L.9 Products & Factors for Bleeding Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

What are Random Donor Platelets (RDP)?

A

Pooled platelets derived from whole blood donations

Each unit contains 45–85 × 10⁹ platelets, typically pooled from 4–6 units into a single therapeutic dose.

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2
Q

What is the typical volume of plasma or platelet additive solution (PAS) for Random Donor Platelets?

A

250–300 mL

This volume is used for suspension of the pooled platelets.

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3
Q

What are Apheresis Platelets (Single Donor Platelets – SDP)?

A

Platelets collected from a single donor using an apheresis machine

Each unit contains at least 240 × 10⁹ platelets.

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4
Q

What is the typical volume of plasma used in Apheresis Platelets?

A

~300 mL of male donor plasma

This is to minimize the risk of TRALI.

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5
Q

Who are Apheresis Platelets often used for?

A
  • Immunocompromised patients (e.g., transplant, oncology)
  • Patients requiring HLA-matched platelets

These patients may have specific needs for platelet compatibility.

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6
Q

Do platelets express ABO antigens?

A

Yes, but not RhD

This means compatibility is primarily focused on ABO blood type.

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7
Q

What are the risks of using non-ABO compatible platelets?

A
  • Risk of haemolysis due to plasma antibodies
  • Reduced post-transfusion platelet increment

Ensuring ABO compatibility helps mitigate these risks.

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8
Q

Is RhD status critical for platelet transfusions?

A

Less critical, but RhD-negative females of childbearing age may require RhD-negative platelets

This is to avoid alloimmunization; RhIG may be considered if RhD+ platelets must be used.

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9
Q

What is the required storage temperature for platelets?

A

22 ± 2°C (room temperature)

This temperature is necessary to maintain platelet function and prevent aggregation.

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10
Q

What is the shelf-life of platelets?

A

Up to 7 days, subject to bacterial screening

This shelf-life is crucial for ensuring safety and efficacy.

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11
Q

Can platelets be refrigerated?

A

No

Cold temperatures cause irreversible activation and clearance of platelets.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of leucodepletion in platelet components in Ireland?

A

To reduce risk of febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTR), reduce HLA alloimmunization, and minimize transmission risk of vCJD.

FNHTR is a common reaction to transfusions that can cause fever and chills.

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13
Q

Who are the donors tested for CMV antibodies intended for?

A

Neonates, bone marrow transplant recipients, and other severely immunosuppressed patients.

CMV (Cytomegalovirus) can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals.

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14
Q

What is the purpose of irradiating all platelet units in Ireland since 2006?

A

To prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GvHD) in at-risk patients.

TA-GvHD is a rare but serious condition where transfused immune cells attack the recipient’s tissues.

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15
Q

What are the clinical indications for platelet transfusion?

A
  1. Bone Marrow Failure
  2. Chemotherapy-Induced Thrombocytopenia
  3. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
  4. Massive Transfusion
  5. Congenital Platelet Function Disorders
  6. Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenia (NAIT)

These conditions necessitate platelet transfusions to manage low platelet counts and prevent bleeding.

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16
Q

What conditions are associated with Bone Marrow Failure?

A

Aplastic anaemia, leukaemia, and myelodysplasia.

These conditions lead to decreased production of platelets in the bone marrow.

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17
Q

What effect do cytotoxic agents have in chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

They impair megakaryocyte function, leading to reduced platelet production.

Megakaryocytes are the bone marrow cells responsible for producing platelets.

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18
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

A condition characterized by the consumption of platelets in widespread microthrombi, necessitating platelet transfusion if bleeding and low count occur.

DIC can be triggered by various conditions, including sepsis and trauma.

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19
Q

What is Massive Transfusion and its effect on platelet levels?

A

Dilutional thrombocytopenia due to large volumes of red cells/fluids, requiring platelet administration as part of a massive transfusion protocol (MTP).

MTP is often initiated in trauma or surgical cases where significant blood loss occurs.

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20
Q

What are some examples of Congenital Platelet Function Disorders?

A

Bernard–Soulier Syndrome (adhesion defect) and Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia (aggregation defect).

These disorders affect the ability of platelets to function normally during clot formation.

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21
Q

What causes Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenia (NAIT)?

A

Maternal antibodies targeting fetal platelet antigens.

NAIT can lead to severe thrombocytopenia in the newborn, increasing the risk of bleeding.

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22
Q

What type of platelet transfusions are required for NAIT?

A

Antigen-negative platelet transfusions or maternal washed platelets.

Using antigen-negative platelets avoids further immune reactions in the fetus.

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23
Q

What is the expected platelet response from 1 unit of pooled random donor platelets?

A

Typically raises platelet count by 5–10 × 10⁹/L

24
Q

How much might apheresis platelet unit (single donor) achieve in platelet increment?

A

May achieve a higher increment

25
What is considered a normal platelet count range?
150–400 × 10⁹/L
26
What is the prophylactic transfusion threshold for stable, non-bleeding patients?
<10–20 × 10⁹/L
27
What platelet count threshold indicates active bleeding or invasive procedures?
<50 × 10⁹/L
28
Define platelet refractoriness.
Failure to achieve expected post-transfusion platelet increment
29
What are the causes of platelet refractoriness?
* Immune-mediated: Alloantibodies to HLA Class I or HPA * Non-immune: Fever, sepsis, splenomegaly, DIC, ongoing bleeding
30
What management step is taken for platelet refractoriness?
Measure corrected count increment (CCI)
31
What type of platelets should be considered for refractory patients with immune causes?
HLA- or HPA-matched platelets
32
What is the deficiency in Haemophilia A?
Factor VIII deficiency
33
What is the deficiency in Haemophilia B?
Factor IX deficiency
34
What type of inheritance pattern do Haemophilia A and B follow?
X-linked recessive
35
Which gender is primarily affected by Haemophilia A and B?
Males
36
What are the severity classifications of Haemophilia?
* Mild: 5–40% factor activity * Moderate: 1–5% * Severe: <1%
37
What are the lab findings for Haemophilia A and B?
* Normal PT * Prolonged APTT
38
What are clinical features of severe Haemophilia cases?
Spontaneous joint/muscle bleeds
39
What are clinical features of mild/moderate Haemophilia cases?
Post-surgical or post-trauma bleeding
40
What type of treatment is used for Haemophilia A?
Factor VIII concentrates
41
What are the types of Factor VIII concentrates?
* Plasma-derived (virus-inactivated) * Recombinant FVIII (e.g. Advate®, Eloctate®)
42
What is a major complication of Factor VIII treatment?
Inhibitor formation (IgG antibodies)
43
What is Emicizumab (Hemlibra®)?
A bispecific antibody mimicking FVIII function
44
In what patient population is Emicizumab used?
Inhibitor-positive patients
45
What are Factor IX concentrates used for?
Treatment of Haemophilia B ## Footnote Plasma-derived or recombinant (e.g. Alprolix®, BeneFIX®) with lower risk of inhibitor formation than FVIII.
46
What are the two types of bypassing agents for inhibitors in patients with high-titre FVIII/FIX inhibitors?
* Recombinant activated factor VII (rFVIIa) – NovoSeven® * Activated prothrombin complex concentrate (aPCC) – FEIBA® ## Footnote Used for patients with high-titre FVIII/FIX inhibitors.
47
What is the inheritance pattern of Von Willebrand Disease (vWD)?
Autosomal dominant inheritance ## Footnote This is related to the deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF).
48
What is von Willebrand factor (vWF) essential for?
* Carrier protein for FVIII * Platelet adhesion (binds to GpIb and subendothelial collagen) ## Footnote Deficiency or dysfunction of vWF leads to Von Willebrand Disease.
49
What are the key diagnostic indicators for Von Willebrand Disease?
* Prolonged bleeding time * Normal or mildly prolonged APTT * Platelet function tests and vWF antigen/activity levels ## Footnote These tests help confirm the diagnosis of vWD.
50
What is the treatment for Von Willebrand Disease?
* Desmopressin (DDAVP) * vWF-containing FVIII products (Humate-P®, Wilate®) * Cryoprecipitate ## Footnote Desmopressin stimulates endothelial release of vWF, while FVIII products also raise FVIII levels.
51
What is cryoprecipitate composed of?
* Factor VIII * von Willebrand factor (vWF) * Fibrinogen * Factor XIII ## Footnote It is a cold-insoluble plasma fraction rich in these factors.
52
How is cryoprecipitate prepared?
By thawing FFP at 4°C, then refreezing the precipitate ## Footnote It is reconstituted prior to transfusion.
53
What are the uses of cryoprecipitate?
* Hypofibrinogenaemia (<1.5 g/L) in bleeding * Topical haemostasis (mixed with thrombin – fibrin sealant) ## Footnote Historically, it was used more often, but now its use has declined due to viral risks.
54
What are fibrin sealants and their purpose?
Products like Evicel® or Tisseel® mimic final steps of coagulation ## Footnote They are useful in surgical or dental bleeding settings.
55
What are human fibrinogen concentrates and their advantages?
They have replaced cryoprecipitate in many settings ## Footnote Example: Haemocomplettan P® – standardized dose, lower infection risk.
56
What are Factor IX complexes used for?
Factor IX deficiency and warfarin reversal ## Footnote They include prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs) containing FII, VII, IX, X.
57
What are examples of prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs)?
* Octaplex® * Prothromplex® ## Footnote PCCs are used in life-threatening bleeding or urgent surgery.