception.
C) Admissible, as a record by a public employee.
D) Admissible, as a prior identification.

A

B is Correct. The sketch is inadmissible. Under Rule 801 of the Federal Rules, prior identification can be admissible and the sketch could be deemed a prior identification. However, to be admissible, the witness must be there to testify at trial and be subject to cross-examination. The witness in this case is unavailable; hence, this exception does not apply.

(D) is therefore incorrect. (A) applies to documentary evidence and has no relevance to this question. (C) is likewise not applicable, because this exception applies only to information within the personal knowledge of the public employee. In this case, the public employee gained the knowledge from the hearsay statement of an absent witness.

52
Q

May judicial notice be taken at any stage of the proceedings?

A

Judicial notice may be taken at any stage of the proceedings, including during appellate review.

53
Q

Does a party have to request a court to take judicial notice for a court to be allowed to take judicial notice?

A

No - A court is permitted to take judicial notice of a fact on its own accord.

54
Q

is a party entitled to a hearing as to the propriety of taking judicial notice and to the tenor of the matter noticed?

A

Yes

55
Q

Does the jury always have to accept as conclusive any fact judicially noticed?

A

The jury in a civil case must accept as conclusive any fact judicially noticed; in a criminal case, the jury may accept as conclusive any fact judicially noticed, but it is not required to do so.

56
Q

Does a revocation need to reach everyone who heard the offer to be valid?

A

No - revocation need only be published in the same manner as the offer; it need not actually reach everyone who knew of the offer.

57
Q

A man who had been living with a woman in an old farmhouse left without warning. In a note, he told her that he was not coming back other than to get his possessions in the spring, and he told her not to touch them. Among his possessions was an extensive set of woodworking tools that he kept in a workshop. During the winter, the manager of the local heating oil company agreed to provide heating oil in exchange for unlimited use of the woodworking tools, which he thought were owned by the woman. After several weeks of using the tools, the manager offered to purchase one of the tools, a lathe, from the woman for about half of what it was worth. The woman agreed and the manager took it home with him.

Is the manager liable for conversion of the lathe?…

A

YES - Once the manager took the lathe, he had converted the man’s property. Even a bona fide purchaser is liable when he takes possession of personal property which another has a superior right to possess. There is no requirement that the converter intend to wrongfully deprive the owner of the property.

58
Q

What is a superseding force?

A

Something that is unforeseeable.

59
Q

What is the four part analysis for commercial speech cases?

A

There is a four-part analysis for commercial speech cases: 1) whether the commercial speech concerns lawful activity and is not misleading; 2) whether the asserted government interest is substantial; 3) whether the regulation directly advances the government interest; and 4) whether the regulation is no more restrictive than necessary. The regulation need not be the least restrictive alternative means available, rather there must be a reasonable “fit” between the goal and the means chosen

60
Q

A father had made a legally binding promise to furnish his son and his fiancée with a house on their wedding day, planned for June 10 of the following year. Pursuant to that promise, the father and a contractor-friend entered into a contract for the building of a home on a piece of undeveloped land that the father owned. The contractor began building the house but breached the contract by abandoning the house unfinished on March 1. The contractor was aware when the agreement was made of the purpose for which the father wanted the completed house.

Which of the following, if true, would best support the father’s claim for consequential damages on account of the house not being finished by June 10?

A

C (father had to pay to put son and wife in temporary housing) is Correct. NOTE - consequential damages is VERY MUCH about foreseeability. If something is not foreseeable, consequential damages will not be awarded.

Here, The father’s additional expense in providing temporary housing would be the best basis for a claim of consequential damages. In addition to the standard measure of damages, consequential damages may be awarded for further losses resulting from the breach that any reasonable person would have foreseen would occur from a breach at the time of entry into the contract. Temporary housing expenses would have been foreseeable at the time the contractor and the father entered into the contract

61
Q

What does the property clause of Article IV, section 3 do?

A

the Property Clause gives Congress the power to “make all needful rules and regulations respecting the territory or other property belonging to the United States.” This power permits Congress to acquire and dispose of all kinds of property, and to protect its property

62
Q

If I say something dishonest about you in court and know it is dishonest, can you sue me for defamation?

A

NO! All statements made by the judge, jurors, counsel, witnesses, or parties in judicial proceedings are absolutely privileged. Absolute privileges are not affected by a showing of malice, abuse, or excessive publication, unlike qualified privileges.

63
Q

When is rational basis analysis used?

A

Whether a law is examined under the substantive provisions of the Due Process Clause or the Equal Protection Clause, the analysis is the same: If no fundamental right or suspect or quasi-suspect class is involved, the law will be assessed under the rational basis standard. Under that standard, government action will be upheld unless a challenger can prove that it is not rationally related to a legitimate government interest.

64
Q

What is necessary to prevail on a nuisance claim?

A

For a private nuisance action to lie, the interference with the plaintiff’s use and enjoyment of his land must be SUBSTANTIAL AND UNREASONABLE. This means that it must be offensive, inconvenient, or annoying to an average person in the community. It will not be characterized as substantial if it is merely the result of the plaintiff’s hypersensitivity or specialized use of his own property.

65
Q

Is specific performance available for a service contract?

A

Specific performance generally is unavailable for a services contract because of enforcement problems and concerns over involuntary servitude

66
Q

What must take place for punitive damages to be awarded?

A

Tortious misconduct. Punitive damages are not recoverable for breach of contract absent tortious misconduct. Punitive damages are awarded to punish a defendant for wrongful conduct, not to compensate a plaintiff for emotional distress.

67
Q

A pedestrian walking along an unpaved road on his way to work saw a school bus coming in the opposite direction suddenly begin to careen toward him. The bus driver had momentarily lost control of the bus while attempting to light a cigarette.

To avoid being hit by the bus, the pedestrian jumped off the road into a landowner’s yard. Unfortunately, he landed in a bed of prize-winning zinnias and damaged them extensively.

In a suit by the landowner against the bus driver for the damages to her zinnias, what is the likely result?…

A) The bus driver is liable for trespass because his driving caused the pedestrian to enter the landowner’s yard.
B) the bus driver is liable based on negligence.

A

The right answer is B - The bus driver is liable to the landowner in a negligence action. The driver of a vehicle on a public road owes to foreseeable plaintiffs a duty of ordinary, reasonable care to refrain from creating an unreasonable risk of injury in the operation of the vehicle. In trying to light a cigarette while driving the bus, the bus driver created an unreasonable risk that he would lose control of the bus, thus endangering the physical safety and the property of other drivers on the road, pedestrians, and owners of property adjoining the road. There was a foreseeable risk of injury to the landowner or her property arising from the manner in which the bus driver drove the bus; thus, the duty of care extended from the bus driver to the landowner. This duty was breached when the bus driver drove the bus so as to create an unreasonable risk of injury to the landowner or her property. It was reasonably foreseeable that a pedestrian endangered by the manner in which the bus driver drove the bus would be compelled to enter the landowner’s property and would damage the zinnias. By forcing the pedestrian to jump off the road to save his life, the bus driver actually and proximately caused the damage to the zinnias; where a defendant’s actions cause another to react, liability will attach for any harm inflicted by the reacting person on another. Thus, the bus driver can be held liable in negligence for the damage to the landowner’s zinnias.

(A) is incorrect because the bus driver lacked the intent to bring about a physical invasion of the landowner’s property. Absent such intent, there can be no liability for trespass. The bus driver was negligent in his operation of the bus, and this caused the pedestrian to enter the landowner’s land. However, the bus driver neither acted with the purpose of forcing the pedestrian onto the landowner’s land nor did he act knowing with substantial certainty that this consequence would result. Therefore, the bus driver did not have the intent needed to support an action for trespass

68
Q

A city condemned all of the buildings in a decaying warehouse district and offered them to developers at no cost, provided the developer submits a building revitalization plan to the city’s planning commission, the commission approves the plan, and the developer pays the city’s redevelopment authority to perform the work needed to revitalize the building. An experienced developer submitted a plan to revitalize a block-long building, and his plan was approved by the planning commission. However, the developer wanted to perform the revitalization work himself, both to ensure that the job was done correctly and to save a substantial amount of money. Although he offered to post a surety bond to insure his performance, the city refused his offer.

As applied to the contractor, is the city’s requirement that the developer use the city’s redevelopment authority constitutional?…

B) No because it constitutes an improper extraction under the Fifth Amendment.

C) Yes, because the city is seeking just compensation for the building it will provide to the developer.

D) Yes, because the requirement is rationally related to a legitimate government interest.

A

D is correct - The city’s requirement that the developer use the city’s redevelopment authority is constitutional under the rational basis standard. When a city acts and the actions do not affect a fundamental right or involve a suspect or quasi-suspect classification, the action will be upheld unless the challenging party can prove that the action is not rationally related to a legitimate government interest. The city’s desire to use its own work crews to do all redevelopment work in the warehouse district is rationally related to many possible legitimate government interests; e.g., ensuring consistency and quality, providing work for government employees, and even making a profit or recouping some of the funds that the city expended to condemn the buildings. Moreover, the city does not classify developers, treating some differently from others, so no suspect or quasi-suspect class is involved, and as will be explained below, no fundamental right is involved either.

(B) is incorrect. It is based on the Taking Clause of the Fifth Amendment. That clause prohibits government from taking private property without just compensation. It has been held that under the clause, government may not condition a building permit on a landowner’s conveying title to part of his land to the government or granting the public access to the property unless the government can show that the condition relates to a legitimate government interest and the adverse impact of the proposed development is roughly proportional to the loss caused to the owner by the forced transfer. Here, the contractor does not own the building—the city is willing to give it to the builder only if certain conditions are met. Thus, the conditions do not amount to an exaction.

(C) is incorrect. It also is based on the Taking Clause. That clause is not a source of power. Thus, it cannot be a constitutional basis for upholding the city’s requirement.

69
Q

What does the article IV privileges and immunities clause do?

A

The Article IV Privileges and Immunities Clause prohibits states from discriminating against nonresidents regarding “fundamental” rights,

70
Q

A homeowner owed a contractor $1,400 for work that the contractor did on her home. Pursuant to the contract between the parties, the $1,400 was due on September 1. After the homeowner told the contractor that she probably would not be able to pay the $1,400 on September 1, the contractor agreed to extinguish the debt if the homeowner, who was the manager of an appliance store, purchased a washer and dryer that the contractor’s mother wanted and had it delivered to the mother’s home and set up by September 15. Because the homeowner’s manager discount would allow her to pay only $1,000 for the washer and dryer, which had a list price of $1,200, she agreed and the parties signed a writing to that effect on August 26.

Is the new agreement between the homeowner and the contractor legally enforceable? …

A

The new agreement between the two parties is enforceable as an accord. An accord is an agreement in which one party to an existing contract agrees to accept, in lieu of the performance that he is supposed to receive from the other party, some other, different performance. Generally, an accord must be supported by consideration, but the consideration may be of a lesser value than the originally bargained-for consideration in the prior contract, as long as it is of a different type or the claim is to be paid to a third party. Here, the homeowner’s obligation to provide the contractor’s mother with a new washer and dryer was of a lesser value to the homeowner than the originally bargained-for consideration in the prior contract, but it was of a different type and the claim was to be paid to a third party (the contractor’s mother). Thus, it was sufficient new consideration to form a valid accord.

71
Q

In a trial between a farmer and his neighbor, an issue arose about the farmer’s ownership of a horse, which had caused damage to his neighbor’s crops. The neighbor offered to testify that he looked up the farmer’s telephone number in the directory, called that number, and that a voice answered, “This is [the farmer] speaking.” At this, the neighbor asked, “Was that your horse that trampled across my cornfield this afternoon?” The voice replied, “Yes.” The neighbor had not spoken to the farmer prior to the phone conversation.

The judge should rule the testimony:

A) Admissible, because the answering speaker’s identification of himself, together with the usual accuracy of the telephone directory and transmission system, furnishes sufficient authorization.
C) Inadmissible, because the neighbor was not familiar with the farmer’s voice and is unable to verify that is was in fact the farmer he was speaking to.

A

A is Correct. The testimony should be admissible as sufficiently authenticated. Where the identity of the speaker of an oral statement is important, authentication as to the speaker’s identity is required. A statement made during a telephone conversation may be authenticated by a party to the call who testifies that: (i) he recognized the other party’s voice; (ii) the speaker had knowledge of certain facts that only a particular person would have; or (iii) he called a certain person’s telephone number, and a voice answered, “This is (the person whose number was called).” Here, the identity of the person with whom the neighbor spoke on the telephone is important because the speaker admitted that his horse caused the damage. Thus, authentication is required. Because the neighbor called the listed phone number for the farmer, and the answering voice identified itself as the farmer, authentication is proper under (iii) above.

(C) is incorrect because, as noted above, familiarity with the speaker’s voice is only one means of authentication.

72
Q

A state with a number of automobile manufacturing facilities within its borders and a high unemployment rate because of declining sales of automobiles, especially ones built domestically, enacted a statute calling for a $100-per-car tax on all foreign-built automobiles sold within the state. The tax revenues were to be placed into a state fund to be used to retrain the state’s unemployed automobile workers.

A major automobile importer and dealership owner brings suit in federal district court seeking to halt the enforcement of the statute on constitutional grounds.

Should the court find the statute to be constitutional?…

A) Yes, because it is a proper exercise of a state’s rights under the Import-Export clause.
B) Yes, if consented to by Congress.
C) No, because the statute violates the privileges and immunities clause of Article IV.
D) No, unless the state can show the statute is necessary to promote a compelling state interest.

A

B

The court should find the statute constitutional as long as Congress has consented to the tax. Article I, Section 10, Clause 2 provides: “No state shall, without the Consent of the Congress, lay any Imposts or Duties on Imports or Exports, except what may be absolutely necessary for executing its inspection Laws.” Hence, the Import-Export Clause prohibits the states from imposing any tax on imported goods as such or on commercial activity connected with imported goods as such (i.e., taxes discriminating against imports), except with congressional consent. Thus, (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect. (C) is wrong because the Privileges and Immunities Clause does not apply to corporations or aliens. (D) is wrong because without congressional consent, the statute is unconstitutional despite the compelling nature of the state’s interest.

73
Q

A city ordinance requires its mayor to have been a resident of the city for at least five years at the time of taking office. A candidate who is thinking about running for mayor in an election that will take place next year will have been a resident for only four and one-half years at the time he would take office. Before he decides whether to run, the candidate wants to know whether he could lawfully assume the position if elected. The candidate filed suit in the local federal district court for a declaratory judgment that the five-year residence requirement is unconstitutional. He named the chairman of his political party as the sole defendant but did not join any election official. The chairman responded by joining the candidate in requesting that the court declare the residence requirement invalid.

Which of the following best reflects the action the court should take?…

A

(A) - refuse to determine the merits of the suit because there is no case or controversy - is correct. For a federal court to hear a case there must be a “case or controversy” involved. Federal courts can hear actions for declaratory relief, but there must be an actual dispute between parties having adverse legal interests. Here, the candidate did not sue the election official, and the defendant he did name does not have a legal interest adverse to him. Also, plaintiffs must show that they have engaged in (or wish to engage in) specific conduct and that the challenged action poses a real and immediate danger to their interests. Here, the candidate has not taken specific steps to run for office and appear on the ballot. Therefore, there is no case or controversy.

74
Q

A 60-year-old employee who was fired by a corporation after 25 years of employment filed an age discrimination suit against the corporation. While the corporation’s excuse was that the reorganization and merger required a trimming of personnel, at trial the employee seeks to have a board member testify that the chairman of the board had convinced the board to fire the employee because he “didn’t fit our corporate image of youthful vigor.” It was typical practice that all directors’ meetings be recorded, and that the corporate secretary use the recording to type up a formal transcript of the proceedings. The meeting at which the employee’s dismissal was discussed was no exception.

If the defense objects to the board member’s proposed testimony, how should the court rule?

A) The testimony is admissible because it is based on the board member’s first hand knowledge.
B) Inadmissible because the testimony is inadmissible and not within any hearsay exception.
C) Inadmissible, because the audio recording of the meeting is the best evidence.
D) Inadmissible, because the corporate secretary’s transcription of the directors’ meeting is the best evidence.

A

A is Correct. The board member’s testimony should be admissible because it is relevant nonhearsay based on firsthand knowledge. The testimony is relevant to the employee’s age discrimination suit because it is being offered to prove that the board’s motivation in firing the employee was his age. It is not hearsay, even though the board member is repeating the statement of an out-of-court declarant (the chairman of the board), because it is not being offered to prove the truth of what the chairman was asserting (i.e., that the employee was in fact too old to fit the corporate image). Rather, it is being offered to show its effect on the board; i.e., it is being offered as circumstantial evidence of the board’s motivation in deciding to fire the employee, which is the critical issue in the case. Finally, the board member is competent to testify to the chairman’s statement since he heard it firsthand, and no other restrictions on the admissibility of relevant evidence are applicable in this case.

(B) is incorrect because, as discussed above, the testimony as to the chairman’s statement is not hearsay because it is not being offered to prove the truth of that statement. Even if it were being offered to prove its truth, it would not be hearsay under the Federal Rules because it qualifies as a vicarious admission by a party-opponent. The chairman made the statement in his capacity as chairman of the board; hence, it will be admissible against the corporation as an admission.

(C) and (D) are incorrect because the best evidence rule applies only when the writing or recording is a LEGALLY OPERATIVE or DISPOSITIVE instrument OR the knowledge of the witness comes from READING THE DOCUMENT OR LISTENING TO THE RECORDING.

The best evidence rule does not apply where, as here, the fact to be proved exists independently of any writing or recording, and the witness testifying to the fact has knowledge of the fact independent of the audio recording or the transcription.

75
Q

Can a state or local government, etc. tax the federal government?

A

Only if the federal government has consented to the tax.

76
Q

.State law required all businesses in the state to report any deposits of toxic waste discovered on property owned by the reporting firm. Another provision of the law required that the toxic waste reports be made on a specific state form and that duplicate copies of the form be filed with both the state department of labor and the state environmental protection agency. The statute provided that after each report was filed, the relevant state agencies would ensure that any dangerous area was cordoned off and work out a plan with the reporting firm for the clean-up of the waste deposit. The effective date of the statute was June 15, but the state office did not produce any of the special forms until July 6.

The defendant, a safety inspector employed by a chemical company, was making her first visit to one of the company’s plants on June 17 when she noticed a strange substance on the premises. The defendant filed no report to the state agencies regarding the substance because she was not aware of the requirement, nor did she know that the substance was toxic. On June 20, another employee of the chemical company was walking in an area near the substance when he slipped and fell face first into it. The substance turned out to be very toxic. The employee’s skin contact with the substance was sufficient to kill him in a matter of minutes. A later investigation revealed that it would have been impossible to clean up the substance to make the area safe before the employee encountered it.

If the defendant is charged with murder, which of the following represents her best defense?

A

A - she did not know the substance was toxic, is Correct. The defendant’s best defense is that she did not know that the substance was toxic and therefore did not have the state of mind necessary for murder. Ignorance or mistake as to a matter of fact will serve as a defense to a crime if it shows that the defendant did not have the state of mind required for the crime. If the mistake is offered as a defense to a malice crime, the mistake must be reasonable; i.e., it must be the type of mistake that a reasonable person might make under the circumstances. Although the statute itself may create a strict liability offense, for which the defendant’s mistake as to the identity of the substance would not be a defense, the defendant here is being charged with murder, which is a malice crime. For the defendant to be convicted of murder, it must be shown that she had: (i) intent to kill; (ii) intent to inflict great bodily injury; (iii) reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life; or (iv) intent to commit a felony. If she knew that the substance was toxic, the prosecution would have an argument that she acted with reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life by not taking any action. However, if she did not know that the substance was toxic, her failure to act is far less likely to establish reckless indifference. In other words, the defendant was operating under such ignorance as to a matter of fact that she did not have the requisite state of mind for murder. This would provide the defendant with a defense.

77
Q

A state statute requires that all new automobiles sold in the state shall be equipped with a certain safety system to protect passengers in the event of a collision. An automobile company that wants to sell automobiles in the state files an action to enjoin enforcement of the statute, arguing that the statute deprives the auto company of its right to contract freely with customers under the Due Process Clause.

What is the appropriate burden of proof?..

A) The state must demonstrate a compelling state need.
B) The state must demonstrate that the law serves a legitimate government interest.
C) The challenger must demonstrate a lack of a compelling state need.
D) the challenger must demonstrate the lack of a legitimate purpose.

A

(D) is correct. In reviewing laws under the Due Process Clause, the strict scrutiny test is used when a fundamental right is involved. In all other cases, the rational basis test is used. Under the rational basis test, a law will be upheld if it is rationally related to a legitimate government interest. Under that test, laws are presumed valid; therefore, the challenger has the burden of proof. Here, the statute in question does not involve a fundamental right and so the rational basis test would be used to examine the statute.

78
Q

Why is A incorrect?

A) The state must demonstrate a compelling state need.

A

(A) is incorrect. It reflects the burden when strict scrutiny applies. As explained above, the rational basis test applies here because a fundamental right is not involved.

79
Q

Why is B incorrect?

B) The state must demonstrate that the law serves a legitimate government interest.

A

(B) is incorrect. When the rational basis test applies, as here, the challenger must prove the lack of either a legitimate governmental interest or a rational link between the law and the end sought. The state does not have the burden of proof.

80
Q

Why is C incorrect?

C) The challenger must demonstrate a lack of a compelling state need.

A

(C) is incorrect. When the burden of proof requires a showing of a compelling state need, that burden is always on the state. However, such a burden of proof is applicable only when the statute involves a fundamental right. The statute here does not involve a fundamental right and, therefore, the burden is on the challenger to prove that no rational purpose exists for the statute.

81
Q

As a landowner do you have a duty to control your guests?

A

A landowner has a duty to exercise reasonable care with respect to his own activities on the land and to control the conduct of others on his property so as to avoid unreasonable risk of harm to those outside the property.

82
Q

Is a landowner strictly liable for abnormally dangerous activities performed by others (guests) on his land?

A

no

The landowner would owe an absolute duty to make safe an abnormally dangerous activity in which he was actually engaged (e.g., if he himself was setting off the fireworks or if he had organized the party with a purpose of having his guests shoot fireworks out of his backyard). However, he was not so engaged. At most, he failed to prevent someone else from shooting fireworks. For this, the landowner can be held liable on a negligence basis, but not in strict liability.

83
Q

Normally in false imprisonment cases, the person has to be aware of the confinement for there to be false imprisonment but there is an exception. What is it?

A

The Restatement of Torts recognizes an exception to the requirement of awareness of confinement when harm results from the confinement. The boy did suffer harm while confined in the shed, but the harm was not caused by that confinement but rather by his voluntary act of hiding in the storage bin.

84
Q

Is it A OK for a man to lock a bunch of boys in his shed after they walked in (he thinks to drink beer) while he calls the police? And he didn’t ask them to leave or anything? He just snuck up behind them and locked the shed door?

A

Answer C is incorrect. The gardener has a privilege to use reasonable force to protect his property and expel trespassers. However, ordinarily, the use of any force at all will be considered unreasonable unless there is first a request to the trespasser to desist, which was not the case here. Also, the confinement of the trespassers is not a reasonable method of expelling them, as it does not help achieve the privileged objective. Nor is the gardener privileged to arrest the boys. Even if he was correct that they were planning to consume beer, their actions do not rise to the level of the commission of a felony or breach of the peace misdemeanor in his presence

85
Q

A man was arrested in a state for armed robbery. A combined preliminary hearing to determine probable cause and initial appearance was held within 20 hours of his arrest. Probable cause was found, and bail was properly denied under the state’s Bail Reform Act. A state statute provided that when a defendant is in custody, his trial must begin within 50 days of his arrest. After 50 days had passed since the man’s arrest and no trial had been held, he filed a motion for dismissal for violation of his right to a speedy trial under the state constitution, which tracked verbatim the speedy trial provision of the United States Constitution. The trial judge held that he was bound to follow federal interpretations of the speedy trial provision and granted the man’s motion on that basis. On appeal, the state supreme court agreed with the trial judge. The state prosecutor seeks to challenge the ruling in the United States Supreme Court.

If the Supreme Court thinks that the state court wrongly decided that the man was denied his right to a speedy trial under federal standards, how should it proceed?…

A

REVERSE THE DECISION AND REMAND the case to be decided on the independent state grounds ONLY.

The Supreme Court had jurisdiction to hear the case, because it has jurisdiction to hear appeals from a state’s highest court concerning the constitutionality of a state statute, and as indicated above, the state court’s decision was not based on independent state grounds; the decision was based on federal case law interpreting an identical federal provision. Thus, jurisdiction was proper and the Court could reverse the state court decision and hold that a 50-day delay does not violate the federal Constitution. However, the case should be remanded so that the state may decide whether the delay was too long under state law, since a state is free to provide its citizens with more civil protection than is required by the federal Constitution.

86
Q

A defendant was convicted of burglary after the prosecution established at a jury trial that the defendant broke into the victim’s house at night by cutting open a window screen and climbing into a bedroom. The evidence also established that the defendant was frightened into leaping out the window when the victim pulled a gun from beneath her pillow. The defendant testified in his own defense, stating that he entered the house merely to use the telephone. His lawyer thus argued that the defendant lacked the required intent for burglary. The trial court, after instructing the jury on the elements of burglary, said, “If you find that by a fair preponderance of the evidence the defendant has shown that he intended to use the telephone when he entered the victim’s home, then you must find him not guilty.”

If the defendant appeals his conviction, will he likely obtain a reversal?

A

B - yes, because the trial court’s instruction placed the burden of proof upon the defendant - is Correct. The defendant will likely obtain a reversal. Burglary is the breaking and entering of the dwelling house of another in the nighttime with the intent to commit a felony inside the house. The prosecution must prove every element of the offense, including intent, beyond a reasonable doubt. Given that the trial court’s instructions placed the burden of proving lack of intent on the defendant, they were in error

87
Q

A state imposed a tax on the “income” of each of its residents. As defined in the taxing statute, “income” includes the fair rental value of any automobile provided by the taxpayer’s employer for the taxpayer’s personal use. The federal government supplies automobiles to some of its employees, who are residents of the state. The federal government allows the employees to use the automobiles for both official and personal use. There is no federal legislation on this subject.

May the state collect the tax from the federal employees on the fair rental value of the personal use of the automobiles furnished by the federal government?…

A) No, because a tax on the federal employees is essentially a tax on the United States.
B) No, because the tax would be a tax on federal property as the automobiles are owned by the federal government and primarily used by federal employees in the discharge of their official duties.
C) Yes, because the tax is employed on the employees, rather than the United States, and the tax does not discriminate against persons who are employed by the United States.
D) Yes, because the exemption from such state taxes for federal employees would be a denial to others of the equal protection of the law.

A

(C) is correct. Nondiscriminatory, indirect taxes on the federal government or its property are permissible if they do not unreasonably burden the federal government. For example, state income taxes on salaries of federal employees are valid. Here, the state may collect the tax from the federal employees because the tax on the fair rental value of the personal use of the automobiles furnished by the federal government is a nondiscriminatory, indirect tax to which every resident is subject.

(A) is incorrect. Taxation of federal employees of income derived from employment is a tax upon the employee, not the United States.

(B) is incorrect. A state tax levied directly against the property or operation of the federal government without the consent of Congress is invalid. However, the tax here is on income of federal employees and not on the United States government. It therefore is valid.

(D) is incorrect. The answer choice is nonsensical. The law that imposes the tax does not treat federal employees differently from anyone else. It attempts to treat everyone whose employer provides them with a vehicle equally. Thus, there is no equal protection issue raised.

88
Q

Can you say whatever you want in a letter of recommendation or reference?

A

NO. As a former employer responding to queries of a prospective employer about a job applicant, a person has a qualified privilege. Such a privilege is not absolute; it exists only if exercised in a reasonable manner and for a proper purpose. The privilege may be lost if the speaker made a statement not within the scope of the privilege or if the speaker acted with actual malice (i.e., knowledge that the statement was untrue or with reckless disregard as to its truth or falsity).