Supervision Of Police Personnel Flashcards by eric higa

Workers performance is most strongly influenced by which of the following?

A. Their immediate superior

B. The Chief of Police

C. Mid-level managers mostly

D. The Patrol Commander

A. Their Immediate Supervisor

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Management is best described as which of the following?

A. Their act of overseeing people

B. The process of directing and controlling people and things so that organizational objectives can be accomplished

C. The art of influencing, directing, guiding, and controlling others in such a way as to obtain their willing obedience, confidence, respect, and loyal cooperation in the accomplishment of an objective

D. All of the above

B. The process of directing and controlling people and things so that organizational objectives can be accomplished

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Which term refers to the act of overseeing people?

A. Supervision

B. Management

C. Leadership

D. Directing

A. Supervision

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In the law enforcement agency, first level supervisors are of special importance because of the great need for?

A. Mentors

B. Facilitators

C. Leaders

D. Teamwork

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Supervisors must develop the art of influencing other, coordinating their efforts, and directing them to proper goals in such a way as to obtain their:

A. Obedience

B. Confidence

C. Loyal cooperation

D. All of the above

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Any leader must accept the fact that his /her subordinates are all:

A. Indecisive

B. Different

C. Unified

D. Biased

B. Different

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A supervisor must be able to:

A. Help subordinates achieve reasonable goals

B. Provide solutions to subordinates for job problems

C. Give counsel and assurance to their subordinates in their personal lives when the need arises

D. All of the above

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The supervisor is selected by:

A. Citizens

B. Management

C. Subordinate

D. Colleagues

B. Management

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In the long run the interests of management and the worker are:

A. Mutual

B. Identical

C. Opposite

D. Obtainable

B. Identical

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A supervisor is responsible for keeping superiors informed through what means of report?

A. Subordinates and colleagues

B. Oral and written

C. Daily and direct

D. Written and daily

B. Oral and written

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A supervisor should always realize that the best interest of which group should always prevail?

A. Subordinates

B. Management

C. Organization

D. All of the above

C. Organization

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Which of the following regarding supervisors is TRUE?

A. They must have a basic understanding of the science of leadership

B. They do not need to be highly skilled in every technical aspect of the job they supervise.

C. They should have a working knowledge of the job they are responsible for supervising

D. All of the above

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All supervisors and managers should know what a basic need of their subordinates is to:

A. Be left alone and not be bothered by their superiors.

B. Have a feeling of stability and security in their work.

C. Have input on all police department issues.

D. Have their morale improved through incentives and policy.

B. Have a feeling of stability and security in their work.

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The final responsibility for the supervisors job belongs to whom?

A. The officers

B. The subordinates

C. The supervisor

D. The entire team

C. The supervisor

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According to the text, all of the following are things a supervisor should gain organizational knowledge about in order to prepare him or herself for the supervisory position EXCEPT:

A. Policies

B. Political alliances

C. Rules

D. Functions

B. Political alliances

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A supervisor should prepare him or herself for the position of supervisor by gaining a good working knowledge of the:

A. Formal organization

B. Informal organization

C. Informal organizational leaders

D. All of the above

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The common element of supervision can be grouped under those activities that relate to:

A. The direction of people and all it implies.

B. Control and development of people.

C. The interpersonal relationships with people.

D. All of the above

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A supervisor is acting in what role when he or she is able to forecast future needs of his organization, anticipate problems and make decisions ahead of time?

A. Planner

B. Personnel Officer

C. Trainer

D. Controller

A. Planner

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A supervisor is acting in which role when he or she strives to assign his subordinates as scientifically as possible to the positions for which they are best suited?

A. Planner

B. Personnel officer

C. Trainer

D. Controller

B. Personnel officer

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A supervisor is acting in which of the following roles when he or she develops subordinates abilities to be efficient, effective producers?

A. Planner

B. Decision maker

C. Trainer

D. Communicator

C. Trainer

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A supervisor is acting in what role when he or she must make proper follow-ups to determine that rules and regulations have been followed and orders properly executed?

A. Communicator

B. Decision maker

C. Leader

D. Controller

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A supervisor is acting in which of the following roles when he or she helps shape policy for the organization?

A. Planner

B. Decision maker

C. Trainer

D. Leader

B. Decision maker

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A supervisor is acting in what role when he or she is motivating subordinates by giving them positive incentives that will encourage them to achieve and maintain a high level of efficiency?

A. Communicator

B. Decision maker

C. Trainer

D. Leader

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Which of the following forms of action is vital for the interpersonal relations of a supervisor with a subordinate?

A. Process of directing

B. Procedural steps in ordering

C. Manner of communication

D. Steps of delegation

C. Manner of communicating

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Guidelines for successfully making the transition from officer to supervisor include all of the following except? A. Ask for guidance and direction when you need it B. Support managements policies and decisions, unless you feel they are not as viable as they could be. C. Communicate regularly with your employees D. Look, listen, and learn about your new work environment

B. Support managements policies and decisions, unless you feel they are not as viable as they could be.

The focus of an organization’s administrative subsystem is on authority, structure, and responsibility within the organization: who does what for whom and who tells whom to do what, how, when and why. Such direction is: A. Nice to have of you are able to do it B. The essence of a truly gifted leader C. Mostly found within informal groups D. The essence of the supervisory function

D. The essence of the supervisory function

The formally structured and recognized relationship within the organization will have superimposed on them the informal groups, with their own leader or leaders, in recognized on the organizational charts. Through these natural leaders, often without bars or stripes, the wise supervisor will: A. Try to divide and separate these individuals from the troops B. Accomplish many objectives C. Seek out these individuals to do all of their work D. Avoid giving any recognition to those individuals

B. Accomplish many objectives

POSDCORB stands for: A. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting and Budgeting B. Planning, Organizing, Structuring, Delegating, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting C. Planning, Organizing, Structuring, Directing, Coordinating, Responding, and Budgeting D. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Responding, and Budgeting

A. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting and Budgeting

What term is known as the all important duty of interrelating the various parts of work? A. Planning B. Structuring C. Coordinating D. Responding

C. Coordinating

In which function must the supervisor forecast needs and problems and prepare to meet them? A. Budgeting B. Organizing C. Planning D. Directing

C. Planning

The type of plans that are prepared to meet exigencies encountered by police are: A. Operational B. Procedural C. Tactical D. Functional

C. Tactical

Which of the following plans are designed to give guidance and direction to personnel in the performance of normal police activities: A. Operational B. Procedural C. Tactical D. Functional

A. Operational

Plans consisting of a set of broad principles that guide personnel in the accomplishment of general organizational objectives are called: A. Fiscal plans B. Auxiliary service plans C. Rules and regulations D. Policies

D. Policies

What type of plans relates to such matters as budget preparation and the use and control of funds allotted for personnel, equipment and supplies? A. Fiscal plans B. Auxiliary service plans C. Rules and regulations D. Policies

A. Fiscal plans

Plans that provide specific guides for conduct and performance are known as: A. Fiscal plans B. Auxiliary service plans C. Rules and regulations D. Policies

C. Rules and regulations

The function that require ls the continuous analyzing of the organizational structure with the supervisor’s sphere of operations in order to ensure that it meets the needs of the total organization in providing a medium of communication between the elements of the hierarchy is: A. Reporting B. Organizing C. Staffing D. Directing

B. Organizing

Which function involves control of a subordinates activities and is one that consumes most of a supervisor’s time? A. Coordinating B. Organizing C. Staffing D. Directing

D. Directing

The function that ensures unity of action not only between individuals but between organizational units is referred to as: A. Coordinating B. Organizing C. Staffing D. Directing

A. Coordinating

What type or organization divides responsibility and authority among several specialists? A. Line organization B. Departmental organization C. Functional organization D. All of the above

C. Functional organization

The line and staff type of organization is a combination of what two types of organization? A. Line and functional B. Function and staff C. Staff and structure D. Departmental and staff

A. Line and functional

Which of the following are established to designate how work is to be divided among the various components of the establishment? A. Organizational functions B. Organizational hierarchies C. Organizational structures D. All of the above

C. Organizational structures

The process of dividing work involves both: A. Analysis and synthesis B. Analysis and research C. Research and statistics D. Analysis and statistics

A. Analysis and synthesis

Officer Johnson is a 6 month rookie officer on your squad. He has been performing well and you are satisfied with him. One day after your shift, Officer Johnson comes to you and appears to be confused. He says to you the other officers on the squad have been telling him he has to keep them advised of everything he does so they can make sure he isn’t making mistakes. One of the officers even told Officer Johnson that every senior officer on the squad is his supervisor and he must answer to each of them. You assure Officer Johnson he has only one immediate supervisor, and that is you. What level in the Hiearchy of Authority is this an example of? A. Span of control B. A flat organization C. Channels of communication D. Unity of command

D. Unity of command

Which term refers to the number of subordinates who can be supervised effectively by one supervisor? A. Span of attention B. Span of control C. Span of authority D. Span of power

B. Span of control

The span of control refers to how many people or units one individual manages or supervises. When designing the span of control, and it must be realistic in order to perform at optimum efficiency. As such, a number of factors must b considered. Which is NOT one of the factors to be considered when designing the optimum span of control? A. Capacities of the supervisor and the supervised B. Different personalities between officers on the same squad C. Types of work being performed D. Complexity of the work

B. Different personalities between officers on the same squad

The tendency in modern police operations is to _____________ the bounds of an effective span of control. A. Exceed B. Underestimate C. Overestimate D. Reduce

A. Exceed

When a task is delegated to an employee who is competent to perform it, which of the below should also be delegated? A. Team members B. Authority C. Resources D. All of the above

B. Authority

In regards to delegation, which of the following is INCORRECT? A. The primary function of the manager is to preside over the process of delegation. B. Delegation may be accomplished by a specific or general directive given either in writing or orally. C. A simple task may be delegating in a simple manner. D. A complex delegation should be supported by a comprehensive oral directive clearly identifying the problem and the procedures to be followed if necessary.

D. A complex delegation should be supported by a comprehensive oral directive clearly identifying the problem and the procedures to be followed if necessary.

Lt Sultana is in charge of training and development for the Stanton Police Department. He has been creating a career progression plan, which includes technical skills as well as management development. It is the Chiefs intention to give the departments member a clear set of steps they can take to achieve their professionally goals; the Chief believes this clarity will help focus and motivate staff, which will in turn produce better performers and better leaders. Lt Sultana quickly found that drafting clear career paths was much more complicated than he originally thought, and that is was preventing him from getting to management development, which is one of the departments more immediate needs. Sgt. Justin works for Sultana, and has a Masters degree in management. Lt. Sultana is delegating the creation a first time supervisors class, to prepare officers who are expected to be promoted to Sergeant within one year. When he meets with Justiano to give him the assignment, Lt Justiano will do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Stress the details B. Explain the importance of the assignment C. Give clear instructions D. Delegate the authority to compete the task

A. Stress the details

Which of the following principles requires that the person to whom work has been assigned through the delegation process completes it to such an extent that the only thing left to be done by the person who delegated it is to approve it? A. Delegation to subordinates B. Completed delegation C. Completed staff project D. Exception principle

C. Completed staff project

The art of influencing, directing, guiding, and controlling others in such a way as to obtain their willing obedience, condfidence, respect, and loyal cooperation in the accomplishment of an objective is defined as: A. Supervision B. Leadership C. Dictatorship D. Management

B. Leadership

According to the Supervision of Police Personnel textbook, which of the following descriptions of a leader are the only two that matter? A. Productive and Unproductive B. Effective and Ineffective C. Reasonable and Unreasonable D. Aggressive and Passive

B. Effective and Ineffective

According to the Supervision of Police Personnel textbook, the only meaningful measure for a leader is: A. Whether the team succeeds or fails B. Whether the leader had the respect of his or her followers C. Whether he or she leads by example D. Whether the team will follow him or her on the mission

A. Whether the team succeeds or fails

A supervisor who leads democratically does so by: A. Seeking ideas and suggestions from subordinates B. Limiting participation in getting the job done C. Treating subordinates as those who may one day be able to be an associate D. Decreasing commitment to the goals of the organization

A. Seeking ideas and suggestions from subordinates

Command presence denotes: A. A military bearing B. A distinctive type of appearance C. A distinctive type of conduct D. All of the above

D. All of the above

In its broadest sense, what would be the best mark of good leadership? A. High level of discipline B. High facilitation of subordinates C. High trust of supervisors D. All of the above

A. High level of discipline

Employees are stimulated to produce best when they are provided with ______ to satisfy individual needs. A. Authority B. Power C. Positive incentives D. Responsibility

C. Positive incentives

Which of the below is vastly overrated as a positive motivational influence because it becomes weaker and weaker as physical human needs are progressively satisfied? A. Money B. Recognition C. Power D. Authority

A. Money

An honest ____ is difficult because one often interprets what he does in accord with his own motives and not in accord with other’s interpretations of what was done. A. Self Appraisal B. Self Recognition C. Self respect D. Self discipline

A. Self Appraisal

The greatest production in the shortest possible time with the minimum amount of energy and the maximum amounts of satisfaction for the producers is the objective of good: A. Human relations B. Effective performance C. Synergistic production D. Efficient performance

A. Human relations

What type of employee will do just that amount and quality of work that will not give the organization a cause of action against him, and is often the cause of considerable concern to the supervisor? A. Discipline B. Substandard C. Marginal D. Unmotivated

C. Marginal

The complex process of communicating ideas in such a manner that the recipient interprets what he hears in the way the communicator intends is known as: A. Delegation B. Directing C. Facilitating D. Giving orders

D. Giving orders

What type of directive is useful in developing the initiative of subordinates since they allow considerable latitude in the method of accomplishing an assignment when immediate action is not essential? A. Innate B. Suggestive C. Intact D. Subtle

B. Suggestive

The type of order which is usually satisfactory for simple tasks, especially if they have been performed before, and in emergency situations is called: A. Verbal B. Written C. Suggestive D. Implied

A. Verbal

What type of order should be used in situations where complex operations or numerous persons are affected to assure that all receive the same message? A. Verbal B. Written C. Suggestive D. Implied

B. Written

According to the text, which of the following is the FIRST step in the decision-making process? A. Obtain all the facts B. Have an awareness that a real problem exists. C. Collect all the facts and circumstances you can in a reasonable amount of time. D. When sufficient data has been collected, then analyze all facts

B. Have an awareness that a real problem exists.

The author refers to the most common failing of inexperienced supervisors as: A. Micromanagement B. Macromanagement C. Oversupervision D. Under supervision

C. Oversupervision

In law enforcement, working with officers who are of different generations, races, ethnic groups, religions etc. If a supervisor observes a subordinate saying or doing something thats inappropriate, it’s up to the supervisor to: A. Document the incident and apologize to the offended party B. Schedule a meeting for a later time with the offending party C. Intervene immediately D. Report it to his or her supervisor prior to the end of their work day.

C. Intervene immediately

An effective transformational leader in a multicultural work environment innovates by doing all of the following EXCEPT: A. Transforms the workplace from the status quo to an appropriate environment. B. Keeps morale high by minimizing culture change in the work environment. C. Renews the organization and becomes a role model by transmitting intellectual excitement and vision about their work. D. Helps personnel to manage change by restructuring their mindsets and values.

B. Keeps morale high by minimizing culture change in the work environment.

Which generation was born within the technological age, the war on terror, and have been described as excellent multitaskers, and having the ability to process information very quickly? A. Generation Z B.Generation Y C. Generation X D. Baby boomer generation

A. Generation Z

Magnuson and Alexander cite all of the following as how to successfully manage a multi-generational workforce EXCEPT: A. Reward good behavior B. Foster a competitive work environment C. Communicate with a range of tools D. Nurture mentoring relationships

A. Reward good behavior

Which of the following is INCORRECT, in regards to a law enforcement agency's use of social media? A. Not every social media post will be in response to a critical incident. B. Creating police-community partnerships by magnifying community policing programs through social media may help create conversations and engagement in these spaces. C. The two-way nature of social media allows for conversations that can improve transparency and accountability. D. The vision of building a partnership between the police agency and the community should be evident on select social media posts, but not all.

D. The vision of building a partnership between the police agency and the community should be evident on select social media posts, but not all.

Chief Whitman has noticed that litigation over grievances costs the city more money each year. He is puzzled by this, as he served as the state delegate for the police union many years ago, and has a good understanding of the contract. Chief Whitman invited members of his senior staff as well as rank-and-file officers to a meeting to talk about the issue. He had the meeting offsite to make the setting neutral, and bought coffee and snacks himself. One of the results of the meeting was a list of incidents that have caused dissatisfaction among department members. Which situation is most likely to lead to a grievance? A. Lt. Balacek rarely brings formal disciplinary action against any of his staff. However, when he gets angry he uses obscene language with the member he is addressing. He typically ends the meeting by saying, "That's it, get back on the road now." B. Sgt. Kenneally is a former marine. He expects everyone on his squad to follow procedures very closely; whenever someone goes outside the guidelines, he has them give him a detailed explanation of why. C. Lt. Jonas has a civilian clerk, Gina Tomasetti, who has a medical disability. Jonas allows her to take her meal breaks in shorter, periodic increments. However, other staff members are not permitted to take their breaks this way. D. Capt. Leonard is drafting a policy on grooming and professional appearance.

A. Lt. Balacek rarely brings formal disciplinary action against any of his staff. However, when he gets angry he uses obscene language with the member he is addressing. He typically ends the meeting by saying, "That's it, get back on the road now."

One of the principal and perhaps the most important responsibility of a supervisor is: A. Over-supervising subordinates B. Scheduling subordinates C. Training subordinates D. Budgeting

C. Training subordinates

Which of the following must the supervisor-teacher constantly strive to establish? A. Budget and resources B. Training curriculum C. Climate for learning D. State-of-the-art techniques

C. Climate for learning

Training failures are usually the result of a/an ________to give supervisors an understanding of their responsibilities for this function and some instruction onhow to proceed. A. Contract failure B. Administrative failure C. Job analyses failure D. Police academy failure

B. Administrative failure

When the training function is performed poorly or not at all, which is a common result? A. Low morale B. Waste C. Frustration D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Capt. Coleman was at a seminar on law enforcement supervision. She was planning to evaluate her department's supervisory development program, and believed that she would get more candid answers from people outside her agency. During a lunch break, she asked a group of supervisors from several agencies for their opinions. They spent some time discussing the training approaches that were most helpful for them as new supervisors. After that, she asked what their least favorite method of learning was. They told her the most ineffective was: A. On-the-Job Training B. Observation of Previous Supervisors C. Role playing D. Trial and Error

D. Trial and Error

According to the text, all of the following except _____changing thus requiring the need for on-going training. A. Concepts B. Personal values C. Theories D. Techniques are constantly

B. Personal values

Results of training include: A. Higher morale B. Less job stress C. Increased confidence D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When conditions in the learners' environment are such that they establish an attitude favorable to learning, they are said to be in a: A. State of readiness B. State of learning C. State of facilitation D. State of training

A. State of readiness

Learners must be given the opportunity for early success in some phase of the learning process so that they will achieve a sense of from their accomplishment. A. Motivation B. Satisfaction C. Inspiration D. Initiative

B. Satisfaction

When experiences are pleasing or satisfying, there is usually an accompanying desire to do what? A. Try new and different activities B. Teach others C. Help others D. Repeat the experience

D. Repeat the experience

An instructor can improve the learner's ability to perform an operation by having them do which of the following until they are adept at it? A. Critique others B. Repeat it C. Tell others about it D. Discuss it

B. Repeat it

The notion that things learned first create a strong impression in the mind that is difficult to erase is known as what? A. First impressions B. Principle of primacy C. Principle of recency D. Principle of intensity

B. Principle of primacy

While conducting semi-annual training at the firearms range, Sgt. Hanley rearranged the way he presented information in the past. He typically did the classroom training on the Use of Force guidelines, followed by firearms qualifications. However, in the previous six months, new guidance from the County Prosecutor's Office changed some of the requirements on reporting the use of firearms as a part of Constructive Authority. He felt these changes were significant and that Officers needed to understand and remember the information very well. Therefore he did the classroom training after qualifications, and presented the new guidance near the end of his class, because the law of recency says that things learned last are usually: A. Learned worst B. Learned best C. Remembered best D. Forgotten first

C. Remembered best

The more intensely the matter is taught, the greater the likelihood it will be retained is a concept referred to as: A. Vivid impressions B. Principle of primacy C. Principle of recency D. Principle of Intensity

D. Principle of Intensity

A student's past training and experience are known as: A. Apperceptive base B. Appreciative base C. Cognitive base D. Cohesive base

A. Apperceptive base

The ability to integrate new learning and experiences with past learning and experience will materially affect a student's: A. Learning rate B. Self-concept C. Willingness to learn D. Interest in learning

A. Learning rate

Which of the following factors has an influence upon the individual attention that can be given to the student by the instructor? A. Class size B. Time available for training C. Physical facilities D. All of the above

D. All of the above

A review of some serious ongoing problems in the Rangely Police Department showed a failure of effective supervision. Capt. Isaac, the police academy director for his department, found that many new Sergeants, who were promoted for being good officers, did not know the new job skills of supervising others. His experience showed him that there were quite a few lieutenants and captains who never learned those skills, either. He was planning to conduct a supervisor's development course. As he worked on the lesson plans, he created learning exercises that could be immediately put to use on the job. He developed workshops that progressed from easy to difficult, because he recognized that the participants could have a fear of failing in front of their colleagues. He also invited successful senior managers to attend, as they had a great deal of experience to bring to the classes. His overall approach was to create opportunities for learners to think through problems for themselves, rather than to lecture and test knowledge in a "right or wrong" format. One of his core premises was that learning should be active, instructive, and collaborative. Capt. Isaac is using which approach to learning? A. Andragogy B. Pedagogy C. Whole Brain Learning D. Experiential-Based Learning

A. Andragogy

Andragogy assumptions include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Internal motivation B. Readiness to learn depends on the need C. Adults are more concerned with the quantity of learning, as opposed to the quality of the learning environment D. Adults need to know why they need to learn something

C. Adults are more concerned with the quantity of learning, as opposed to the quality of the learning environment

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT in regards to learning patterns? A. At first, the learners gain accuracy, speed, and self-confidence quickly. B. As motivation occurs and self-assurance increases, speed and accuracy slow down. C. Ordinarily, from a learning standpoint, it has been found most desirable to teach an operation as a whole in the same sequence that will be followed in practice D. In the case of complicated, lengthy operations, sequential learning is very practicable.

C. Ordinarily, from a learning standpoint, it has been found most desirable to teach an operation as a whole in the same sequence that will be followed in practice

Which factors will increase in direct proportion to how well the workers learn to perform their tasks? A. Self-confidence and security B. Self-control and motivation C. Self-awareness and efficiency D. Learning speed and retention

A. Self-confidence and security

In regards to instructional goals and specific objectives, which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. Once a teacher selects or is assigned a subject for presentation in a training session, such as a briefing or roll call teaching assignment, the general and specific objectives to be accomplished should be determined. B. The instructional goals and specific objectives that are to be accomplished by a single presentation or a series of lessons must be carefully developed. be learned. C. Learning objectives are defined as broad, general statements about what is to D. It is recommended that learning objectives be expressed as outcomes for participants.

C. Learning objectives are defined as broad, general statements about what is to

________ goals are defined as broad, general statements about what is to be learned. A. Instructional B. Performance C. General D. Specific

A. Instructional

_______ are brief, clear, specific statements of what students should know or be able to do at the end of the course that they couldn't do before. A. Learning objectives B. General objectives C. Specific orders D. Vision statements

A. Learning objectives

The basis for the presentation step of the lesson plan is the: A. Curriculum B. Job analysis C. Lesson goals D. General objectives

B. Job analysis

When an instructor has completed the preliminary procedure of developing objectives, obtaining lesson materials, and analyzing them, they are ready to prepare which of the following? A. General objectives B. Specific objectives C. Curriculum D. Teaching plans

D. Teaching plans

A simple listing in the proper sequence of the several steps to be followed in completing a particular job is known as: A. Learning road map B. Curriculum C. Instructional plan D. Job analysis

C. Instructional plan

Arranging points that are to be covered in a logical sequence is the first consideration of the: A. Learning roadmap B. Curriculum C. Instructional plan D. Job analysis

C. Instructional plan

What type of plan should be geared toward the five-step plan? A. Lesson plan B. Curriculum plan C. Master plan D. All of the above

A. Lesson plan

A lesson plan should: A. Consist of a series of notes that will enable the instructor to recall information planned for use B. Include the use of teaching aids to their best advantage and at appropriate times C. Review main points of the lesson D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When arranging the most logical order of presenting the material so that the instructor best meets current needs, which of the following should be considered? A. Point of view of the learner B. Current political climate in the organization C. The fastest way to deliver the information D. Bíases and prejudices that everyone has

A. Point of view of the learner

When the arrangement of the teaching plan is completed, the instructor should: A. Review it to make sure it is workable B. Ensure that it can be properly fitted into the time allowed C. Check that critical points have not been omitted D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Things to be learned should be presented in a manner so that they can be: A. Associated with familiar things B. Challenging for the learner C. Used both on the job and at home D. Organized in a disorganized way

A. Associated with familiar things

Which of the following is not one of the five steps of teaching? A. Introduction B. Presentation C. Association D. Review

C. Association

The first step in the five steps of teaching is: A. Introduction B. Presentation C. Association D. Test

A. Introduction

The second step in the five steps of teaching is: A. Introduction B. Presentation C. Association D. Test

B. Presentation

The third step in the five steps of teaching is: A. Association B. Presentation C. Review D. Test

C. Review

The final step in the five steps of teaching is: A. Association B. Presentation C. Review D. Test

D. Test

The real problem encountered by the instructor in applying the five-step method of teaching is which of the following? A. Failure of the method B. Failure of the instructor C. Failure of the curriculum D. All of the above

B. Failure of the instructor

Which of the following is often a cause of teaching ineffectiveness? A. Lack of training and motivation B. Lack of presentation and confidence C. Lack of resources and preparation D. Lack of competency and preparation

D. Lack of competency and preparation

Which method of instruction is greatly overworked because many instructors find it the easiest way to present the material? A. Presentation B. Lecture C. Role Playing D. Practicum

B. Lecture

What type of online training allows learners to log in and choose from a variety of course topics, and then learn these topics on their own by following the related online material? A. Synchronous B. Advanced C. Contemporary D. Asynchronous

D. Asynchronous

There are a number of advantages in using online training. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Ease of access B. Very suitable for those who lack self-discipline C. Flexibility d. Very suitable for generation x, y and z

B. Very suitable for those who lack self-discipline

There are certain pitfalls that have been cited in regards to online or electronic learning. These include all of the following EXCEPT: A. They are not easy to access or manage B. The required work may be more cumbersome than a traditionally instructed course C. They require a substantial amount of self-discipline for the student D. They require a certain level of self-direction

A. They are not easy to access or manage

The method of instruction which is developed to simulate as nearly as possible common incidents likely to be faced frequently by officers in the field is called: A. Presentation B. Lecture C. Role Playing D. Practicum

C. Role Playing

What type of training is more closely associated with helping officers and trainees make better split decisions under very stressful conditions? A.Roll call training B. Online training C. Virtual training with simulators D. Traditional classroom training

C. Virtual training with simulators

The type of instructional technique involving groups in which trainees can talk, listen, and compare experiences with others under the guidance of experienced personnel who can give added insight is referred to as: A. Workshops B. Lectures C. Role Playing D. Demonstrations

A. Workshops

What type of instructional technique involves the use of actual equipment, or in which implements are used to supplement other teaching techniques? A. Workshops B. Lectures C. Role Playing D. Demonstrations

D. Demonstrations

_______ are well-conducted meetings with subordinate personnel that provide the supervisor with an excellent opportunity for training. A. Workshops B. Group Discussions C. Staff Meetings D. Simulations

C. Staff Meetings

Which of the following is not true regarding staff meetings? A. Minutes should be prepared after the meeting B. The supervisor responsible for a staff meeting should not do advance planning C. Meetings may be led democratically or autocratically D. Training may be conducted

B. The supervisor responsible for a staff meeting should not do advance planning

The ability to ______ clearly and concisely is the most important skill of the supervisor. A. Lead B. Train C. Communicate D. Delegate

C. Communicate

Which of the following is considered to be the biggest problem of management? A. Maintaining communication between subordinates and supervisors B. Training of subordinates by supervisors C. Leading of subordinates by supervisors D. All of the above

A. Maintaining communication between subordinates and supervisors

It is important for supervisors to realize that ideas and decisions can readily more be translated into action when they are communicated to others while giving consideration to: A. Emotional needs of the recipient and the environment B. Emotional needs of the recipient and their rank in the organization C. Emotional needs of the recipient and their preferred learning style D. Emotional needs of the recipient and their level of training

A. Emotional needs of the recipient and the environment

Good communicators are not only accomplished with words but also with: A. Training and teaching B. Vision and goals C. Motivation and rewards D. Tones and deeds

D. Tones and deeds

The means a speaker uses to translate ideas to listeners are composed of which two forms? A. Words and directions B. Symbols and signs C. Symbols and words D. Orders and directives

B. Symbols and signs

What are merely arbitrary symbolic representations of something? A. Orders B. Words C. Signs D. Directives

B. Words

The meanings that emanate from what is perceived are known as: A. Orders B. Words C. Signs D. Directives

C. Signs

The effectiveness of organizations of necessity is highly dependent upon communication in what direction? A. Upward B. Downward C. Lateral D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Sergeant Quarles was handling his third citizen complaint of the shift when he thought about what his first squad Sergeant told him many years before: Demeanor complaints are the most common citizen complaint a supervisor will have to handle. Verbal discourtesy was extremely common, but he recalled a lot of complaints about how Officers looked at people, stood, made faces, or gestured. However, whenever he spoke to Officers about such complaints, the Officers seemed to not understand what the problem was. Quarles came to the conclusion that poor communication was the root of the problem, and began making some notes for roll-call training. As he wrote the first draft of his lesson plan, he thought about first addressing the most frequent and the most critical communication problems. Which of the following is a principal obstacle to good communication? A. Failure to listen B. Body language C. Paralinguistics D. Emotional intelligence

A. Failure to listen

The greater the difference in status or rank, the _____ the difficulty in the achieving effective communication. A. Greater B. Lesser C. More frustrating D. Less frustrating

A. Greater

The failure of the supervisor to recognize the importance of the psychological aspects of the communication process will serve to: A. Confuse orders B. Frustrate subordinates C. Set up barriers D. Confound directives

C. Set up barriers

In communications, which is referred to as the static that interferes with the transmission of messages? A. Interference B. Noise C. Signal degradation D. Barriers

B. Noise

Redundancy or repetition of the message tends to be brought on by which of the following? A. Interference B. Static C. Barriers D. Signal degradation

B. Static

The ability of the supervisor to express himself clearly, concisely, simply, and understandably will determine his: A. Effort B. Elegance C. Effectiveness D. Efficiency

C. Effectiveness

Many individuals avoid making ______ because they fear being criticized for what they think or say. A. Assumptions B. Directives C. Positive declarations D. Abstract statements

C. Positive declarations

Words must be put together so that they mean the same thing to the listener as they do to the speaker, and this is done in the interest of effective: A. Communication B. Standards C. Directives D. Actions

A. Communication

Information that is passed from individual to individual usually experiences some kind of distortion or dilution of content. This is referred to as: A. Interference B. Filtering C. Noise D. Static

B. Filtering

Which of the following situations best illustrates the term "filtering" with respect to management? A. Lt. Quinones was reviewing workload per shift to balance out the staffing more efficiently. He directed Sgt. Corey to bring him the rosters for each assignment. Sgt. Corey organized the rosters by shift. She also notated which personnel were out due to injuries, long-term medical conditions, and terminal leave. B. Sgt. Mazza was completing the weekly squad productivity report. In addition to submitting the counts for each specified activity, she added an appendix distinguishing assigned work from officer-initiated activities. C. Lt. Hughes is the midnight shift commander. During the typically quiet shift, there had been an unexpected surge in the number of prisoner transports. Hughes had already allowed several Officers to go home early on Compensatory Time, and nearly had to call day shift Officers in early. Somehow, the shift managed to get all the work done. Capt. Yellon came in at 6:30 and asked Lt. Hughes how the night went. Hughes replied, "We got everything finished, Sir." D. Officer Becker was assigned to Family Court, where he worked with a joint police/sheriff's security detail for Judge Samwell. Over the course of two weeks, he provided security for Judge Samwell 8 days, and Judge Pearlstone for 2 days. Judge Pearlstone remarked that Becker was bringing him good luck, as he had closed out more cases in 2 days than he closed typically closed in a full week. Sgt. Atkins returned from vacation the next week and asked how things had gone. Officer Becker replied, "Nothing out of the ordinary, Sergeant

C. Lt. Hughes is the midnight shift commander. During the typically quiet shift, there had been an unexpected surge in the number of prisoner transports. Hughes had already allowed several Officers to go home early on Compensatory Time, and nearly had to call day shift Officers in early. Somehow, the shift managed to get all the work done. Capt. Yellon came in at 6:30 and asked Lt. Hughes how the night went. Hughes replied, "We got everything finished, Sir."

Intentional suppression of information which should pass from the superior to the subordinates will eventually cause a breach of trust in which type of channel? A. All channels B. Upward channels C. Lateral channels D. None of the above

B. Upward channels

All of the following are techniques for overcoming communication barriers reviewed by the text EXCEPT: A. Determine objectives B. Outline complex goals C. Obtain feedback D. Keep subordinates informed

B. Outline complex goals

Sgt. Lindsey earned a reputation as a Doer. He was known for being very hands-on, and strong in the technical skills of patrol work and field supervision. He was also very diligent; he usually came to work early to make sure everything was ready for his shift, and he frequently stayed late to have every detail straight before he went home. His work was distinguished by both quality as well as quantity. The department's leadership recognized his work ethic and promoted him to Lieutenant. He quickly got to work writing policy and procedure, using his technical skills to guide the Patrol Division as a whole. However, problems began to occur: Both officers and supervisors complained that they did not know what was expected of them. Supervisors reported poor morale, rumors became more frequent and negative, the Union filed several grievances in a short span of time, and officers complained of increased workplace tension. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of these issues? A. Lt. Lindsey was not communicating effectively B. Officers felt overwhelmed by the volume of new procedures they were getting C. Lt. Lindsey over-delegated D. Supervisors were embarrassed that they were being out-performed

A. Lt. Lindsey was not communicating effectively

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle accident where hazardous material has spilled onto the roadway and is a serious hazard. What type of communication in an emergency such as this is appropriate? A. Democratic B. Autocratic C. Horizontal D. Free-rein

B. Autocratic

The four D's for decision-making model is a valuable tool for processing email. It helps you to quickly decide what action to take with each item, and how to remove it from your inbox. The four D's stand for: A. Delete it, Don't ever do it, Delegate it, Defer it B. Delete it, Do it, Delegate it, Defer it c. Don't delete it, Delete it, Do it, Delegate it D. Do it, Deny it, Delegate it, Defer it

B. Delete it, Do it, Delegate it, Defer it

According to the text, what percentage of email that you receive can be deleted or filed? A. 20 percent B. 30 percent C. 50 percent D. 75 percent

What type of orders are those that establish policy? A. Directives B. General orders C. Special orders D. All of the above

B. General orders

Which of the following is known as the interchange of views and ideas between two or more persons? A. Interview B. Meeting C.Presentation D. Lecture

A. Interview

A/ An _____ has a primary purpose to obtain or impart information or influence attitudes or behavior. A. Interview B. Meeting C. Presentation D. Lecture

A. Interview

Which of the following is one of the prime activities of every supervisory officer at all levels and requires a great portion of his time? A. Lectures with citizens B. Discipline of subordinates C. Consulting with people D. Meetings with superiors

C. Consulting with people

Which of the following involves a process of questioning in which the one doing the questioning assumes a dominant role in the relationship? A. Interview B. Interrogation C. Lecture D. Meeting

B. Interrogation

Who is the one in an interview who has to exchange ideas with the one being questioned? A. Interviewee B. Interviewer C. Investigatee D. Investigator

B. Interviewer

The major functions of the interview are to: A. Obtain information B. Communicate information C. Motivate employees for the purpose of improvement D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The term that refers to assigning blame to some external object rather than to himself is known as: A. Projection B. Catharsis C. Fixation D. Regression

A. Projection

What is it called when an individual keeps repeating a response even if it is not effective? A. Projection B. Catharsis C. Fixation D. Regression

C. Fixation

According to the text, all of the following are major functions of the employee interview EXCEPT: A. Motivate employees for the purpose of improvement B. Help solve personal and group problems C. Providing training on situations and events D. Appraising past or present situation of the employee

C. Providing training on situations and events

Which of the following are steps the supervisor should undertake in preparing for an interview? A. Preliminary planning B. Arranging for privacy C. Preparing questions D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Questions that may be used at first to establish the habit of answering should be prepared if the ________ technique of interview is used. A.Interrogation B. Question-and-answer C. Counseling D. Lecturing

B. Question-and-answer

Opening an interview and use of questions are important steps in: A. Making a report of the interview B. Establishing protocol in an interview C. Conducting an interview D. Scheduling an interview

C. Conducting an interview

What type of attitude should a supervisor conducting an employee interview employ? A. Authoritative B. Paternalistic C. Domineering D. Friendly

D. Friendly

Which of the following should be avoided in the attitude of the interviewer since it might close avenues of communication? A. Domineering attitude B. Overly authoritative attitude C. Paternalistic attitude D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The wise supervisor will realize that sudden and pronounced behavioral changes in their relationship with subordinates might be viewed as _______ which will hinder the rapport between the two. A. Distrust B. Domineering C. Antagonistic D. Intimidating

A. Distrust

_____ in an employee interview can be strengthened by a meticulous avoidance of argument, fault finding, or recrimination. A. Trust B. Rapport C. Concern D. Confidence

B. Rapport

By displaying sincere interest in and consideration for the employee, the supervisor will start the process of building the employee's: A. Morality B. Leadership ability C. Communication skill D. Confidence

D. Confidence

Another term for the technique of understanding listening where the interviewer makes a sincere effort to understand what the employee is really saying, is called: A. Active listening B. Passive listening C. Counseling and praise D. Counseling and empathy

A. Active listening

The greatest learning in an employee interview occurs through: A. Speaking B. Listening C. Acting D. All of the above

B. Listening

In order to gain real understanding in an interview, what two things must exist? A. Sincerity of the interviewer and a forthright approach B. Sincerity of the interviewer and a passive approach C. Domination by the interviewer and a forthright approach D. Trust and sincerity between the interviewer and the interviewee and good speaking ability of the interviewer

A. Sincerity of the interviewer and a forthright approach

The process of ___ gives the person being interviewed the opportunity to understand themselves better and, in so doing, to gain a different interpretation of the problem at hand. A. Active listening B. Passive listening C. Counseling and praise D. Counseling and empathy

A. Active listening

With regard to dealing with subordinates, it is fundamental that every supervisor should avoid which of the following? A. Positive attitude B. Personal biases clouding his or her judgment C. Communication skills enhancing rapport D. All of the above

B. Personal biases clouding his or her judgment

The chief's office is on the second floor of the police station. He has been very busy with budgeting and other personnel matters the past few months and really hasn't had the time to go downstairs to the police patrol area where the lieutenants, sergeants and patrol officers spend the majority of their time. This has been bothering the chief and he decides he has spent too much time away from the everyday workings of the patrol division, so he makes it a point to spend at least one hour each day for the next two weeks downstairs interacting with the officers to see how things are going and if they have any ideas on how to improve the department. The concept of the chief being visible and constantly interacting with the officers and wanting to know how the department is functioning is referred to as: A. Indecisiveness B. Dispersed leadership C. Management by walking around D. Micromanaging

C. Management by walking around

Which interview type can be used effectively to review past performance and to give constructive guidance concerning improvement required? A. The informal interview B. The problem-solving interview C. The progress interview D. The grievance interview

C. The progress interview

All of the following are examples of types of interviews listed in the text EXCEPT: A. The separation interview B. The probationary interview C. The disciplinary action interview D. The grievance interview

B. The probationary interview

When a record of the interview is desirable, upon its conclusion, the results and the observations of the interviewer should be recorded promptly to prevent: A. Omissions B. Inaccuracies C. Faulty information from filtering in D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, success of the interview is dependent on all of these factors EXCEPT: A. Time and location of the interview B. Ability of the interviewer in eliciting responses C. The personalities of both parties D. The attitudes of both parties

A. Time and location of the interview

The approach of _____ toward supervision is an important science that grew from other sciences in managing people. A. Labor relations B. Human relations C. Scientific management D. Performance management

B. Human relations

The rise of worker dominance and _____ has made it necessary for management to seek positive methods of gaining an understanding of workers and leading them into a desire to produce. A. Human relations B. Scientific management C. Merit systems D. Labor relations

C. Merit systems

Human relations training has stressed: A. Cultural background B. Psychological differences between people C. Effects of culture and psychological differences on human behavior D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following traits must an ideal supervisor possess? A.Strong leadership B. Good discipline C. Palatable human relations D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, examples of drives are all of the following EXCEPT: A. Drive for security B. Drive for recognition C. Drive for status D. Drive for new experiences

C. Drive for status

All persons have: A. Basic drives which motivate their behavior B. Certain satisfactions that need fulfillment C. Psychological needs that govern their demeanor D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, the fundamental satisfactions that the individual strives tofulfill include all of the following Except: A. Opportunity to possess something or someone B. A sense of personal domination over others C. Recognition as a personality D. An opportunity for independence

B. A sense of personal domination over others

John Adair lists basic psychological needs as including all of the following EXCEPT: A. A feeling of security B. A sense of adequacy C. A sense of social approval D. A feeling of ambivalence

D. A feeling of ambivalence

What term is used to describe the psychological feeling of inadequacy? A. Inferiority complex B. Lack of confidence C. Lack of adequacy D. Lack of social approval

A. Inferiority complex

Sigmund Freud discovered that if he allowed his patients to talk about their psychological ailments bringing them to consciousness and giving them expression - that the patients' fears, problems and complexes were often alleviated. This process is known as: A. Displacement B. Catharsis C. Regression D. Projection

B. Catharsis

When an employee's psychological problems interfere with the supervisor must initiate action. A. The status quo B. The norm C. Performance D. The planning function

C. Performance

In regards to supervising a frustrated employee, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? A. To deal effectively with the lack of emotional adjustment in others, supervisors need not be completely well adjusted themselves. B. Sometimes giving subordinates an opportunity to talk, providing a bit of information, or giving a simple explanation is all that is required to correct a problem C. Supervisors are rarely the cause of an employee's frustration D. The essence of personal development is to accept frustration as something you can't do much about

B. Sometimes giving subordinates an opportunity to talk, providing a bit of information, or giving a simple explanation is all that is required to correct a problem

When a route to a goal becomes obstructed, the usual reaction is to: A. Go around the barrier B. Remove the barrier C. Attack the barrier D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When the route to an important goal is obstructed, what kind of behavior is needed in meeting the obstruction which requires some adjustment to circumstances? A. Problem-solving behavior B. Decision-making behavior C. Clinical-counseling behavior D. Human relations behavior

A. Problem-solving behavior

Which of the following external barriers may cause frustration in a subordinate in reaching his or her goals? A. Physical things B. Human barriers C. Situational barrier D . All of the above

D . All of the above

Conflicts in motives within the individual may constitute which type of barrier to personal adjustment? A. External B. Physical C. Internal D. Situational

C. Internal

Which of the following is most likely to appear when job motives encounter barriers? A. Success experience B. An opportunity for personal reflection C. Frustrations D. Increased motivation

C. Frustrations

The threshold level by which frustrations have different effects upon behavior is called: A. Frustration point B. Frustration tolerance C. Frustration limit D. Frustration barrier

B. Frustration tolerance

Since human beings cannot remain static for long, they tend to meet frustrations with: A. Aggression B. Action C. Depression D. Stress

A. Aggression

Which of the following is an example of a direct verbal attack? A. Rumor spreading B. Jokes C. Constructive criticism D. Talking back and sarcastic behavior

D. Talking back and sarcastic behavior

______ may occur in the form of loafing, work slowdowns, sabotage, and absenteeism. A. Stress B. Noncooperation C. Indirect attacks D. All of the above

B. Noncooperation

Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regards to aggression? A. A physical attack may be the result of frustration B. Extraction of satisfaction from the outside world in the drive toward a goal that is blocked is a function of aggression C. Frustration toward accomplishment of the goal that is blocked may lead to a desire to hurt D. The "pleasure-pain" principle will generally not apply to the amount of control individuals exercise over their behavior

D. The "pleasure-pain" principle will generally not apply to the amount of control individuals exercise over their behavior

When emotional conflicts with their resultant frustrations are frequent or continuous and attack reactions are not available to the individual, then the individual may adopt an attitude of: A. Resignation B. Hope C. Resilience D. Arrogance

A. Resignation

At times, supervisors must assume the role of _______ to their subordinates when information comes to their attention that the subordinates need help or when they seek help directly or indirectly. A. Leader B. Parent C. Counselor D. Disciplinarian

C. Counselor

The American Council for Drug Education has concluded from its study that is without question the most serious drug problem in the country. A. Crack cocaine B. Heroin C. Marijuana D. Alcohol dependence

D. Alcohol dependence

Which of the following are symptoms of problem drinking? A.Employee's preoccupation with alcohol B. Games played - denying there is a problem C. Guilt feelings D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When one is repeatedly affected adversely by alcohol, regardless of how slight or grave the effects are, then one is considered: A. A problem drinker B. A substance abuser C. An alcoholic D. A drug user

A. A problem drinker

Which characteristic may also signal a drinking problem in people? A. Growing domestic or financial troubles B. Domestic dispute and change C. Change in environment or work D. New friends and co-workers

A. Growing domestic or financial troubles

Problem drinkers beginning to lie about drinking or denying it when it is perfectly obvious to others is a sign of the drinker's: A. Addiction B. Loss of control C. Abuse D. Cry for help

B. Loss of control

What self defense mechanism occurs when one denies the existence of any problem, and gives excuses instead of the truth? A. Rejection B. Projection C. Rationalization D. Fixation

C. Rationalization

What self defense mechanism occurs when one denies using alcohol or claims that they can stop at any time? A. Denial B. Projection C. Rationalization D. Fixation

A. Denial

The self-defense mechanism which involves the assigning of blame to other people for the problem is known as: A. Denial B. Projection C. Rationalization D. Fixation

B. Projection

According to the text, when drinking adversely affects the employee's performance on the job and the employee has been counseled about it, what type of supervisorial action may be necessary? A. Sick Leave B. Reassignment C. Counseling D. Punitive action

D. Punitive action

A supervisor is obligated to do what when problem drinking causes the employee's job performance to deteriorate? A. Take action B. Reassign the subordinate C. Look the other way D. Consult with a superior officer for guidance on what to do

A. Take action

When drinking causes an employee's work to deteriorate or drop to an unacceptable level, the supervisor is ultimately responsible for: A. Reassignment B. Counseling C. Training D. Corrective action

D. Corrective action

As with other Interviewing situations, with dealing with an employee who has a drinking problem, the supervisor should be familiar with all pertinent facts concerning which elements? A. The employee B. His performance record C. The details of his disciplinary history D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The technique used when a supervisor stimulates the individual employee to discover his/her own problem and decide upon a course of action to correct it is known as: A. Directive counseling B. Employee-centered counseling C. Performance counseling D. Action-centered counseling

B. Employee-centered counseling

You have decided to conduct a counseling session with an employee who has substandard performance. You are preparing for the meeting, and have decided on a preliminary action plan. You believe the employee is abusing alcohol, and has a personal problem which is contributing to his performance problem. You know that a record of the counseling session is necessary. In regards to note-taking, which of the following is INCORRECT? A. Although a record of contact with employees should be kept, the taking of notes during the counseling sessions should be avoided. B. Note-taking during the counseling session will only contribute to the subject's apprehensions, and may aggravate their suspicions and increase their defensiveness. C. The only effective way to ensure you gather and document all facts during a counseling session is to take notes during the session D. As soon as possible after the counseling session, notes should be prepared for the file and for other necessary reports

C. The only effective way to ensure you gather and document all facts during a counseling session is to take notes during the session

The important objective of counseling is not only to get the problem drinker to give up drinking, but to also come to a realization: A. How it affected their life B. That they can never drink again C. How it affected their job D. That they must only drink in moderation

B. That they can never drink again

Psychological symptoms of a problem include: A. Uncontrolled emotional outbursts B. Excessive irritability C. Insecurity D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Physiological symptoms experienced in personal or emotional problems include: A. Headaches B. Upset stomach C. Muscle spasms D. All of the above

D. All of the above

At the close of a counseling session, a subordinate should be able to: A. Summarize the conclusion reached B. Make a definite commitment to execute the solution C. Summarize the course of action to be followed D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What is the term used for excessive job stress, or that resulting from personal frustration and inadequate coping skills? A. Burnout B. Frustration C. Coping Mechanism D. Aggression

A. Burnout

The second phase of counseling is: A. An assessment by the counselor of the problems presented B. A review of personal history C. A review of goals and objectives D. An assessment of behavior and disciplinary record

A. An assessment by the counselor of the problems presented

Proven stress reducers include: A. Diet changes B. Physical exercise C. Retraining D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Supervisors are in a unique position to prevent some suicides. Which of the following are suicide warning signs? A. Previous suicide attempt B. Anger or irritability C. Depression D. All of the above

D. All of the above

There are a number of myths and facts about suicide. Which of the following is a myth? A. Most suicidal officers communicate their intent sometime during the week preceding their attempt. B. If the law enforcement officer in crisis gets the help needed, the officer may never be suicidal again. C. Asking someone directly about suicidal intent lowers anxiety, opens up communication, and lowers the risk of an impulsive act. D. No one can stop a suicide, it's inevitable.

D. No one can stop a suicide, it's inevitable

According to the text, officers involved in traumatic incidents sometimes develop rather severe ____ shortly after the incident occurred. A. Sleep disorders B. Muscle Twitches C. Psychological reactions D. Physical reactions

C. Psychological reactions

Which of the following is a category of grievances and dissatisfaction that arise in the workplace? A. Work environment B. Inept supervision C. Management failures D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Supervisors will not recognize where their performance might need modification if they are not honest about which choices below? A.Work environment B. Rules and regulations C. Self-evaluation D.Assignments given to subordinates

C. Self-evaluation

All of the following, according to the text, are physical elements of the working environment that give rise to a large portion of employee dissatisfaction EXCEPT: A.Coworkers B. Bad lighting C. Improper temperature D. Inadequate restroom facilities

A.Coworkers

Which element accounts for a large share of dissatisfaction and negative feelings of employees? A. Poor supervision B. Assignment C. Lack of authority D. Leadership

A. Poor supervision

Supervisory practices that lead to negative feelings in employees include all of the following, according to the text, EXCEPT: A. Failure to give recognition B. Failure to delegate power C. The use of intemperate language D.Displays of favoritism

B. Failure to delegate power

Observations indicate that managers in law enforcement agencies tend to _______ regarding the communication of organizational policies and procedures. A. Communicate poorly B. Use filtering C. Communicate well D. Fail

C. Communicate well

Dissatisfactions are a prime cause of complaints and grievances of various types and contribute markedly to the lowering of which of the following? A. Morale B. Satisfaction C. Work ethic D. Recognition

A. Morale

According to the text, which type of failure gives rise to many negative reactions of workers? A. Failures of management B. Failures of co-workers C. Failures of citizens D. Failures of the criminal justice system

A. Failures of management

Failures of management include: A. Supervisors allowing waste of time on the job B. Violations of employees' due process C. Arbitrarily enforcing rules D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Indifference of supervisors to the squandering of organizational resources and other wasteful practices contribute to: A. Inefficient operation B. Lack of morale C. Lazy attitudes by workers D. Inappropriate supervisory policies

A. Inefficient operation

Employees often oppose the ____ in which the organizational rules are enforced more than they oppose the rules themselves. A. Structure B. Manner C. Contractual procedural steps D. Setting

B. Manner

The ____ of supervisors in enforcing all the organizational rules is perceived far more frequently than any other cause as a reason for opposition to the rule. A. Inconsistency B. Requirement C. Determination D. Perseverance

A. Inconsistency

In regards to rules of conduct and rule enforcement, which of the following is LEAST CORRECT? A. Studies among peace officers have revealed some distinct dissatisfaction about organizational rules and regulations and how they are applied by supervisors. B. Employees often oppose the manner in which organizational rules are enforced more than the rules themselves. C. Failures of supervisors to follow the same rules that officers are expected to follow invariably cause strong negative reactions. D. Overly severe punishments for violations of rules are likely to be accepted by most officers as necessary to make an appropriate example.

D. Overly severe punishments for violations of rules are likely to be accepted by most officers as necessary to make an appropriate example.

Employees react strongly and often challenge management in what formal legal system venue when they feel they have been arbitrarily deprived of some due process right? A. Court B. Arbitration C. Civil service D. Mediation

A. Court

What type of interest does the tenured employee have when he has a legitimate claim to his job as conferred by statute, contract, or other existing rule or understanding? A. Property interest B. Liberty interest C. Security interest D.Tenure interest

A. Property interest

The employee has which of the following interests when the employer's action in dismissing him significantly damages his reputation or standing in the community? A. Property interest B. Liberty interest C. Security interest D. Tenure interest

B. Liberty interest

In order for procedural due process requirements to be meticulously adhered to in disciplinary cases, it is imperative that supervisors become familiar with which of the following that might affect an employee's interest in their position? A. Contract provisions B. Statutes C. Rules between employer and employee D. All of the above

D. All of the above

In which U.S. Supreme court case did it state that a tenured public employee is entitled, under due process, to oral and written notice of the charges against him and an opportunity to tell his side of the story before he is terminated? A. Morrissey v. Brewer B. Cleveland Board of Education v. Loudermill C. Arnet v. Kennedy D. Bence v. Breier

B. Cleveland Board of Education v. Loudermill

Generally, courts have ruled that an employee cannot be penalized for his acts unless it can be proved that his conduct was related to his performance and: A. Impaired his efficiency B. Seriously interfered with the operational efficiency of the organization C. Interfered with the maintenance of good order within the organization D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The term used when a problem employee is involved in the frequent transfer from one place, one shift, or one assignment to another is: A. Freeway therapy B. Transfer treatment C. The wheel D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, when employee discontent is not ____ it may become more grievous to the supervisor and the organization. A. Quickly terminated B. Verbalized C. Acted upon D. Documented

B. Verbalized

Many of the causes for employee dissatisfaction can be prevented by supervisors if they consistently adhere to the basic tenets of: A. Rules B. Regulations C. Leadership D. Policy

C. Leadership

When some factor in an employee's working environment causes him to complain orally or more formally, in writing, it is usually referred to as a: A. Performance problem B. Dissatisfaction C. Grievance D. All of the above

C. Grievance

When employees complain because they believe the management in an organization has breached an agreement of their contract, a more formalized procedure is usually required. Typically, how many steps are involved when dissatisfaction degenerates into formal grievances? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

The Supervision of Police Personnel textbook offers important guidelines for the supervisor in dealing with unions. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Know the contract very well B. Only follow the grievance procedure if time permits C. Know the union representative D. Have a good working knowledge of the rules, regulations, and policy.

B. Only follow the grievance procedure if time permits

What is often thought of in a limited sense meaning punishment or penalty? A. Appraisal B. Promotion C. Discipline D. Assignment

C. Discipline

The main purpose of which practice is to facilitate coordination of effort, develop self-control and character, and foster orderliness and efficiency? A. Appraisal B. Promotion C. Discipline D. Assignment

C. Discipline

The principal responsibility for maintaining an appropriate level of discipline in their units should rest upon whom? A. Chief of Police B. Immediate line supervisors C. Mayor D. All of the above

B. Immediate line supervisors

The supervisor is doing an injustice to their organization and other employees if they refuse or neglect to consider ____ an employee. A. Transfer of B. Appraisals of C. The political affiliation of D. Complaints against

D. Complaints against

What word comes from the root definition of one who receives instruction from another or who follows devotedly the expressions and actions of a respected leader? A. Discipline B. Supervisor C. Chief D. Appraisal

A. Discipline

The form of training and attitudinal conditioning which is used to correct deficiencies without invoking punishment is known as: A. Positive discipline B. Retraining C. Specialized training D. Enhanced discipline

A. Positive discipline

A well-disciplined organization is one that is considered highly: A.Structured B. Trained C. Supervised D. Regulated

B. Trained

The form of discipline which is exemplified by punishment or chastisement is known as: A. Retraining B. Specialized training C. Negative discipline D. Reassignment

C. Negative discipline

Discipline is a term used in modern administration and management that denotes a form of moral or mental. A. Training B. Education C. Correction D. All of the above

D. All of the above

While punishing an employee does not guarantee that his future conduct or performance will improve, it will not demoralize others in the organization if it is sensibly applied and is: A. Fair and consistent B. Equal and swift C. Equal and consistent D. Fair and swift

A. Fair and consistent

Which of the following is a requisite for punishment? A. Certainty of punishment B. Swiftness of punishment C. Consistent punishment D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Officer Abbot had been charged with insubordination. It was his second major disciplinary charge, and the Chief of Police intended to dismiss Abbot from the Police Department if the charge was sustained. The charging officer, Captain Rossi, was Commander of the Internal Affairs Unit. Rossi was also an adjunct instructor for the Attorney General's Division of Police Training, and had been recognized by the NJ Superior Court as an expert witness on the subject of departmental discipline. During the disciplinary hearing, Abbot's attorney cross-examined Captain Rossi, and asked him numerous questions about how discipline was practiced in the police department. When asked what the purpose of discipline is, Captain Rossi responded: A. "To bring about improved conduct in the future." B. "To punish officers engaging in unacceptable behavior." C. "To establish authority over employees." D. "To exclusively use positive approaches to behavior."

A. "To bring about improved conduct in the future."

Which practice should not only serve as a deterrent to the employee against who it is applied, but should be a form of training for other employees to orient them to the types of acts the organization cannot and will not tolerate? A. Punitive action B. Discipline C. Retraining D. Reassignment

A. Punitive action

When a subordinate can exercise a form of discipline against their supervisor this is known as: A. Upward discipline B. Upward appraisal C. Upward evaluation D. All of the above

A. Upward discipline

Morale is a state of mind reflecting the degree to which an individual: A. has confidence in the members of his group and organization B. believes in the groups and organizations objectives C. desires to accomplish the objectives of the group and organization D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Morale is considered to be what kind of condition? A. Stable B. Static C. Fluctuating D. Inert

C. Fluctuating

In a broad framework, morale may be measured by factors such as: A. Quality of work B. Rate of turnover C. Amount of absenteeism D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Sgt. Hendricks had concerns about her squad, which she brought to Lt. Reynolds. She had noticed an increase in demeanor complaints while at the same time officers were filing more grievances than any time in recent memory. She had also noticed that officers seemed unenthusiastic about the job lately. Lt. Reynolds told her that he had just completed his monthly attendance review and found a significant increase in both sick time use and tardiness. At roll call, she noticed that several of the officers' uniforms were sloppy. When the squad was dismissed, a senior officer approached her and asked what he needed to do in order to transfer to another squad. Sgt. Hendricks asked the officer his reason for wanting to transfer. The officer rolled his eyes, stammered, and finally said it just seemed as if nobody wants to cooperate with anyone. What is the first step Sgt. Hendricks should take? A. Review the grievances to see if they are well-founded B. Explain the transfer process to the officer C. Assess why morale is low D. Determine if training is adequate for the needs of the squad

C. Assess why morale is low

Which of the below involves the existence of a sense of common endeavor and responsibility within the group that embodies devotion to the group enterprise, cooperation among its members, and pride in its accomplishments? A. Espirit de corps B. Coup de te C. Ceis la vie D. Espirit la vie

A. Espirit de corps

When a disciplinary case is poorly prepared or carelessly investigated, it reflects poorly on the supervisor and the organization. As a result: A. The employee is looked poorly upon B. The employee is usually returned to the job on appeal C. The employee is the focus of future investigation D. All of the above

B. The employee is usually returned to the job on appeal

Which of the following will dictate the procedure to be followed in receiving and disposing of complaints against personnel? A. Laws B. Regulations C. Organizational policy D. State statutes

C. Organizational policy

The primary objective in the administration of an effective personnel complaint investigation policy is: A. To protect the reputation of the force, to protect the public interest, and to protect the accused employee from unjust accusations B. To protect the public from overly aggressive officers C. To protect the accused employee from prosecution D. To allow citizens to complain about quality of life issues

A. To protect the reputation of the force, to protect the public interest, and to protect the accused employee from unjust accusations

Public entities have traditionally been immune from civil liability resulting from wrongful acts of their employees based on which ancient philosophy? A. Sovereign immunity B. Sovereign reservation C. Sovereign protection D. Sovereign exemption

A. Sovereign immunity

Under which doctrine is a public entity now liable for the wrongful acts or omissions of its employees who are acting within the scope of their employment? A. Respondeat superior B . Respondeat quality C. Respondeat reservation D. Respondeat adequate

A. Respondeat superior

During a supervisor development class sponsored by the county prosecutor's office, Assistant Prosecutor Rothman did a presentation on legal aspects of supervision. He explained that there were a number of areas in which police departments and police supervisors could be held liable for police activities. He gave an example in which a police officer got into a high-speed pursuit of a car. The officer reported that the driver ran a red light and was driving through a residential area at high speed. It was raining and there was other traffic on the road where the pursuit took place. The patrol sergeant on duty acknowledged the pursuit but made no decision to terminate it. The officer crashed into another car, injuring the driver. That driver sued the police department, the officer, and the sergeant. The sergeant was not excused from the legal action on the basis of vicarious liability. This refers to responsibility for: A. Individual acts of criminal liability B. Individual acts of civil liability C. Legal responsibility for the acts of another D. Nonresponsibility of local government jurisdiction

C. Legal responsibility for the acts of another

The general procedures for handling minor infractions observed by the supervisor in the course of activities include: A. Discussion of the incident with the concerned employee B. An on-the-spot warning or admonishment given when appropriate C. A record made of the incident for future reference D. All of the above What type of complaints are those received from persons who are not themselves victims but complain on behalf of others? A. Internal B. Peripheral C. Primary D. Secondary

D. All of the above

What type of complaints are those received from persons who are not themselves victims but complain on behalf of others? A. Internal B. Peripheral C. Primary D. Secondary

D. Secondary

In every instance of an observed minor breach of discipline, the supervisor should call the matter to the attention of the employee in which manner? A. Promptly and in private B. Promptly and immediately C. Immediately and in front of others D. Immediately and openly

A. Promptly and in private

Except in very minor cases, a record of the circumstances of every incident and the action taken should be made where a breach of discipline requires what kind of action by the supervisors? A. Private B. Immediate C.Punitive D. Prompt

C.Punitive

Supervisors should avoid acting as ____ when complaints involving the validity of police action are received with no allegation of misconduct. A. An arbiter or judge B. Concerned individuals C. Collectors of information. D. A person who is interested in what is being said

A. An arbiter or judge

In recording complaints against police personnel, the supervisor should avoid including ____ as part of the report. A. Subjective observations B. Conflicts in the complaint C. Intoxication of the complainant D. All of the above

A. Subjective observations

The protections given an employee by ____ provisions in the law and in the collective bargaining agreement must be meticulously observed by the investigating supervisor. A. Policy and procedure B. Due process C. Rules and regulations D. Investigative procedure

B. Due process

Physical arrest and formal booking of an accused officer should be made only after the _____ has been made fully aware of the circumstances in the matter. A. Field officer B. Union representative C. Field supervisor D. Chief of Police

D. Chief of Police

In regards to personnel complaint investigations, the _______ of the accused employee should be carefully scrutinized for evidence that he or she have previously been the subject of similar complaints. A. Attendance history B. Personnel records C. Police academy history D. Performance logs

B. Personnel records

Which source from an officer may reveal evidence of false statements with regard to duty activities? A.Time sheets B. Attendance records C. Daily performance logs D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The investigating supervisor should approach contact with the accused employee as/ with: A. An interview process although it may end as an interrogation B. A matter-of-fact manner with full opportunity to explain their side C. An objective unbiased attitude with no notion of preconceived conclusions D. All of the above

D. All of the above

A large crowd was attending the trial of Harry Moore, who was accused of shooting William Paterson. During the trial, Ms. Whitman, a citizen who was watching the trial, became loud and disruptive. Judge Byrne told Officer Murphy to remove the woman from the courtroom. When the officer approached her, she shouted "There's no justice for our people here," and spit on the floor. Byrne then told Whitman he was holding her in contempt of court, and told the officer to arrest her. Murphy arrested the woman and took her to the holding area. When he reviewed the video recording of the incident, Sgt. Kean heard Murphy tell the woman "Shut up, stupid." He read all the reports on the incident, checked Murphy's training file and performance evaluations, and called Murphy in for a meeting. Kean explained that the focus of the meeting would be Murphy's conduct. He very specifically told Murphy that his language and apparent loss of his temper were unacceptable. He added that Murphy's work record was otherwise excellent, and that he was confident that this counseling session would be sufficient to prevent the conduct from happening again. Which action did Murphy leave out? A. He did not issue a written warning. B. He did not advise Murphy he was entitled to have a union representative present. C. He did not refer the incident to Internal Affairs. D.He did not ask Murphy for an explanation.

D.He did not ask Murphy for an explanation.

With respect to personnel complaint investigation procedures and techniques, which of the following is INCORRECT? A. It is the supervisor's responsibility to arrive at the truth of the matter, which must be done by whatever proper means are available. B. It is generally advisable to bring the complainant and the accused employee together in a face-to-face encounter in an attempt to resolve the complaint. C. As an investigative tool, written statements can be very helpful. D. Generally, supervisors can accomplish the most by directly asking the questions they expect answered.

B. It is generally advisable to bring the complainant and the accused employee together in a face-to-face encounter in an attempt to resolve the complaint.

One of the most distasteful of the supervisor's investigative responsibilities in regards to personnel complaints includes: A. Interviewing family members B. Interviewing children C. Conducting searches of employee property D. Dealing with the union representatives on the matter

C. Conducting searches of employee property

According to the text, what form of lineup is becoming more and more prevalent? A. Physical lineup B. Drive-by lineup C. Photo lineup D. On-the-scene lineup

C. Photo lineup

While this type of test does not yet have enough reliability to justify the admission of expert testimony based on results in courts, are commonly used by law enforcement agencies in the investigation and detection of crime. A. Personality tests B. Psychological tests C. Polygraph tests D. Performance tests

C. Polygraph tests

Which of the following tests are often helpful to prove or disprove intoxication when this condition is an issue? A. Blood B. Urine C. Breath test D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Minimum requirements of procedural due process reviewed in the text include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Sealing of evidence to be used against the officer B. A hearing before a neutral and detached body C. Written notice served on the officer D. The right to confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses

A. Sealing of evidence to be used against the officer

A preferred procedure in drafting charges against the employee for misconduct is to prepare them in terms of the ____ described in the rules and regulations as unbecoming conduct. A. General violations B. Specific violation C. General charges D. Universal violations

B. Specific violation

Basic to all police reports, but of special importance to complaint investigation reports, are the requisites of: A. Accuracy and timeliness B. Timeliness and completeness C. Completeness and relevance D. Accuracy and completeness

D. Accuracy and completeness

Parts of the investigative report should ideally include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Listing the employee as a "suspect" B. Headings C. Summary of investigations D. Recommendations, when required

A. Listing the employee as a "suspect"

When the facts obtained in a personnel complaint investigation support the complaint, the case is classified as: A. Sustained B. Exonerated C. Unfounded D. Not sustained

A. Sustained

Which classification in a personnel complaint investigation case is used to indicate that the alleged act did not in fact occur and that the complaint was false? A. Sustained B. Exonerated C. Unfounded D. Not sustained

C. Unfounded

What type of personnel complaint investigation case classification is used when the evidence indicates that the alleged act did in fact occur but was legal, proper, and necessary? A. Sustained B. Exonerated C. Unfounded D. Not sustained

B. Exonerated

What type of personnel complaint investigation case classification is used when a case is not resolved by an investigation, either because sufficient evidence is not available or because material conflicts in evidence are resolved without further disposition or action? A. Sustained B. Exonerated C. Unfounded D. Not sustained

D. Not sustained

Organizations are judged by their records of achievement. Law enforcement agencies are judged in part by their ability to: A. Generate budget monies through many forfeiture proceedings B. Suppress unlawful activity C. Avoid negative publicity D. Show the public that racial profiling complaints have not significantly increased

B. Suppress unlawful activity

Which of the following has been revealed by studies as one of the most important parts of the management process? A. Evaluation and appraisal of employees B. Initiating appropriate punishment for employees who make mistakes C. Property crime analysis D. Reward of employees

A. Evaluation and appraisal of employees

Which of the following is NOT true? A. Every supervisor engages constantly in the process of comparatively rating subordinates, whether there is a formal or informal rating system or none at all. B. In those agencies where no evaluation system has been adopted, each supervisor is left to their own devices to evaluate their personnel comparatively. C. A cause of rating system failure includes rating shortcuts. D. Experience has shown that abridged versions of rating scales devised to economize on time lead to an increase in rating accuracy.

D. Experience has shown that abridged versions of rating scales devised to economize on time lead to an increase in rating accuracy.

A properly executed rating system is a valuable tool in: A. Placement and promotion of personnel B. Administration of merit pay or salary increases C. Disciplinary proceedings D. All of the above

D. All of the above

In a _____ agency, an informal rating system may serve management well. A. Small B. Medium C. Large D. Public sector

A. Small

It was common practice for supervisors in the Lansdale Police Department to fill out annual performance evaluation forms, give a copy to the ratee, file the evaluation and never refer to it again. Over the fifteen years of his career, Selvin Conroy found this to be frustrating and pointless. He never felt he got sufficient feedback from his supervisor to help him improve. When he was promoted to Sergeant, Conroy held a staff meeting with his squad. He talked about how he saw the evaluation process, and explained how he intended to use it. During this meeting, Sgt. Conroy told the squad that the process of a performance evaluation should always: A. Have the purpose of seeing how actual employee performance compares to the ideal it is intended to measure B. Enhance a managers' authority C. Reduce departmental liability D. Streamline the budget process

A. Have the purpose of seeing how actual employee performance compares to the ideal it is intended to measure

Personnel rating systems are inherently unstable because the instruments are: A. Objective B. Subjective C. Dynamic D. Static

B. Subjective

Which of the following should serve as a means of providing a degree of recognition that employees desire? A. Personnel evaluation system B. Personnel complaint investigation process C. Training D. Staffing

A. Personnel evaluation system

As an administrative tool, the data obtained from personnel evaluations are useful in: A. A progressive personnel management program B. Determining if employees should be granted tenure C. Determining if employees are entitled to earn or retain longevity or merit pay D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Rating reports are valuable to afford a basis for calling attention to inadequate ______ when used as clinical instruments. A. Compensation B. Discipline C. Performance D. Morale

C. Performance

Properly administered personnel evaluation programs can be useful to administrators in research activities and these systems are helpful in: A. Evaluating the selection and testing program B. Evaluating the effectiveness of a training program at the operating level C. Determining as one basis for promotion D. All of the above

D. All of the above

There are many causes for rating system failures including: A. Indifference B. Employee pressures C. Failure to train raters D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The key to the successful administration of a rating system is which of the following? A. Service ratings B. Positive attitude C. Being an expert in all areas D. Training raters

D. Training raters

According to the text, all of the following are reasons for rating system failures EXCEPT: A. Subordinate's lack of job knowledge B. Rating abuses C. Rating shortcuts D. Slipshod procedures

A. Subordinate's lack of job knowledge

The competence of the rater, the effort the rater expends in observing and recording evidence of the behavior of their subordinates, their judgment in weighing and evaluating this evidence, and their fairness in applying it to the service rating procedure directly reflect: A. The type of training he has received B. The degree of their attitudinal conditioning C. The climate established for the system by management D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, who in the police service is the key figure in any rating system, since their job involves the productivity of the officers under their command? A. First-line supervisor B. Chief of Police C. Field supervisor D. Field training officer

A. First-line supervisor

The first-line supervisor's method of accumulating evidence about their amsubordinates' performance may be established as a matter of: A. Law and regulations B. Practice and policy C. Rules and regulations D. Memory alone and policy

B. Practice and policy

Which technique involves the collection of objective data about an employee's performance, which can then be used as a basis for more effective performance ratings? A. Supervisor management technique B. Rater observation technique C. Critical incident technique D. Performance rating technique

C. Critical incident technique

Lt. Fitch is using his department's new rating system for the first time. The department recently changed to the critical incident rating system in order to ensure the reasons for ratings were job-relevant and thoroughly documented. A key element of this rating system is correctly defining critical incidents. As Lt. Fitch begins to use this system, which situation below need NOT be documented as critical? A. Sgt. Stockard recently took charge at the scene of a robbery. He directed officers' response, but he neglected to utilize the traffic unit in setting up a perimeter. The suspects, who were reported on foot at the time the robbery was reported, escaped. B. Sgt. Harrison was supervising the jail when a prisoner began beating her head against the cell door. He directed officers to restrain the prisoner and give first aid. The prisoner was transported to the hospital for treatment of minor injuries and for a psychiatric evaluation. C. Sgt. Pagano is an administrative supervisor. She was driving home for lunch when a motor vehicle pursuit started. The patrol supervisor on duty did not respond to the radio, so Pagano took control of the pursuit, directing secondary units where to go to diver traffic away from the highway. When the suspect vehicle's speed got too high, she terminated the pursuit. D. Sgt. Applebaum is a reliable patrol supervisor. His operational reports are consistently done on time and accurately; he handles personnel problems immediately, before they become real trouble; and he has a reputation as a "Training Sergeant" who helps his squad members grow in their jobs.

D. Sgt. Applebaum is a reliable patrol supervisor. His operational reports are consistently done on time and accurately; he handles personnel problems immediately, before they become real trouble; and he has a reputation as a "Training Sergeant" who helps his squad members grow in their jobs.

Rating forms will usually list how many characteristics that must be considered by the rater? A. 4-10 traits B. 4-12 traits C. 5-10 traits D. 6-12 traits

B. 4-12 traits

Evaluation reports for probationary officers of all ranks should be made at least how often? A. Once per week B. Once per month C. Once per quarter D. Once per year

B. Once per month

According to the text, which of the following is a personal characteristic rating trait? A. Honesty B. Quantity of work C. Effectiveness D. Job knowledge

A. Honesty

According to the text, which of the following are ability rating traits? A. Appearance B. Stability C. Imagination D. All of the above

B. Stability

According to the text, suitability for promotion rating traits include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Leadership Ability B. Job Knowledge C. Command presence D. Ability to avoid complaints

D. Ability to avoid complaints

In letting subordinates know what is expected of them, the supervisor is performing a/an _____ function that will give them a basis for understanding which standards will be used to measure and evaluate their effectiveness. A. Strategic B. Training C. Oversupervision D. Regulatory

B. Training

Which of the following is inherently subjective since it involves a personal audit by one person of another's conduct or performance? A. Training curriculum B. Rating system C. Supervisory management D. All of the above

B. Rating system

It is recognized by most supervisors that if many of the observations of their subordinates are systematically made and recorded for the prime purpose of eliminating ______, then they will provide an excellent basis for trait evaluation involved in personnel rating systems. A. Rapport B. Poor performance C. Bias D. Poor investigations

C. Bias

The biggest problem in the selection of a rating method within large groups where functions vary widely is: A. That it will yield reliable results B. That it will be applicable across jobs C. That it will be used correctly D. That supervisors will learn the system

A. That it will yield reliable results

Many of the earlier rating systems used the technique of which puts employees in a particular group according to their relative overall value to the organization. A. Evaluation B. Ranking C. Military Mapping D. Categorization

B. Ranking

What method of rating employees is simple and easy to administer, but it has the disadvantage of lacking common standards of measurement, especially when employees from widely different assignments must be compared? A. Evaluation B. Ranking C. Military D. Categorization

B. Ranking

What may be improved when the rater compares each employee with others who have been selected as having the greatest value to the organization, who are in the middle group with average value, and who are considered as having the least value? A. Utility B. Accuracy C. Discipline D. Morale

B. Accuracy

When using representative employee standards, a rater is able to rank employees by comparing them with other representative employees who have what type of value to the organization? A. The least B. The greatest C. An average D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Instead of using selected employees who are representative of certain groups of personnel with varying values to the organization, _______ developed to avoid the necessity for changing criteria when selected employees leave the unit or their performance becomes such that they can no longer be used as a pattern for ratings. A. Ideal employee descriptions B. Numerical standards C. Forced choice standards D. Employee ranking

A. Ideal employee descriptions

When quantity of production is most important to an organization, _____ may be used to an advantage in measuring accomplishments and are often expressed numerically. A.Qualifying standards B. Descriptive standards C. Qualitative standards D. Analysis standards

B. Descriptive standards

What scale is used as a guide in determining total value points and assigns numerical values to each trait or performance factor and gives each a weight? A. Purely an arithmetic rating scale B. Ideal employee rating scale C. Forced choice rating scale D. Qualitative rating scale

A. Purely an arithmetic rating scale

In what standard of rating does the rater select only one choice at a time for each trait evaluated to avoid an unconscious bias that often creeps into the trait ratings when several traits are considered together? A. Numerical standard B. Ideal employee standard C. Selected employee standard D. Forced choice standard

D. Forced choice standard

According to the text, which of the following make the best raters (because they are more diligent in carrying out their rating responsibilities and are less likely to commit the error of leniency by overrating the poor performers)? A. Chief of police or command staff B. Police administrators C. The best supervisors D. The best field officers

C. The best supervisors

Every supervisor should realize that they are evaluated ______ by each subordinate on the basis of how their personnel evaluation duties and responsibilities are performed. A. Annually B. Continually C. Informally D. Formally

C. Informally

Certain broad characteristics are usually found in supervisors who excel in rating their subordinates. Some of the most common qualities are: A. They are able to distinguish facts from feelings or impressions B. They are able to weigh the performance of their subordinates against a consistent standard C. They are able to base their ratings on objective data whenever possible without allowing subjective emotions D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which error occurs when the rater marks an inordinately large number of the rating reports in the highest one or two categories such as very good and excellent? A. Leniency B. Personal bias C. Central tendency D. All of the above

A. Leniency

What is by far the most common of all errors in the rating of personnel? A. Leniency B. Personal bias C. Central tendency D. Halo effect

What rating error occurs when raters tend to rate higher than is justified those persons they know well and like, and those who subscribe to the same opinions as the supervisor? A. Leniency B. Personal bias C. Subjectivity D. Overweighting

B. Personal bias

Capt. Fordham is responsible to complete annual performance appraisals for the staff assigned to his office. Lt. Carney's performance on most criteria was weak, and throughout the year overall performance was mediocre. However, Carney writes grant applications and secured significant funding for several important department activities. Fordham gave Carney a good rating overall. Capt. Fordham has committed which rating error? A. Overweighting B. Related Traits C. Central tendency D. Halo or Horns effect

D. Halo or Horns effect

What type of rating error results when raters group their ratings near the center of the rating scale with few ratings at the bottom or at the top? A. Leniency B. Related Traits C. Central tendency D. Halo or Horns effect

C. Central tendency

What type of rating error results when the rater gives similar ratings to traits which seem to be similar? A. Overweighting B. Related Traits C. Central tendency D. Halo or Horns effect

B. Related Traits

What type of rating error results when the raters have the tendency to be unduly influenced by an occurrence, either good or bad, involving the person rated near the end of the rating period? A. Overweighting or recency B. Related Traits C. Central tendency D. Subjectivity

A. Overweighting or recency

A report is said to be ____ when it is an accurate measurement of the ability it purports to measure. A. Valid B. Reliable C. Useful D. Clinical

A. Valid

A report is said to be _____ if it measures consistently and reasonably accurately each time it is used. A. Valid B. Reliable C. Useful D. Clinical

B. Reliable

Which of the following is a method of rating? A. Composite ratings B. Group ratings C. Individual trait ratings D. All of the above

D. All of the above

For employees who need improvement, the best way to communicate this in the evaluation process is by which of the following? A. In writing B. Via email C. Face-to-face interview D. Through informal means

C. Face-to-face interview

Every supervisor should become familiar with the basic procedures applicable to the procurement and use of _____ common to the policing of most unusual occurrences. A. Personnel B. Facilities C. Equipment D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, when communicating field intelligence, all of the following should be transmitted as it becomes available EXCEPT: A. The nature of the incident B. The time it takes to control the situation C. The potential effect of the incident on persons or property D. Need for evacuation

B. The time it takes to control the situation

When a command post is needed, all of the following were considerations presented in the text EXCEPT: A. Easily identifiable on maps B. Free of trees or overhead roadways C. Located upwind from the event D. Near a power supply

B. Free of trees or overhead roadways

Who can be of great value in maintaining good media relations by collecting information and coordinating current news releases? A. Liaison officer B. Field officer C. Public information officer D. Tactical officer

C. Public information officer

What situation is an officer potentially dealing with when a dangerous suspect takes refuge by himself in a building or other structure to escape arrest? A. Hostage situation B. Hide-and-flight situation C. Barricaded person situation D. Search-and-rescue situation

C. Barricaded person situation

When a suspect takes a hostage, he/she is most likely trying to: A. Increase his /her bargaining power with the police B. Demand the officers withdraw C. Demand the officers provide him/her with an escape without interference D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT in regards to barricaded persons who have taken hostages? A. The initial 15 - 45 minutes when confusion and panic are likely to be the greatest is an especially dangerous time period. B. The period when the initial seizure occurs is the most critical because of the emotional tensions that are present - it is then that the danger of injury or death to the hostage is greatest. C. Containment and negotiation strategies have been shown to yield a 65 percent success rate in terms of resolving a hostage crisis without fatalities to either hostages or hostage takers. D. A general practice followed by the police in such instances is to initiate contact with the hostage taker and begin a conversation.

C. Containment and negotiation strategies have been shown to yield a 65 percent success rate in terms of resolving a hostage crisis without fatalities to either hostages or hostage takers.

The FBI's hostage negotiation unit developed a model negotiation strategy. It's one which any first responder or superior officer can use if necessary. It's called the "Behavioral Change Stairway Model." Which of the following is the first step? A. Rapport B. Behavioral change C. Empathy D. Active listening

D. Active listening

The FBl's hostage negotiation unit developed a model negotiation strategy. It's one which any first responder or superior officer can use if necessary. It's called the "Behavioral Change Stairway Model." Which of the following is the last step? A. Rapport B. Behavioral change C. Empathy D. Active listening

B. Behavioral change

Supervisors should make it clear to all personnel that they reserve the right to decide how and when organized force may be used to rush a suspect who holds a hostage and that if they enforce such directions they are maintaining: A. Strategic practice B. Tactical operations C. Unity of command D. Field operations

C. Unity of command

During preliminary operations in hostage and barricaded suspect cases, the supervisor should perform or designate an aide to perform which of the following tasks? A. Secure the premises B. Report on injured persons C. Establish a command post D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, all of the following are tasks to perform during preliminary operations in hostage and barricaded suspect cases that the supervisor or an aide should perform except: A. Communications B. Evacuation C. Staging area D. Training and support

D. Training and support

The preferred procedure in dealing with hostage cases that will buy time to the advantage of the police is: A. Negotiation B. Acquiescing to demands C. Honoring some demands D. Communicating with headquarters

A. Negotiation

The negotiator should proceed upon the premise that every issue is negotiable except that he/she must not agree to provide the suspect with which of the following? A. Transportation B. Offensive weapons C. Food D. A communication device

B. Offensive weapons

An attempt should be made to point out the futility of the suspect's actions to the hostage taker, granted the suspect is: A. Coherent B. Troubled C. Suicidal D. Rational

D. Rational

According to your text, what may be needed in the cases where the acts and threats of the hostage-taking suspect indicate that he realizes he cannot escape and his intent may be to harm a hostage? A.Positive, direct action B. Extreme, tactical action C. Positive, excessive action D. Extreme, with guaranteed results action

A.Positive, direct action

When a decision is made to force entry into the hostage-taking suspect's position, the entry team typically consists of: A. 2-5 officers B. 3-5 officers C. 2-4 officers D. 2-6 officers

B. 3-5 officers

When a decision is made to force entry into the hostage-taking suspect's position, what team typically consists of at least two officers? A. Reaction team B. SWAT team C. Hostage team D. Cover team

D. Cover team

Which practice is usually used, such as talking over a loud speaker, or calling the subject in order to occupy a hostage-taking suspect's attention, or divert it, to allow the approach team to take their positions without being observed? A. Non-lethal use of force B. Diversionary tactics C. Strategic plans D. Tactical operations

B. Diversionary tactics

During a building search for a barricaded suspect, as each room is secured, officers should proceed to other rooms until: A. The suspect is located B. The suspect is neutralized C. The suspect is captured D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Sgt. Kolbe was at a job fair with two of his officers, Statler and Ridgeway. It was held at a convention center in Dowdsville, which is another township close to three colleges. They were there to talk to participants about the Koch Township Police Department and how it could be a great career choice. Shortly before noon, the center was packed with people. Officer Statler hurried over to Sgt. Kolbe and said that there was a police emergency outside; state police had pursued several armed robbery suspects, who crashed into a chemical truck next to the convention center. They were still looking for the suspects, and the truck was on fire. Thick smoke was beginning to come into the building through the ventilation system. Local police officers providing security at the job fair were trying to evacuate the building. As people began rushing out the exits on the side of the building opposite the truck fire, there was the sound of gunshots. Some gunshot victims have exited and Sgt. Kolbe has just confirmed that there is an active shooter. In this situation, the most appropriate action for Sgt. Kolbe to take is which of the following? A. Ensure that he and the officers have cover and concealment at the exit. B. Notify dispatch and request the special weapons team respond. C. Request direction from a superior on the best course of action. D. Enter the building being evacuated and attempt to neutralize the active shooter.

D. Enter the building being evacuated and attempt to neutralize the active shooter.

When arresting a suspect who has been held-up in a building, the suspect should be ordered to: A. Drop his weapons B. Hold his hands above his head with fingers spread C. Move from the immediate scene toward the officers D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to the text, which of the following may take several forms such as mass civil unrest or a small assembly? A. Civil disorders B. Block parties C. Parades D. Meetings

A. Civil disorders

Who will usually direct the police effort to control an extensive civil disturbance? A. High-ranking police officials B. First officer on the scene C. First sergeant on the scene D. Field officer on the scene

A. High-ranking police officials

_______ should be established with headquarters to transmit information regarding the nature and extent of a riot incident and the mood of the rioters. A. Protocol B. Strategy C. Communications D. Policies and procedures

C. Communications

An individual is considered to have a disability if he or she has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. Which of the following is NOT one of the major life activities listed in the textbook? A. Caring for one's self B. Performing manual tasks C. Speaking D. Caring for a family member

D. Caring for a family member

A motor vehicle stop, like an investigative detention is based on: A . Probable Cause B. A Warrant C. Reasonable Suspicion D. A Subpoena Duces Tecum

C. Reasonable Suspicion

According to the U.S. Department of Labor, the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993 requires that eligible employees are entitled to leave for qualified medical and family reasons. Which of the following is NOT listed as a qualifying reason? A. The birth of a child, and to care for the newborn child within one year of birth B. The placement with the employee of a child for adoption or foster care C. Care for the employee's spouse, child, or parent who has a serious health condition D. The recuperation of an employee after cosmetic surgery

D. The recuperation of an employee after cosmetic surgery

The Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution ensures that people will be secure against unreasonable searches and seizures. The U.S. Constitution makes it clear that the gold standard for police searches is: A. Reasonable Articulable Suspicion B. Reasonableness C. A Warrant D. An Affidavit of Probable Cause

C. A Warrant

The amendment to the US Constitution protects individuals against unreasonable search and seizure. A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd D. 4th

D. 4th

For a person to be considered _____ a similarly situated person would not believe they were free to leave. A. A suspect B. In Custody C . A Person of Interest D. A Material Witness

B. In Custody

In regards to the Miranda warning, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? A. A routine traffic stop always requires Miranda Warnings B. A routine traffic stop never requires Miranda Warnings C. A routine traffic stop does not generally involve placing the driver "in custody for the purpose of requiring Miranda Warnings. D. A routine traffic stop is not one of the exceptions to the Miranda rule, as the driver is effectively under arrest for a short period of time.

C. A routine traffic stop does not generally involve placing the driver "in custody for the purpose of requiring Miranda Warnings.

The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that a search conducted pursuant to a valid consent is: A. Usually unlawful and will be overturned B. Constitutionally permissible C. Constitutionally impermissible D. Never a good idea, as the officer needs to get a warrant

B. Constitutionally permissible

The U.S. Supreme Court determined that an informant's and basis of knowledge are important to determining probable cause, and that those issues are intertwined. A. Intelligence; Reliability B. Gender; Reliability C. Name; Reliability D. Veracity; Reliability

D. Veracity; Reliability

An investigative detention is not an arrest; however, the courts have held that a _____ in these situations can and will convert the situation to a de facto arrest. A. Lack of Probable Cause B. Lack of Common Sense C. Lack of Brevity D. Lack of Morals

C. Lack of Brevity

In regards to the use of police K-9's, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? A. The U.S. Supreme Court made it clear that conducting a canine sniff of a residence or its curtilage is legally valid and officers do not need a warrant because the search is only on the outside of a person's home and does not violate the Fourth Amendment. B. The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that any use of a K-9 on a routine traffic stop is unconstitutional C. The Supreme Court of the United States has determined that an alert from a properly trained canine constitutes probable cause to search D. In order for the police to conduct a K-9 sniff around the outside of a lawfully stopped vehicle, they must have probable cause.

C. The Supreme Court of the United States has determined that an alert from a properly trained canine constitutes probable cause to search

Under the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA), an "eligible" employee may take up to workweeks of leave during any 12-month period A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12

D. 12

You adopt a child and 14 months later, you want to take FMLA because of the adoption. How many weeks are you entitled to? A. 12 workweeks B. 6 workweeks C. 10 workweeks D. None

D. None

John used 2 weeks of family medical leave to take care of his sick mother back in January. At the 4th of July celebration, John's son got into an accident and needs to be taken care of. How many weeks of leave is John entitled to? A. 10 workweeks B. 6 workweeks C. 12 workweeks D. None

A. Ten workweeks

In regards to police activity and the first amendment, which of the following is NOT correct? A. Arrest of a person who is recording officers in public shall be related to an objective, articulable violation of the law unrelated to the act of recording. B. Arrest of an individual provides an exception to the warrant requirement justifying search of the individual's recording equipment or media. C. The act of recording does not, in itself, provide grounds for detention or arrest, as this is a constitutionally protected First Amendment activity. D. While equipment may be seized incident to an arrest, downloading, viewing, or otherwise accessing files absent exigent circumstances usually requires a search warrant

B. Arrest of an individual provides an exception to the warrant requirement justifying search of the individual's recording equipment or media.

Persons who are lawfully in public spaces or locations where they have a legal right to be present-such as their home, place of business, the public way, or the common areas of public and private facilities and buildings-have a First Amendment right to record things in plain sight or hearing, to include police activity. Police Officers shall not threaten, intimidate, or otherwise discourage or interfere with the recording of police activities. However, the right to record is not absolute, and is subject to legitimate and reasonable legal restrictions. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Citizens who are recording may not engage in verbal criticism of officers, who are conducting an active investigation. B. Persons engaged in recording activities may not physically obstruct police actions. C. Recording should be conducted in a manner that does not unreasonably impede the movement of emergency equipment and personnel, or the flow of vehicular or pedestrian traffic. D. A reasonable distance must be maintained from the officers) engaged in enforcement or related police duties.

A. Citizens who are recording may not engage in verbal criticism of officers, who are conducting an active investigation.

A female stopped officers and reported to them that she had been raped. She further reported that the suspect ran to a local supermarket and was carrying a handgun. The police located the suspect who was wearing an empty shoulder holster. The police placed him under arrest and asked him where the gun was. The suspect pointed out the location of the gun. Which of the following is most accurate? A. The statement was obtained illegally and the weapon was suppressed. B. Miranda was not required, as this falls under the inevitable discovery doctrine. C. Miranda was required, however, the evidence was admitted under the silver platter doctrine. D. Miranda was not required under the public safety exception.

D. Miranda was not required under the public safety exception.

Narcotics task force officers develop probable cause to believe that a woman is selling heroin from her apartment. NTF officers go to the apartment and see the woman standing on the porch in front of the apartment. When the officers approach and identify themselves, she retreats into the apartment. The officers follow and arrest her in the apartment. A search incident to arrest reveals heroin in her pocket. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? A. Officers may follow a person who is fleeing into their home when they try to evade arrest. B. The officers should have left and obtained a search warrant. C. The home is specially protected by the 4th amendment to the constitution and entry into the home may not be made without a warrant. D. Officers may follow a person into their home but may not make an arrest.

A. Officers may follow a person who is fleeing into their home when they try to evade arrest.

A police officer may be called upon to use deadly force at some point in his/her career: When employing deadly force, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A. Officers may utilize deadly force, to stop the imminent threat of death to him/herself. B. Officers may utilize deadly force, to stop a felony suspect from causing an imminent threat of bodily injury to an innocent bystander C. Officers may utilize deadly force, to stop an individual from causing an imminent threat of serious bodily injury to a fellow officer D. officers may not use deadly force to stop a feeing, unarmed Burglary suspect

B. Officers may utilize deadly force, to stop a felony suspect from causing an imminent threat of bodily injury to an innocent bystander

You are assigned to give roll call training on the use of force. One of the officers asks if it is permissible to use deadly force to stop an escaping felon who has just broken into a home at night and is running away. The officer states that it is his understanding that deadly force may be used against an escaping felon if the escape might succeed. You tell her: A. The use of deadly force is appropriate if the person has committed a crime and the escape might succeed. B. The use of deadly force is appropriate if the person is armed. C. The use of deadly force is appropriate if there is an imminent threat to life or serious bodily harm to the officer or another person. D. The use of deadly force is appropriate to prevent an escape.

C. The use of deadly force is appropriate if there is an imminent threat to life or serious bodily harm to the officer or another person.

What is permissible regarding the scope of a search incident to a lawful arrest, as described in Chimel v. California? A. The arrestee's person and any potential hiding places in a residence. B. The area within the arrestee's immediate reach C. The arrestee's entire house, when serving a lawful arrest warrant D. The arrestee's vehicle to include the trunk

B. The area within the arrestee's immediate reach

At roll call, questions are being asked about the US Supreme Court case Illinois v. Caballes." One of the officers asks the following question: If a motorist is pulled over for a routine lawful traffic stop, are the police allowed to have a police canine sniff around the motorist's vehicle? The BEST response is: A. Yes. The US Supreme Court ruled that the US Constitution does not protect motorists' vehicles from the "nosy" inquiries of drug sniffing dogs during routine traffic stops. B. Yes, but only if they have probable cause. C. Yes, but only if they have reasonable suspicion. D. No, the US Supreme Court ruled that the US Constitution protects motorists' vehicles from the "nosy" inquiries of drug sniffing dogs during routine traffic stops.

A. Yes. The US Supreme Court ruled that the US Constitution does not protect motorists' vehicles from the "nosy" inquiries of drug sniffing dogs during routine traffic stops.

Mr. Shard was the victim of a robbery. Later two persons were arrested after being in possession of some of Mr. Shard's property. Mr. Shard was contacted and requested to come to the station for a show-up identification. He identified the two suspects who were later indicted. The suspects were not offered nor did they request counsel for the show-up. Prior to indictment or formal charging, are suspects entitled to counsel during a show-up? A. Yes, this is a critical stage in the criminal justice process B. Yes, the show-up was improperly conducted C. No, the suspects were not entitled to counsel D. No, they must request counsel

C. No, the suspects were not entitled to counsel

In regards to the American Disabilities Act, the employer is obligated to provide which of the following to the "known" disabilities of an otherwise qualified individual with a disability? A. A reasonable balance B. A reasonable assignment C. A reasonable accommodation D. A higher-level assignment

C. A reasonable accommodation

Which of the following is INCORRECT in regards to The Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act (LEOSA)? A. A state law may not restrict the carrying of concealed firearms on private property. B. The Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act is a U.S. Federal Law allowing qualified active and retired law enforcement officers to carry concealed firearms, C. The law requires that the individual must carry photographic identification issued by the governmental agency for which the individual is or was employed by. D. Retired officers who carry concealed firearms must qualify according to certain qualification standards.

A. A state law may not restrict the carrying of concealed firearms on private property.

The leading cause of line of duty deaths for law enforcement officers in the United States is which of the following? A. Firearms B. Motor vehicle related incidents C. Suicide D. Cardiovascular related incidents

B. Motor vehicle related incidents

Effective supervisors and managers find ways to address the Ferguson effect. Which of the following are some things that are recommended for supervisors and managers to do? A. Give praise for positive performance. B. Hold officers accountable for reasonable productivity. C. Assign rookie officers to ride with more senior officers D. Let your subordinates know what you expect. E. Suggest to the chief of police that he lead by example. A. I, II, IV, but not Ill and V B. II, IV, but not I, Ill and V C. I, IV, but not II, III and V D. 1, II, III, IV, but not V

A. I, II, IV, but not Ill and V

Law enforcement supervisors play a critical role in ensuring that proper safety practices are understood and followed. Which of the following actions are appropriate for supervisors to take? A. Closely monitor the driving habits of subordinates B. Commend those officers who do all the right things C. Conduct spot checks of GPS data to evaluate an officers daily driving behavior D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Monitoring officers in high-risk situations is an essential part of all first-line supervisors' duties. When supervisors observe their officers performing in these high-risk situations, it presents an excellent opportunity for which of the following? A. Documenting negative performance B. Initiating negative discipline for rule violations C. Coaching D. Planning and organizing

C. Coaching

Officers Martinez and Brown have responded to a call of an individual behaving erratically. The person appears to be confused, and is walking in and out of traffic. When responding to these types of calls, which of the following should be done first? A. The person should be placed in restraints as quickly as possible B. The incident should be documented in a report. C. A crisis counselor should be requested to respond. D. An initial assessment should be conducted.

D. An initial assessment should be conducted.

When responding to calls for service involving individuals with behavioral health problems, who may be a danger to others, the Chicago Police Department recommends which of the following? A. A zone of safety should be established. B. A zone of silence should be established C. A zone of concern should be established D. A zone of communication should be established

A. A zone of safety should be established.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regards to officer involved domestic violence? A. It is a national problem B. Police officer families have lower rates of domestic violence than non-police officer families C. The IACP has developed a model policy for officer involved domestic violence D. Many victims of officer involved domestic violence may not report the abuse

B. Police officer families have lower rates of domestic violence than non-police officer families

The IACP model policy on officer involved domestic violence states that a supervisor of higher rank shall always report to the scene of all police officer domestic violence incidents involving a police officer, regardless of the involved officer's jurisdiction. When a supervisor responds to the scene of a domestic violence incident, he or she shall do which of the following? I. Regardless of whether probable cause exists, the on-scene supervisor shall ensure an arrest is made. II. Ensure the responding officers obtain needed medical assistance, and address the immediate safety of all parties involved III. In the event that the victim has left the scene, the supervisor shall order that no report be taken IV. Forward a copy of the report alleging domestic violence by the officer to the chief through the chain of command V. Assume command and ensure that the crime scene is secured, and that all evidence is collected A. 1, II, V, but not Il and IV B. II, III, IV, but not I and V C. II, V, but not I, III and IV D . II, IV, V, but not I and III

D . II, IV, V, but not I and III

When the number of traffic stops, car searches, and arrests significantly decline, and the police become more reactive and less proactive, which of the following is typically cited? A. The Hawthorne Effect B. The Kiss My Ass (KMA) Effect C. The Laziness Effect D. The Ferguson Effect

D. The Ferguson Effect

The American Management Association offers tips on how to better manage unhealthy conflict. Step 1 is to "identify the source of the conflict." Which of the following is stated as the next step? A. Request solution B. Identify solutions both disputants can support C. Look beyond the incident? D. Agreement

C. Look beyond the incident?

Sergeant Johnson has identified an unhealthy conflict between two officers on her squad. She has gathered up the facts and is now ready to address the conflict. In this situation, which of the following should she do first? A. Ask for guidance and direction from her superior B. Meet with each officer individually to get each person's perspective C. Meet with both officers together to get their perspectives and settle the conflict. D. Order the officers to resolve the conflict between themselves.

B. Meet with each officer individually to get each person's perspective

Sgt. Arroyo has identified a conflict between two officers on his robbery reduction team. Each officer has a strong personality and have different suggestions for reducing robberies. Sgt. Arroyo has analyzed the situation and has determined the differences are not unhealthy and need to be managed proactively. In deciding his level of involvement in this conflict, Sgt. Arroyo should first: A. Consider transferring one of the officers B. Give serious though to partnering up both officers C. Request solutions from each officer as to how they can resolve their conflict D. Decide if he needs to get involved

D. Decide if he needs to get involved

Which of the following is NOT CORRECT in regards to law enforcement dealing with the media? A. How a law enforcement agency responds and deals with the media is very important, especially within the first 24 hours of a critical incident B. Public perception is very important; therefore, it is best to plan out your response before meeting with the media C. Traditional news media is the police supervisors' most effective method of reaching and communicating with the public D. The five Ws and H is a proven technique that supervisors have used when dealing with the media

C. Traditional news media is the police supervisors' most effective method of reaching and communicating with the public

When law enforcement supervisors deal with the media, the information contained in the five Ws is essentially which of the following? A. A procedure that should always be followed without deviation B. A policy that should be followed C. A list of all of the facts of the incident in chronological order D. A summary of the key points of the incident that are appropriate for release

D. A summary of the key points of the incident that are appropriate for release

The chief has directed you to conduct a news release briefing regarding an incident that recently occurred in your town. In preparing for your interview with the reporter, you decide to use the Double-Nickel approach. What approach have you decided to use? A. Writing down 5 questions you want the reporter to ask, and provide them to the reporter upon their arrival. B. Writing down 5 questions you want the reporter to avoid, and provide them to the reporter upon their arrival. C. Writing down 10 questions you hope the reporter will ask and write brief answers for all 10. D. Write down 5 questions you hope the reporter will ask, and 5 questions you hope won't be asked, and write down brief answers to all 10.

D. Write down 5 questions you hope the reporter will ask, and 5 questions you hope won't be asked, and write down brief answers to all 10.

The key to having a successful meeting is which of the following? A. To have a specific and defined purpose B. To engage in a general discussion and then solve problems C. To make final decisions on all matters discussed D. To deal with at least 50%-75% of all items placed on the agenda

A. To have a specific and defined purpose

It's generally accepted that of the time spent in a meeting, ____ is often wasted A. 10 % B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%

C. 50%

Prior to the meeting, ensure you log the meeting on your schedule and that it reflects the meeting time, date, location, and number of attendees. You should also: A. Prepare a detailed meeting agenda in advance B. Ensure that your secretary knows not to disturb you for any reason C. Instruct all meeting attendees not to bring in any smart devices D. Plan in advance to extend the meeting time at least an hour or so.

A. Prepare a detailed meeting agenda in advance

To increase your chances of having an effective and productive meeting, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. Welcome the attendees, and open the meeting by reviewing the ground rules and agenda items. B. Stay focused on the meeting agenda topics. C. Save the most important issues for the end D. Be flexible, but keep the small talk to a minimum.

C. Save the most important issues for the end

Which of the following is INCORRECT in regards to effective time management? A. It is paramount that supervisors and managers control their time, so that they may perform their duties and responsibilities in an efficient an effective manner. B. Time management involves a planned conscious effort to increase daily effectiveness and productivity. C. As a supervisor or manager, you are not only responsible for managing your own time, but also ensuring that your subordinates utilize their time effectively. D. To manage time efficiently and keep pace, supervisors and managers must first and foremost identify the primary time-wasters that they routinely engage in and then analyze how they use their time

D. To manage time efficiently and keep pace, supervisors and managers must first and foremost identify the primary time-wasters that they routinely engage in and then analyze how they use their time

Which of the following is ACCURATE / INACCURATE in regards to better managing your time? I. During the course of the day, you must initially establish your most important priorities and address them throughout the work day. II. Using a "to-do" list also helps in getting more issues addressed in the shortest period of time. III. Scheduling or blocking out time for tasks is another useful method of staying on track. IV. Doing more things yourself will save you time. V. After detecting time-wasters, supervisors and managers must take the necessary steps to avoid or eliminate them. A. I, II, Ill are accurate; IV and V are inaccurate B. II, Ill, V are accurate; I and IV are inaccurate C. II, III, IV are accurate; 1 and V are inaccurate D. I, II, III, IV are accurate; V is inaccurate

B. II, Ill, V are accurate; I and IV are inaccurate

Over the years, there have been countless theories on what steps are needed to effectively implement change. Some have been simple, and others more complex. The common thread among them is that a true organizational leader or agent of change must first do which of the following? A. comprehensively prepare for any expected change. B. seriously question their leaders on the need for change C. examine what other departments are doing D. check to ensure that CALEA standards are followed

A. comprehensively prepare for any expected change.

The astute transformational leader must be cognizant of the challenges and be able to explain the importance of promoting the need for change. Developing a plan is one of the prerequisites. The plan should encompass informing all employees about the upcoming change, as well as the selling and implementing of the change. In addition, everyone in a leadership position must fully understand the reason for the change and be fully committed to it. They should also be able to effectively communicate the "need" for the change, and how it will benefit the employees, the community, and the department. In most instances, which of the following management approaches allow those affected by the change to become part of the change process? A. Autocratic B. Direct C. Participative D. Situational

C. Participative

People fear the unknown, and how they will react to the uncertainties that change inevitably brings. Resistance to change is very subjective, in that people have very different threshold levels for change. While you won't be able to eliminate your team's resistance to a particular change, you can make it easier. The best approach is to involve your team in the change. The steps recommended to involve your team include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Approach the most resistant people from the start, and try to get them to understand your position. B. Invite feedback on how the change can be put into effect within your group or department. C. If you don't personally agree with the changes, let your subordinates know that, and that you are simply following orders. D. Have a clear message as to why the change is happening and explain the change clearly.

C. If you don't personally agree with the changes, let your subordinates know that, and that you are simply following orders.

A key component in reducing fear of change amongst your subordinates is which of the following? A. Creating opportunities for personnel to vent, discuss, or speak openly about the change. B. Creating opportunities for personal growth and development of your subordinates C. Letting your subordinates know you're with them in their concerns, and that you don't like the change either D. Letting your subordinates know that if they do not adhere to the changes, that discipline will follow

A. Creating opportunities for personnel to vent, discuss, or speak openly about the change.

Supervision Of Police Personnel Flashcards

(423 cards)