L12: Nutrition Flashcards

(204 cards)

1
Q

Nutrition is a basic component of health and is essential for (4):

A

1) normal growth and development
2) tissue repair and maintenance
3) cellular metabolism
4) organ function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is food security?

A

Access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to maintain a healthy lifestyle. Having sufficient food available on a consistent basis and the resources to obtain appropriate food for a nutritious diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is MNT?

A

Medical Nutrition Therapy - uses nutrition therapy and counseling to manage diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is BMR?

A

Basal Metabolic Rate - energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific amount of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is REE?

A

Resting Energy Expenditure - amount of energy needed to consume over 24-hour period for the body to maintain internal working activities while at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what affects energy requirements(9)?

A

1) age
2) body mass
3) gender
4) starvation
5) menstruation
6) illness or injury
7) infection
8) activity level
9) thyroid function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what factors influences metabolism(4)?

A

1) illness
2) pregnancy
3) lactation
4) activity level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is nutrient density of food?

A

the proportion of essential nutrients to the number of kcals

  • high-nutrient-dense foods provide large amounts of nutrients in relation to the number of kcals (fruits and vegies)
  • low-nutrient-dense foods are high in kcals and low in nutes (sugar and alcohol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe carbohydrates

A
  • saccharides (simple or complex)
  • main source of energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how much energy does carbohydrates provide?

A

4kcal/gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are monosaccharides?

A

simple carbohydrates - cannot be broken down further
(e.g. glucose (dextrose) and fructose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are disaccharides?

A

simple carbohydrates - composed of 2 monosaccharides and water
(e.g. sucrose, lactose, maltose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are polysaccharides?

A

complex carbohydrates - chains of carbs
(e.g. glycogen, starches)

  • some poly saccharides cannot be broken down in the body because we dont have the enzymes necessary; those do not contribute to kcals
    (e.g. fiber)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the difference between soluble and insoluble fiber?

A

soluble - is soluble in water and can be broken down in our body
(e.g. barley, cereal grains, cornmeal, oats)

insoluble - cannot be broken down and does not contribute to calories in our diet
(e.g. cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe proteins

A

provide a source of energy and are essential for growth, maintenance, and body repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how much energy is in proteins?

A

4 kcal/gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some things in the body made of protein?

A

1) collagen
2) hormones
3) DNA
4) RNA
5) Enzymes
6) Immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what processes in the body rely on proteins?

A

1) blood clotting
2) fluid regulation
3) acid-base balance
4) transportation of nutrients and drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is an amino acid?

A

the simplest form of protein made up of oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are indispensable (essential) amino acids?

A

amino acids that the body does not synthesize (we need to ingest them in our diet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are dispensable amino acids?

A

amino acids that our bodies synthesize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a complete protein?

A

aka high quality protein - contains all essential amino acids to support growth and maintain nitrogen balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is nitrogen balance?

A

intake and output of nitrogen are equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is positive nitrogen balance?
necessary for?

A

when intake of nitrogen is greater than output

1) growth
2) normal pregnancy
3) maintenance of lean muscle mass and vital organs
4) wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is negative nitrogen balance?
When the body loses more nitrogen than it gains Occurs due to body tissue destruction or loss of nitrogen-containing body fluids. (e.g., with infection, burns, fever, starvation, head injury, and trauma)
26
what are lipids?
fats - the most calorie-dense nutrient
27
how much energy does lipids provide?
9 kcals/gram
28
what are fats composed of?
triglycerides and fatty acids
29
what are triglycerides?
molecules that circulate the blood - composed of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol
30
what are fatty acids?
chains of hydrogen and carbon atoms with an acid group on one end of the chain and a methyl group at the other
31
what are the 2 types of fatty acids?
**saturated** - each carbon in the chain has two attached hydrogen atoms **unsaturated** - unequal number of hydrogen atoms are attached and the carbon atoms attach to each other with a double bond
32
What are the types of unsaturated fatty acids?
**monounsaturated** - have one double bond **polyunsaturated** - have two or more double carbon bonds
33
when does deficiency occur with fat intake?
when it falls below 10% of daily nutrition
34
why is water critical?
all cellular function depends on a watery environment
35
what percentage of total body weight is made up of water?
60-70%
36
who has the greatest percentage of total body water and who has the least?
**infants** = greatest percentage of total body water **older people** = least percentage of total body water
37
describe fluid intake and output in healthy individuals
fluid intake from all sources = fluid output through elimination, respiration, and sweating
38
what are some situations that lead to intake/output that is not ideal?
people with fever or diarrhea need more water intake people with cardiopulmonary or renal disease have a reduced ability to excrete water
39
what are vitamins?
organic substances present in small amounts in foods that are essential to normal metabolism act as catalysts in biochemical reactions
40
what are antioxidants?
vitamins that neutralize free radicals which produce oxidative damage and increase risk of cancers
41
what are some antioxidative vitamins(4)?
1) beta-carotene 2) vitamin A 3) vitamin C 4) vitamin E
42
in what foods are vitamin content highest?
fresh foods with minimal exposure to heat, air, or water prior to their consumption
43
what are fat soluble vitamins?
vitamins that are stored in fatty compartments of the body
44
what are some examples of fat soluble vitamins?
1) vitamin A 2) vitamin D 3) vitamin E 4) vitamin K
45
Where are fat soluble vitamins stored?
stored in the fatty compartments of the body.
46
what are water-soluble vitamins?
vitamin C and the B complex (which is eight vitamins)
47
Where are water soluble vitamins stored?
Water-soluble vitamins absorb easily from the GI tract. Although they are **not stored**, toxicity can still occur
48
what is hypervitaminosis?
a condition that occurs when there are abnormally high levels of fat soluble vitamins stored in the body
49
how can hypervitaminosis occur(3)?
1) mega-doses supplemental vitamins 2) excessive amounts of fortified food 3) excessive intake of fish oils
50
what are minerals?
inorganic elements essential to the body as catalysts in biomechanical reactions
51
how are minerals classified?
**Macro minerals** - daily requirement is 100 mg or more **Trace minerals** - less than 100 mg is needed daily
52
what are some examples of macro minerals(6)?
1) calcium 2) phosphorous 3) magnesium 4) sodium 5) potassium 6) chloride
53
what are examples of trace minerals(5)?
1) iron 2) copper 3) iodine 4) zinc 5) flouride
54
what do macro minerals do(2)?
1) balance pH 2) promote acid-base balance
55
enzymes...(3)
* proteinlike substances that act as catalysts to speed up chemical reactions * most have one specific function * function optimally in specific pH
56
what is digestion?
mechanical breakdown (chewing, churning, mixing with fluid) and chemical reactions that reduce food to its simplest form
57
why does enzyme activity rely on mechanical breakdown of food?
it increases the surface area for chemical action
58
what do hormones have to do with digestion?
regulate flow of digestive secretions
59
what factors regulate the secretion of digestive juices and motility of the GI tract?
1) physical factors 2) chemicals 3) hormones
60
what does nerve stimulation via parasympathetic nervous system (vagus nerve) do to digestion?
increases GI tract action
61
what is salivary amylase?
an enzyme that acts on cooked starch to begin its conversion to maltose.
62
what do chief cells in the stomach secrete?
**pepsinogen** - a protein-digesting enzyme produced in the stomach that is converted into pepsin by stomach acid
63
what do pyloric glands secrete?
**gastrin** - a hormone that triggers parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl)
64
what do parietal cells secrete(2)?
* **hydrochloric acid** - stomach acid * **intrinsic factor** - necessary for the absorption of vitamin b12 in the ilium
65
what does HCl do to pepsinogen?
converts it into **pepsin**, a protein-splitting enzyme
66
what is gastric lipase and amylase?
enzymes that help digest fat and starch
67
where are alcohol and asprin absorbed?
directly through the lining of the stomach
68
how long does food remain in the stomach?
approx. 3 hours (with a range of 1-7hours)
69
what is chyme?
a mixture of liquified food and acid that moves from the stomach into the duodenum.
70
where is bile made and stored?
made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder
71
what does bile do?
acts as a detergent because it emulsifies fats
72
Pancreatic secretions contain six enzymes:
amylase - digest starch lipase - to break down emulsified fats trypsin - break down proteins elastase - break down proteins chymotrypsin - break down proteins carboxypeptidase - break down proteins
73
what happens to the pH of chyme as it progresses through the small intestine?
it becomes increasingly alkaline inhibiting the action of gastric enzymes and promoting action of duodenal secretions
74
what are enzymes secreted by epithelial cells in the small intestine(5)?
1) sucrase 2) lactase 3) maltase 4) lipase 5) peptidase
75
how long does it take peristalsis to move chyme through the small intestine?
about 5 hours
76
what are villi?
finger-like cells in the small intestine that are the primary absorption site for nutrients (their structure increases surface area for absorption)
77
how are carbs, proteins, minerals, and water-soluble vitamins absorbed?
1) absorbed in the small intestine 2) processed in the liver 3) released into circulation through the portal vein
78
how are fatty acids absorbed?
in the lymphatic circulatory systems through the lacteal ducts at the center of each microvilli in the small intestine
79
what percentage of water is absorbed in the small intestine?
85-90%
80
the body absorbs nutrients via(4):
1) passive diffusion 2) osmosis 3) active transport 4) pinocytosis
81
digestion of what occurs in the small intestine(4)?
1) carbs 2) proteins 3) minerals 4) water soluble vitamins
82
How much GI secretions and oral intake does the GI tract manage daily?
The GI tract manages approximately 8.5 L of GI secretions and 1.5 L of oral intake daily. The small intestine resorbs 9.5 L daily. The colon absorbs approximately 0.4 L daily. The remaining 0.1 L is eliminated via feces.
83
Electrolytes and minerals are absorbed in the ______.
colon
84
What vitamins do bacteria synthesize in the GI tract?
Bacteria synthesize vitamin K and some B-complex vitamins.
85
what are the two processes of metabolism?
metabolism - All biochemical reactions within the cells of the body anabolism - building catabolism - breaking down
86
anabolism
building of more complex biochemical structures by synthesis of nutrients (physiologically possible when body is in positive nitrogen balance)
87
catabolism
breakdown of biochemical substances into simpler substances (occurs during a state of negative nitrogen balance)
88
What is required for normal metabolism and anabolism?
Normal metabolism and anabolism are physiologically possible when the body is in positive nitrogen balance.
89
What occurs during starvation?
Starvation is an example of catabolism when wasting of body tissues occurs.
90
What is required for normal metabolism and anabolism?
Normal metabolism and anabolism are physiologically possible when the body is in positive nitrogen balance.
91
What type of energy is involved in muscle contraction?
Mechanical energy.
92
What type of energy is involved in heat production?
thermal energy
93
What type of energy is involved in nervous system function?
Electrical energy.
94
when does chyme become feces?
once it passes through the ileocecal vale between the small intestine and colon
95
what happens to water as feces moves toward the rectum?
water absorbs in the mucosa causing feces to become more firm
96
what does exercise and fiber do to peristalsis?
stimulates peristalsis
97
what does feces contain(5)?
1) cellulose and other indigestible substances 2) sloughed epithelial cells from the GI tract 3) digestive secretions 4) water 5) microbes
98
What are DRIs and what are the four components?
dietary reference intakes 1) EAR (estimated average requirement 2) RDA (recommended dietary allowance) 3) AI (adequate intake 4) UL (tolerable upper intake level)
99
what is EAR?
**estimated average requirement** - amount of nutrients that appears sufficient to maintain a specific body function for 50% of the population based on age and gender
100
what is RDA?
**recommended dietary allowance** - the average needs of 98% of the population (not the exact needs of an individual)
101
what is AI?
**adequate intake** - suggested intake for individuals based on observed or experimentally determined estimates of nutrient intakes used when not enough evidence to set RDA
102
what is UL?
**tolerable upper intake level** - highest level that poses no risk of adverse health events
103
what are the five food groups?
1) grains 2) vegetables 3) fruits 4) dairy products 5) meats
104
The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) published the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010. **What age are the dietary guidelines meant for?**
older than 2 years
105
choosemyplate provides basic guidelines for:
1) balancing calories 2) decreasing portion size 3) increasing healthy foods 4) increasing water consumption 5) decreasing fats, sodium, and sugar
106
what are the two sets of reference values the FDA established for daily values on food labels?
1) RDIs (referenced daily intakes) - for proteins, vitamins, and minerals based on RDA 2) DRVs (daily reference values) - consist of nutrients (total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, carbs, fiber, sodium, and potassium)
107
what are daily values based on?
percentages of a diet based on a 2,000 kcal/day for adults and children 4 years +
108
. A 22-year-old new mother is breastfeeding. You ask her if she is taking the correct quantities of nutrients. Which statement reflects that she understands the dietary guidelines? A. “I am not concerned with what I am eating.” B. “I am taking vitamin doses based on TV.” C. “I am taking a daily MVI.” D. “I am making eating choices according to the recommended dietary allowances.”
D
109
what factors are associated with eating and drinking in all societies(4)?
1) sociological 2) cultural 3) psychological 4) emotional
110
what are the factors that nutrition requirements depend on(5)?
1) developmental stage 2) body composition 3) activity levels 4) pregnancy and lactation 5) presence of disease
111
why do environmental factors beyond the control of individuals contribute to the development of obesity?
environmental factors can limit a persons likelihood of healthy eating and participation in exercise or other activities of healthy living
112
what are environmental factors that contribute to obesity?
1) lack of access to good grocery stores 2) high cost of healthy food 3) more access to unhealthy foods (fastfood or restaurants) 4) lots of advertisement for less healthy food 5) poor access to safe places to play or exercise
113
what developmental stage is characterized by rapid growth and a high need of protein?
infants
114
how long is breastfeeding recommended and what are the benefits(3)?
recommended for the first 6 months of life Benefits: 1) reduced food allergies and intolerances 2) easier digestion 3) fewer infant infections
115
what sources does formula get its protein from(5)?
1) whey 2) soy 3) cow's milk 4) casein hydrolysate 5) elemental amino acids
116
why should infants not consume cow's milk during the first year of life?
* too concentrated for the kidneys * poor source of iron, vitamin C and vitamin E
117
how should solid foods be introduced to toddlers?
one at a time 4-7 days apart to identify food allergies; they begin exhibiting food preferences
118
how much milk do toddlers consume per day?
24 ounces/day
119
why do toddlers sometimes develop milk anemia?
because milk is a poor source of iron
120
what occurs with growth and energy requirements of school aged children (6-12 yo)?
they grow at a slower rate with a gradual decline in energy requirements per unit of body weight
121
in children 6-12 years of age its important to assess diets for...
adequate protein and vitamins A and C
122
what age is more important than chronological age to use for estimating nutritional needs?
physiological age
123
describe growth and energy needs for adolescents
increased energy needs due to higher metabolic growth demands * Protein increase needed * calcium and continuous iron important for females * vitamin B-complex assists metabolic activity
124
pregnancy within 4 years of menarche...
places mother and fetus at risk because of anatomical and physiological immaturity
125
the onset of eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa often occurs when?
adolescence
126
factors other than nutritional needs that influence diet in adolescence(5):
1) body image and appearance 2) desire for independence 3) eating fast-food 4) peer-pressure 5) fad diets
127
describe the growth and energy requirements for young and middle aged adults
growth slows and energy required only for maintenance and repair
128
how many additional calories are needed during lactation?
an additional 500 above usual allowance with a higher need for protein
129
what does poor nutrition during pregnancy cause?
low birth weight in infants and decreases chances of survival
130
why is folic acid particularly important?
needed for DNA synthesis and the growth of RBCs
131
what can insufficient folic acid in pregnancy cause(3)?
1) fetal neural tube defects 2) anencephaly 3) maternal megaloblastic anemia
132
what are the energy requirements for adults 65 and older?
decreased need for energy due to slowed metabolic rate
133
what are age related changes that affect nutrition?
1) appetite 2) taste 3) smell 4) digestive system changes 5) fixed incomes 6) oral issues
134
what do zen microbiotic diets consist of?
brown rice and other grains and herbal teas
135
vegans lack complete proteins in single foods. how can they get sufficient protein?
by using complementary proteins from two or more foods
136
why are vegans at risk for what deficiency?
protein and vitamin b12, because it is only available from animal sources
137
whats wrong with zen microbiotic and fruitarian diets?
they lack sufficient nutes and carry a risk of malnutrition
138
when dealing with nutrition, sources of professional standards are:
1) DRIs 2) USDA myplate dietary guidelines 3) healthy people 2020 4) american heart association 5) american diabetes association 6) american cancer society 7) american society for parenteral and enteral nutrition
139
what is SGA?
subjective global assessment - uses **patient history + weight + physical assessment** data to evaluate nutritional status * this technique is inexpensive * can predict nutrition related complication
140
what is **anthropometry**?
a measurement system of the size and makeup of the body
141
what is **IBW**?
ideal body weight - an estimate of what a person should weigh
142
what is **BMI**?
Body mass index - measures weight corrected for height and serves as an alternative to traditional height-weight relationships
143
how many mL is one pint?
575 mL
144
how many pounds/kg is i pint (500mL) of fluid?
1 lb/ 0.45 kg
145
how do you calculate BMI?
weight(kgs)/height(meters) squared
146
what are factors that alter the diagnostic test results for malnutrition(4)?
1) fluid balance 2) liver function 3) kidney function 4) presence of disease
147
Common laboratory tests used to study nutritional status include measures of:
plasma proteins such as albumin, transferrin, prealbumin, retinol binding protein, total iron-binding capacity, and hemoglobin.
148
what can be calculated to determine **serum protein status**?
nitrogen balance
149
how do you calculate **nitrogen balance**?
6.25/total grams of protein ingested in 24 hour period
150
what are **factors that influence serum albumin levels**(5)?
1) hydration 2) renal or hepatic disease 3) large amounts of drainage from wounds, drains, burns, or the GI tract 4) steroid administration 5) exogenous albumin
151
what is involved in an assessment of a patient's **dietary health history**(10)?
1) health status 2) age 3) cultural background 4) personal and religious food preferences/patterns 5) socioeconomic status 6) psychological factors 7) use of alcohol or other substances 8) use of supplements 9) prescription or OTC drug use 10) general nutrition knowledge
152
what is dysphagia?
difficulty swallowing
153
what are the **signs of dysphagia**(8)?
1) coughing during eating 2) change in tone of voice after swallowing 3) abnormal movements of the mouth, tongue, or lips 4) slow, weak, or uncoordinated speech 5) abnormal gagging 6) delayed swallowing 7) pocketing, regurgitation, pharyngeal pooling 8) inability to speak
154
what does dysphagia often lead to?
inadequate food intake which leads to malnutrition
155
how does heart failure influence food intake(6)?
patients with heart failure experience: 1) decreased hunger 2) dietary restrictions 3) fatigue 4) shortness of breath 5) anxiety 6) sadness
156
who should you consult when dealing with a patient with dysphagia(4)?
1) SLP 2) RD 3) pharmacist 4) speech therapist
157
what is involved with **health promotion** associated with nutrition(5)?
1) education 2) early detection of potential or actual problems 3) meal planning 4) weight loss plans 5) food safety
158
Patients with decreased immune function (e.g., from cancer, chemotherapy, human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome [HIV/AIDS], or organ transplants) require special diets that _________.
decrease exposure to microorganisms and are higher in selected nutrients.
159
what is the preferred method of nutrition delivery for those who cant swallow but have a functioning GI tract?
EN - enteral nutrition
160
what type of formula is **polymeric**?
milk-based and blenderized **pt GI tract needs to be able to absorb whole nutrient**
161
what type of formula is **modular**?
single-macronutrient (proteins, glucose, lipids, polymers, or lipids) formula that are added to other foods to meet pt needs
162
what type of formula is **elemental formula**?
predigested nutrients, easier for partially dysfunctional GI tracts to absorb
163
what type of formula are **specialty formulas**?
formulas designed to meet specific nutritional needs in certain illnesses
164
what are some examples of EN formulas?
osmolite and jevity
165
how do you make sure a patient can tolerate an EN formula?
start at slow rates and increase every 8-12 hours
166
if EN will be provided for less than 4 weeks, what is the preferred method?
NG tube
167
what form of EN is preferred for long term use?
surgically (gastrostomy or jejunostomy), or endoscopically (percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy or jejunostomy) placed tubes.
168
what is a serious complication associated with enteral feeding?
aspiration of formula into the tracheobronchial tree, which leads to infection.
169
what is medical nutrition therapy **MNT**?
medical nutrition therapy - specific nutritional therapy used to treat illness or injury
170
what is **MNT** necessary for(3)?
1) metabolizing certain nutrient 2) correcting nutritional deficiencies 3) eliminating foods that worsen disease states
171
MNT is most effective with a team approach that promotes collaboration between..
the healthcare team and RD
172
how are peptic ulcers controlled?
1) regular meals 2) medications such as h2 receptor antagonists or PPIs
173
what is helicobacter pylori?
a bacterium that causes up to 85% of peptic ulcers
174
how are helicobacter pylori infections detected?
confirmed using lab tests or a biopsy during endoscopy
175
what types of foods should people with peptic ulcers **avoid**(5)?
foods that increase stomach acidity and pain such as: 1) caffeine 2) decaffeinated coffee 3) frequent milk intake 4) citric acid juices 5) certain seasonings (hot chili peppers, chili powder, black pepper)
176
beside food, what else should people with peptic ulcers **avoid**(5)?
1) smoking 2) alcohol 3) asprin 4) NSAIDs 5) large meals (eat 3 small meals or regular small meals
177
what are some examples of inflammatory bowel diseases?
Crohn's disease and idiopathic ulcerative colitis
178
what does treatment of **acute inflammatory bowel disease** include?
1) elemental diets (formula with nutrients in their simplest form ready for absorption) 2) PN when symptoms like diarrhea or weight loss are prevalent
179
what kind of diet is needed for people with **chronic inflammatory bowel disease**(2)?
1) a regular high-nourishing diet 2) vitamins and iron supplements often needed to correct or prevent anemia
180
how do people manage **irritable bowel syndrome**(4)?
1) increase fiber 2) reduce fat 3) avoid large meals 4) avoid lactose or sorbitol-containing foods (if intolerant)
181
treatments of malabsorption syndromes such as celiac disease includes:
gluten-free diet
182
what foods is gluten present in(4)?
1) wheat 2) rye 3) barley 4) oats
183
what is short-bowel syndrome?
extensive resection of bowel that causes patients to suffer malabsorption due to lack of intestinal surface area * patients require lifetime feeding with either elemental enteral formulas or PN
184
what is diverticulitis?
Inflammation of the diverticula, which are abnormal but common pouch-like herniations that occur in the bowel lining
185
what is the nutritional treatments for diverticulitis(2)?
1) moderate or low-residue diet until infection subsides 2) high-fiber diet for chronic diverticula problems
186
what is the difference between treatments for type one and type two diabetes?
**type 1** - requires both insulin and dietary restrictions for optimal control **type 2** - patients control type 2 with diet and exercise initially. if ineffective, oral medication is added. if these measures are still insufficient, insulin injections are necessary
187
for type 2 diabetes, the ADA recommends a diet that includes carbohydrates from:
1) fruits 2) vegetables 3) whole grains 4) legumes 5) low-fat milk
188
what is the recommended cholesterol/saturated fat/protein intake for type 2 diabetics?
**saturated fat** - less than 7% **cholesterol** - less than 200mg/dL **protein** - 15 - 20% of diet
189
what are the goals of MNT treatment in diabetics(3)?
1) maintain blood glucose levels that are normal or as close as possible 2) lipid and lipoprotein profiles that decrease the risk of microvascular, cardiovascular, neurological, and peripheral vascular complications 3) BP in normal range
190
what is the goal of the american heart association dietary guidelines?
reduce risk factors for the development of hypertension and coronary artery disease (CAD).
191
diet therapy for reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease include:
1) balancing calorie intake with exercise to maintain a healthy body weight 2) eating diet high in fruits, vegetables, and whole-grain high-fiber foods 3) eating fish 2 times per week 4) limiting food and beverages high in added sugar and salt
192
AHA saturated fat/trans fat/cholesterol recommendations:
**saturated fat** - less than 7% **trans fat** - less than 1% **cholesterol** - less than 300mg/day
193
how does the AHA recommend accomplishing the saturated fat/trans fat/cholesterol intake goal(3)?
1) lean meats and vegies 2) fat-free dairy products 3) limit intake of fats and sodium
194
why does most cancer patients experience nutrition problems?
1) malignant cells compete with normal cells increasing patients metabolic needs 2) treatment often causes anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and taste issues
195
what is the goal of MNT in cancer patients?
meet the increased metabolic needs of the patient
196
radiation therapy destroys rapidly dividing malignant cells, what cells are also affected in the GI tract and why?
epithelial cells in the GI tract because they also rapidly divide
197
what GI issues does radiation therapy cause(5)?
1) anorexia 2) stomatitis 3) severe diarrhea 4) strictures of the intestine 5) pain
198
what does radiation therapy to the head and neck cause(3)?
1) taste & smell disturbances 2) decreased salivation 3) dysphagia
199
what kind of diet does a patient with cancer require?
1) intake that maximizes intake of nutrients and fluids 2) individualized diets that fit patients needs, symptoms, situation
200
what do patients experience with HIV/AIDs when it comes to nutrition?
body wasting, severe weight loss, malnutrition
201
why do patients with HIV/AIDs experience body wasting, severe weight loss(8)?
1) anorexia 2) stomatitis 3) oral thrush infections 4) nausea 5) recurrent vomiting 6) GI malabsorption 7) altered metabolism of nutrients 8) meds
202
why do HIV/AIDs patients acquire hypermetabolism?
systemic infection results in hypermetabolism from cytokine elevation
203
what is the focus of restorative care with HIV/AIDs?
1) maximizing kcal intake and nutrients 2) hand hygiene and food safety to prevent infections ie. minimize exposure to cryptospordium in drinking water, lakes, swimming pools
204
Restorative care of malnutrition resulting from AIDS recommended eating habits.
Small, frequent, nutrient-dense meals that limit fatty and overly sweet foods are easier to tolerate. Patients benefit from eating cold foods and drier or saltier foods with fluid in between.