L2: Gene Expression Basic Processes Flashcards

1
Q

biological relevance of gene expression and regulation

A
  • underlies many fundamental processes
  • development
  • cellular function
  • organismal diversity
  • human variation
  • personalized medicine
  • genetic disease
  • cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

therapeutic relevance of gene expression and regulation

A
  • many therapies and biomedical technologies require understanding and manipulating of gene expression
  • gene therapy
  • recombinant DNA research
  • production of biological therapeutics
  • RNAi therapies
  • CRISPR/Cas9
  • Systems biology
  • IPSCs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

genetic differences in drug responsiveness

A
  • lie in non-coding regions

- may affect expression of nearby genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DNA -> RNA

A
  • mRNA transcribed from template strand with complementary sequence
  • occurs 5’ - 3’ in opposite orientation to template strand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where does RNA polymerase bind

A
  • binds to the promoter

- elongation with RNA pol moving down DNA adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of the transcript

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prokaryotic (bacterial) gene expression (and how different from eukaryotic)

A
  • transcription and translation occur in same cellular compartment because there is no nucleus
  • processes occur simultaneously
  • no RNA splicing
  • mRNAs are commonly polycistronic - multiple coding sequences to make different proteins
  • multiple proteins from same transcript
  • all genes transcribed by single RNA polymerase
  • bacterial-induced disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

eukaryotic gene expression (and how different from bacterial)

A
  • multiple compartments
  • genes are monocistronic
  • genes have introns and exons
  • RNA splicing to eliminate introns
  • different classes of genes (tRNA, rRNA, mRNA) transcribed by distinct RNA polymerases
  • DNA packaged into chromatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where eukaryotic transcription and RNA processing occurs

A
  • nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where eukaryotic translation occurs

A
  • cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

exons

A
  • coding and untranslated regions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RNA Pol I transcribes

A
  • rRNA genes
  • 28S
  • 18 S
  • 5.8S
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RNA Pol II transcribes

A
  • mRNA genes
  • also microRNAs (regulation)
  • snRNAs (RNA splicing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RNA Pol III transcribes

A
  • tRNA, 5S rRNA, additional small RNAs

- smaller genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are all three polymerases found in eukaryotes?

A
  • yes found in all eukaryotes

Each RNA polymerase recognizes a different promoter that differs n sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the 4th RNA polymerase?

A
  • mitochondria

- have their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RNA polymerase II promoters

A
  • where RNA polymerase and transcription starts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

core promoters

A
  • multiple types and elements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

important class of core promoter

A
  • TATA box - TATAA sequence
  • 25 bp upstream of promoter
  • binds TFIID
  • initiator element (Inr) +1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TFIID

A
  • TATA binding protein

- TBP + TAFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

enhancers

A
  • bind TFs

- promote spatial, temporal, and quantitative control of transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

upstream promoter-proximal elements

A
  • GC rich regions - binds SP1 TF
  • CAAT box - binds C/EBP
  • regulate RNA levels
  • bind transcription factors
  • close to promoter (within 100 bp)
  • elevate the levels of transcription
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

focused promoters

A
  • focused at one site
  • defined location
  • contain TATA box and Inr elements
  • regulated genes
  • 20% of human promoters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

dispersed promoters

A
  • multiple start sites
  • lie within CpG islands instead of TATA boxes
  • housekeeping genes
  • 80% of human promoters
  • GC rich regions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

housekeeping genes

A
  • things that are pretty much on all the time.

- regulation of levels doesn’t change very much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
regulated genes
- gene that gets turned on at specific times
26
RNA polymerase II composed of
- core enzyme composed of 12 subunits
27
General (Basal) transcription factors
- work with RNA polymerase to start eukaryotic transcription | - TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIID, TFIIE, TFIIF, TFIIH
28
TATA binding factor
- TBF | - TBP-Associated Proteins (TAFs) - 13 proteins
29
TATA binding protein (TBP)
- part of TFIID | - binds TATA box
30
role of TFIIA and TFIIB
- stabilize TBP binding | - TFIIB positions and recruits RNA polymerase II over promoter
31
TFIIF role
- assists polymerase II binding | - followed by TFIIE and TFIIH
32
TFIIH role
- helicase - unwinds DNA to open up helix and allow transcription to occur - uses energy of ATP hydrolysis
33
TFIIH kinase role
- phosphorylates the C-terminal domain of polymerase II along with TFIIE - RNA polymerase will not transcribe genes until phosphorylation occurs - then transcription starts
34
which transcription factors are not released once transcription begins?
- TBP (remains at promoter to start another round of transcription) - TFIIF (remains with Pol II)
35
First step of transcription initiation
- TFIID binds to TATA box - because it contains TBP - induces bending of DNA
36
second step of transcription initiation
- binding of TFIID is followed by binding of TFIIA and TFIIB - stabilize TBP binding - TFIIB positions and recruits RNA polymerase II over promoter at CRE and recruits TFIID
37
third step of transcription initiation
- RNA pol II recruited along with TFIIF
38
fourth step of transcription initiation
- TFIIE and TFIIF are recruited to form transcription initiation complex
39
what promoter does Pol I use?
- rlnr (ribosomal initiator) plus UPE/UCE sequences | - upstream promoter element
40
what promoter does Pol II use?
- TATA plus Inr (initiator) - Inr plus DPE - downstream promoter element
41
what promoter does Pol III use?
- internal sites (A and C for rRNA) - A and B for tRNA - has sequence elements that interact with pol III but are downstream of the genes
42
5S rRNA genes
- TFIIA and TFIIC recognize the promoter
43
tRNA gene
- TFIIC recognizes the promoter
44
other gene promoters
- use upstream TATA and PSE | - TATA recognized by TBP
45
related TBP-like proteins recognized by
- Pol I and Pol III
46
alpha amanitin toxin
- poisonous mushroom - binds to RNA pol II and inhibits transcription - causes severe kidney damage and can lead to death
47
prokaryotic transcription
- only one RNA polymerase for mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA genes
48
what does rifampin do?
- binds to the beta subunit of RNA pol and prevents initiation - does not bind to eukaryotic RNA polymerases which is why we can use it on humans
49
prokaryotic promoters
- have two short conserved sequences (-35, -10) that are recognized by RNA polymerase - looks like TATA box
50
prokaryotic RNA polymerase structure
- 5 subunits - 2 alpha - beta - beta prime - omega
51
sigma factors
- can vary - allow holoenzyme (core + sigma) to recognize promoter - allow it to target different promoters
52
leader
- 5' untranslated region | - part of mRNA
53
trailer
- 3' untranslated region | - has fairly extensive poly(A) tail that gets added on after the gene is transcribed
54
where do the untranslated regions come from
- exons that get spliced together
55
where does processing and modification of hnRNA occur?
- in the nucleus
56
hnRNPs
- interact with hnRNA to facilitate protein interactions, transport, and prevent degradation
57
hnRNA capped where?
- 5' end
58
hnRNA poly(A)'d where?
- 3' end
59
where does the transcript go after it is processed?
- the cytoplasm
60
5' cap
- 7-methyl-guanosine - first nucleotide that gets made - odd 5' to 5' linkage using guanosine with a methyl group at N terminal (position 7) and position 2 of terminal ribose
61
function of 5' cap
- makes mRNA resistant to degradation and enhances initiation of translation
62
when does capping occur?
- as mRNA is being transcribed
63
how are methyl groups donated?
- donated by SAM | - SAM regenerated after it donates a methyl group by vitamins B12 and folate (B9)
64
role of RNA pol in capping
- as Pol begins transcription, CTD phosphorylated by TFIIH kinase at Ser 5 binds capping proteins - facilitates binding of cap proteins to CTD - capping proteins transferred to newly emerged 5' end of mRNA and cap the mRNA - capping proteins put on the 7-methyl G
65
polyadenylation
- mRNA cleaved downstream at 3' end and poly(A) tail added | - AAUAAA recognition sequence
66
is poly(A) present in the gene?
- no | - added by poly(A) polymerase with the use of ATP
67
what happens once poly(A) is absent?
- shortens over time - mRNA degraded after absent - way to control how long mRNA lasts
68
function of poly (A)
- mRNA stability - transport mRNA from nucleus - enhance translation
69
how does polyadenylation occur?
- cleavage specificity factors carried on the CTD of RNA pol II bind to the poly(A) signal sequence - cleavage factors (CPSF, CstF) cut 3' end - Poly(A) polymerase recognizes 3' end - aided by CPSF begins synthesizing poly(A) tail - Poly(A) binding protein binds to poly A stretch and directs extension of the sequence - enhances ability of poly(A) to add more proteins
70
RNA splicing
- removal of introns and joining together of exons to create mature mRNA
71
splicing carried out by
- spliceosome
72
what recruits splicing factors?
- CTD of Pol II
73
snRNPs
- small nuclear RNA + proteins | - consists of the small RNAs: U1, U2, U4, U6 and associated proteins
74
precursor RNA
- specific sequences at 5' splice acceptor site and 3' splice donor site + branch site present in the intron
75
conserved sequences at intron-exon junctions
- recognized by spliceosome - introns almost always start with GU 3' site and end with AG at 5' site - A at branch site
76
splicing process
- U1 snRNP binds near first exon-intron junction at 5' splice site after recognition of it - U2 binds to conserved A residue in intron (at branch point sequence) - snRNPs U4, U5, and U6 bind to U1-U2 complex and form a loop - G at 5' end of intron is cut and forms a 2'-5' linkage with A residue at the branch site to form a lariat - U1 and U4 released. U5 and U6 shift positions - second cleavage occurs at 3' end of intron after AG - exons joined together, intron released along with the remaining parts of the spliceosome, and degraded - part of spliceosome ligates the exons together
77
what percent of genetic diseases are due to splice mutations?
- 15%
78
Limb girdle muscular dystrophy symptoms
- weakness and wasting of muscles
79
gene for limb girdle muscular dystrophy
- LMNA | - codes for laming A and C which are intermediate filaments that support the nuclear envelop
80
what happens with limb girdle muscular dystrophy
- exon 8 gets spliced to exon 9 - change in G to C and exon 9 not spliced to exon 10 - results in truncated protein and RNA turnover
81
lupus cause
- autoimmune disorder - cause is self-antibodies generated against splicing RNPs - anti-smith antibodies binds to U1, U2, U4, U5, and U6 snRNPs - less than 1% present in healthy individuals
82
anti-nRNP
- anti-U1NRP | - present in 30-40% of lupus patients and interact with U1snRNP
83
mitochondria genome
- distinct genome with rRNA, tRNA, and mRNA genes - make own rRNA and tRNA - genome is circular and small
84
mRNAs in mitochondria
- encode enzymes involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
85
what about transcription that takes place in mitochondria?
- they are all nuclear encoded genes
86
how to mitochondria get most of their proteins?
- they import them - transcribed in nucleus, translated in cytoplasm, and imported into mitochondrion - imported by TOM and TIM
87
70S subunit of prokaryotes composed of
- 50S and 30S
88
50S composed of
- 5S | - 23S +34 proteins
89
30S composed of
- 16S + 21 proteins
90
80S of eukaryotes composed of
- 40S and 60S
91
60S composed of
- 5S | - 5.8S on 28S + 50 proteins
92
40S composed of
- 18S + 33 proteins
93
mitochondria subunit
- 55S
94
55S subunit composed of
- 39S | - 28S
95
mitochondria rRNAs
- 16S | - 12 S
96
transcription and post-transcriptional cleavage of rRNA
- occurs in nucleolus - 45S precursor rRNA (pre-rRNA) is transcribed by RNA polymerase I and associates with ribosomal proteins - 5S RNA is a distinct gene cluster (~100 copies on chromosome 1) and transcribed by RNA polymerase III - RNA is methylated and pseudouridylated and 45S RNA trimmed to a 41S precursor - 41S with 5S cleaved to 32S with 5S and 20S - 32S cleaved to 28S, 5.8S and 5S comes along - 20S cleaved to 18S - Cleaved into 28S, 18S, and 5.8S by ribonucleases
97
cleavage of 45S rRNA precursor
- ribonucleases cleave 45S into intermediate forms then eventually 28S, 18S, and 5.8S rRNAs - 5.8S is hydrogen bonded with 28S - snRNAs pair with rRNA precursors and guide location of modification and cleavage enzymes - cleave the ends off the spacer sequences - occurs in nucleolus
98
function of tRNAs
- adapter molecule that recognizes mRNA triplet code and transfers an amino acid to the growing polypeptide
99
features of tRNAs
- heavily modified bases - dihydrouridine - ribothymidine - pseudouridine - loops - cloverleaf shape with defined loops
100
tRNAs of mitochondria
- mitochondria have their own tRNAs
101
3' end of tRNA
- CCA where the amino acid gets attached
102
transcription of tRNA
- tRNA transcribed by RNA polymerase III from internal promoter
103
post transcriptional processing of tRNA
- done by nucleases - 5' and 3' ends are trimmed - small intron is removed and adjacent sequences are spliced (distinct from mRNA splicing) - certain bases are modified by snoRNAs and modeling enzymes
104
nucleotidyltransferases
- replaces Us at the 3' end and adds CCA | - CCA not encoded within the genome
105
highly repetitive DNA
- clustered at centromeres and telomeres - implicated in centromere function and chromosome pairing
106
moderately repetitive DNA
- some are transposable elements are defective transposable elements - some are transcribed and produce functional RNAs needed in multiple copies
107
All repeats and LINEs
- transposons or remnants of transposons
108
energy of translation
- GTP and ATP
109
wobble position
- wobble at the third position - one way for a tRNA that carries a specific amino acid to recognize a few different codons - because of this, we don't need a tRNA for every codon
110
aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase
- recognize distinct amino acids and join them to tRNAs | - have proofreading capabilities and can tell when they have the wrong amino acid
111
aminoactyl-tRNA-synthetase reaction
- tRNA is charged covalently with an amino acid on CCA stem - requires ATP - yields aminoacyl-tRNA - syntheses recognize acceptor stem and anticodon site
112
initiation of translation
- starts at AUG codon that codes for methionine - eIF2-GTP delivers Met-tRNA to the 40S subunit connected with eIF3 - tRNA-Met is the only tRNA that can bind to the isolated 40S subunit - connected with GTP - Cap at 5' end of mRNA binds Cap-binding complex which recruits the preinitiation complex to mRNA - mRNA binds to 40S subunit - eiF4 scans mRNA and finds AUG codon (requires ATP) - hydrolysis of GTP and eIF factors released - large 60 S subunit binds to form functional ribosome
113
purpose of 40S subunit on mRNA
- connects with eIF3 | - blocks premature binding of 60S subunit
114
cap binding complex composed of
- eIF4
115
binding sites
- E - ejection - P - peptidyl - A - aminoacyl-tRNA
116
met-tRNA binds where
- in the P site in the whole ribosome | - only tRNA that does this.
117
elongation of translation
- mRNA codon in A site determines which aminoacyl-tRNA binds - new aminoacyl-tRNA binds elongation factor eEF1A-GTP - complex binds to the A site, GTP hydrolyzed, and eEF1A-GDP is released
118
peptide bond formation
- in first round, AA in A site forms a peptide bond with the methionine in the P site - amino group of aminoacyl-tRNA attacks carbonyl group of ester linkage of peptidyl-tRNA - reaction catalyzed by peptidyltransferase which requires no energy source
119
peptidyltransferase
- not a protein but is the rRNA in the 60S subunit | - part of the 28S subunit
120
translocation of translation
- eEF2 complexes with GTP and binds ribosome - makes space in the A site - causes a conformational change that moves the mRNA and tRNAs with respect to the ribosome - uncharged tRNA moves from the P site to the E site and is released - peptidyl-tRNA moves to the P site. - next codon occupies A site - GTP hydrolyzed
121
termination of translation
- when a stop codon is reached, no aminoacyl-tRNA occupies the A site - release factors bind to the ribosome and peptidyltranferase cleaves the peptide chain from the tRNA and protein is released
122
recycling of eEF1A
- important for continuous rounds of translation and translational regulation - GTP hydrolyzed to GDP + Pi and eEF1A binds to eEF1Ba - eEF1Ba exchanges GDP for GTP on eEF1A - eEF1A is ready for the next round of translation
123
polysomes
- mRNAs are often translated by multiple ribosome, each generating a protein
124
protein targeting to sub cellular locations and transport
- proteins have targeting sequences that allow their transport to sub cellular destinations like the Golgi, ER, lysosomes, secretion at membrane - proteins have a sequence at the N-terminus - Signal recognition particle recognizes signal sequence while the protein is being translated. - SRP-protein binds to SRP receptor on RER - translation continues to the RER where the signal peptide is cleaved by signal peptidase
125
secretion
- some proteins enter secretory vesicles and are released from the cell or added to the membrane
126
lysosomes targeting
- mannose-6-phosphate -> clathrin coated vesicles -> endoscopes -> lysosomes
127
protein KDEL sequence targets where
- back to RER
128
hydrophobic proteins go where
- membrane
129
chaperones
- proteins that facilitate proper protein folding or prevent aggregation of newly-synthesized proteins
130
heat shock proteins
- induced by heat shock to help cellular protein refold properly and not become denatured
131
chaperonins
- CCT/Tric | - protein to be folded is enveloped by the CCT/Tric barrel and is folded using ATP
132
Diphtheria toxin
- B subunit facilitates entry of A subunit into the cell - A subunit catalyzes the addition of ADP-ribose to EF2 - inhibits EF2 and protein synthesis - leads to death
133
role of tetracycline
- binds to bacterial 30S subunit and blocks access of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site - reversible
134
role of puromycin
- resembles aminoacyl-tRNA | - accepts peptide chain and terminates translation
135
role of chloramphenicol
- binds to bacterial 50S subunit and inhibits peptidyltransferase - can also inhibit human mitochondrial protein synthesis
136
role of erythromycin
- binds to the bacterial 50S subunit and inhibits translocation
137
role of streptomycin
- binds to the bacterial 30S subunit and prevents initiation - also causes misreading of mRNA in which premature termination or incorporation of incorrect amino acids occurs.
138
what is nonsense mediated mRNA due to?
- mutations or mistakes in transcription or splicing where some mRNAs are defective and encode defective or truncated proteins
139
what happens in nonsense mediated mRNA decay?
- detects and degrades the aberrant mRNAs
140
what happens normally in mRNA?
- proteins normally bind the exon-intron junctions - stop codon is in the last exon - junctions are removed by initial ribosome movement and the mRNA exists the nucleus - if all junctions are removed because the ribosome didn't encounter a stop codon then the mRNA survives
141
what happens abnormally in nonsense mediated mRNA decay?
- premature stop codon encountered - distal junctions remain - mRNA degraded by Upf proteins