KPD MANUAL USE OF FORCE

Question 1

What is the policy of the Kaua‘i Police Department regarding the use of force?

Answer 1

Officers and authorized personnel shall use only that force which is reasonably necessary to effectively bring an incident under control, while protecting lives.

Question 2

Who is authorized to carry lethal and less lethal weapons in the Kaua‘i Police Department?

Answer 2

Only department personnel who have demonstrated proficiency in the use of department authorized weapons.

Question 3

What does the term ‘Officer’ refer to in the context of this policy?

Answer 3

All sworn personnel and may also encompass Public Safety Workers as applicable.

Question 4

What is defined as ‘Active Aggression’?

Answer 4

A threat or overt act of assault, coupled with the present ability to carry out the threat or assault.

Question 5

Define ‘Bodily Injury’.

Answer 5

Physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition.

Question 6

What is ‘Deadly Force’?

Answer 6

Any use of force that is likely to result in death or serious bodily injury.

Question 7

What constitutes ‘Defensive Resistance’?

Answer 7

Any action by a subject that attempts to prevent an officer from gaining control of the subject.

Question 8

What are ‘Hard Empty Hand Control’ techniques designed for?

Answer 8

To control active aggression and can be used for defensive resistance when lower forms of control have failed.

Question 9

What does ‘Imminent Danger’ mean?

Answer 9

Impending, foreseeable, about to occur danger.

Question 10

What is ‘Intermediate Weapon Control’?

Answer 10

The application/use of any weapon/object that is not part of the human body to control resistance to an assault.

Question 11

Define ‘Non-Deadly Force’.

Answer 11

Any use of force other than deadly force, including Officer Presence, Verbal Commands, Empty Hand Control, and Intermediate Weapons.

Question 12

What does ‘Officer Presence’ indicate?

Answer 12

The identification of the police officer’s authority, either by uniformed presence or verbal identification.

Question 13

What is ‘Passive Resistance’?

Answer 13

Resistance where the subject does not attempt to defeat the officer’s attempt to control but will not comply.

Question 14

What does ‘Psychological Intimidation’ refer to?

Answer 14

Nonverbal cues indicating the subject’s attitude, appearance, and physical readiness.

Question 15

What is the constitutional justification for the Use of Force evaluated on?

Answer 15

The concept of ‘reasonableness’.

Question 16

List the three factors involved in determining reasonableness of force.

Answer 16

• Severity of the Crime
• Level of Threat
• Subject’s Behavior or Level of Resistance

Question 17

What is ‘Show of Force’ in police terminology?

Answer 17

The drawing of a firearm and holding it at the low ready or pointing it directly at a human being.

Question 18

Define ‘Serious Bodily Injury’.

Answer 18

Bodily injury which creates a substantial risk of death or causes serious permanent disfigurement.

Question 19

What are ‘Soft Empty Hand Control’ techniques used for?

Answer 19

To control passive or defensive resistance when verbal commands are not effective.

Question 20

What does ‘Substantial Bodily Injury’ mean?

Answer 20

Bodily injury causing major avulsion, laceration, or penetration of the skin among other severe conditions.

Question 21

What is the Use of Force Resistance/Control Continuum?

Answer 21

A guideline for meeting the opposing threat with the amount of force needed to neutralize the immediate threat.

Question 22

What is Level 1 in the Use of Force Levels?

Answer 22

Officer Presence / Verbal Commands.

Question 23

What is Level 2 in the Use of Force Levels?

Answer 23

Empty Hand Control Technique.

Question 24

What is Level 3 in the Use of Force Levels?

Answer 24

Intermediate Weapons.

Question 25

What constitutes Level 4 in the Use of Force Levels?

Answer 25

Deadly Force.

Question 26

What are the parameters for the use of deadly force?

Answer 26

* When they reasonably believe it creates no substantial risk of injury to innocent persons * In defense of their own or another person's life * To capture or prevent the escape of a felon posing imminent danger

Question 27

What is prohibited regarding the discharge of firearms?

Answer 27

Discharging firearms as a warning shot.

Question 28

What is a Conducted Energy Weapon (CED)?

Answer 28

A TASER device intended to control a violent individual while minimizing the risk of serious injury.

Question 29

What must personnel complete to carry a TASER device?

Answer 29

Initial department-approved training by a certified TASER instructor.

Question 30

What happens if an officer fails to qualify with the TASER after remedial training?

Answer 30

May result in reassignment, disciplinary action, or other actions at the discretion of the Chief of Police.

Question 31

Where should uniformed officers carry their TASER device?

Answer 31

In a department approved holster on the duty belt on the side opposite the duty firearm.

Question 32

What is neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI)?

Answer 32

Involuntary muscle contractions caused by electrical pulses transmitted by the TASER.

Question 33

Where should uniformed officers carry the TASER device?

Answer 33

In a department approved holster on the duty belt on the side opposite the duty firearm ## Footnote The cross-draw position is optional.

Question 34

How should plain clothes officers carry the TASER device?

Answer 34

On their weak side

Question 35

What is the responsibility of officers regarding their issued TASER device?

Answer 35

To ensure it is properly maintained and in good working order

Question 36

Can officers hold both a firearm and the TASER device at the same time?

Answer 36

No

Question 37

Who is responsible for the issuance of replacement TASER cartridges?

Answer 37

The Administrative & Technical Bureau (ATB)

Question 38

What distinguishes TASER cartridges?

Answer 38

Purpose and cartridge angle

Question 39

What is the deployment angle of Close Quarters Cartridges?

Answer 39

12 degrees

Question 40

What is the effective distance range for Close Quarters Cartridges?

Answer 40

4 to 15 feet

Question 41

What color are Close Quarters Cartridges?

Answer 41

Black

Question 42

What is the optimal deployment range for Standoff Cartridges?

Answer 42

11.5 to 21 feet

Question 43

What color are Standoff Cartridges?

Answer 43

Gray

Question 44

What arrangement does the Department recommend for deploying the TASER 7?

Answer 44

Firing Bay 1 - Close Quarters cartridge, Firing Bay 2 - Standoff cartridge

Question 45

At what distance do the top laser and mechanical sights of the TASER 7 intersect?

Answer 45

15 feet

Question 46

What should officers do at the beginning of their shift regarding the TASER device?

Answer 46

Inspect and function test their TASER device

Question 47

Function tests should be performed in _______.

Answer 47

public view and away from other department personnel

Question 48

What should officers verify during the function test of the TASER?

Answer 48

No fault icons, two cartridges present, adequate battery capacity

Question 49

What should officers do before deploying the TASER device?

Answer 49

Give a verbal warning when practical

Question 50

What is the purpose of the verbal warning before deploying the TASER?

Answer 50

Provide opportunity for voluntary compliance

Question 51

Is displaying the electrical arc or laser allowed before deploying the TASER?

Answer 51

Yes, if it appears reasonable and feasible

Question 52

Officers must summon medical attention after deploying a TASER on individuals under the influence of _______.

Answer 52

illicit drugs and/or exhibiting symptoms associated with excited delirium

Question 53

What are the limitations on the use of the TASER device?

Answer 53

Used only when safely approaching the subject within operational range

Question 54

The TASER device is considered an intermediate level of control and may be used when _______.

Answer 54

there is an imminent threat of physical harm

Question 55

Officers are not authorized to draw or display the TASER except for _______.

Answer 55

training and inspections

Question 56

When is the use of the TASER prohibited?

Answer 56

When a subject is visibly pregnant, unless deadly force is the only other option

Question 57

When should the TASER not be used on a subject?

Answer 57

When the subject is in handcuffs or waist restraints unless compelling reasons exist

Question 58

What areas should officers avoid targeting when deploying the TASER?

Answer 58

Head, neck, chest, and groin

Question 59

What should officers do after a subject has been exposed to three cycles of TASER?

Answer 59

Consider another use of force option unless exigent circumstances exist

Question 60

Who should remove TASER device probes from a person's body?

Answer 60

Only police personnel with proper training or medical personnel

Question 61

What should be done with used TASER device probes?

Answer 61

Treated as a sharps biohazard and handled appropriately

Question 62

What must officers do after discharging a TASER?

Answer 62

Notify a supervisor and submit the expended cartridge(s) into evidence

Question 63

What is the procedure for a negligent discharge of a TASER cartridge?

Answer 63

Notify supervisor and submit a memorandum documenting the incident

Question 64

Are officers authorized to carry TASER devices while off-duty?

Answer 64

No

Question 65

What should be included in the crime/arrest report after using the TASER?

Answer 65

Identification of personnel, witnesses, medical care provided, observations of the subject, and known drug use

Question 66

How often should the battery power of the TASER be checked?

Answer 66

Regularly

Question 67

What should officers do if the TASER has cracks?

Answer 67

Complete a Support Ticket and return the unit to ATB

Question 68

What must officers monitor after a use of force incident?

Answer 68

The subject and immediately summon medical attention if there are visible injuries or complaints

Question 69

What is prohibited regarding the use of vascular neck restraints?

Answer 69

Any holds that restrict breathing or blood flow, except under imminent threat

Question 70

Refer to which policy for chokeholds?

Answer 70

4.1.6 Vascular Neck Restraints