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Lab exam review Flashcards

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1
Q

One of the most important human pathogens

A

Group A Streptococci

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2
Q

What bacteria are most frequent in humans? What does it cause?

A

Group A Streptococci
Pharyngitis and common cause of skin infections

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3
Q

What bacteria is colonized in the genetial tract of some women

A

Group B Streptococci (GBS)

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4
Q

what can Group B Streptococci cause in newborns?

A

neonatal meningitis and sepsis

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5
Q

Why do pregnant women get a GBS swab?

A

GBS+ women can pass the bacteria to their infants during delivery (very bad)

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6
Q

What are enterococci

A

normal flora of the colon

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7
Q

what happens if enterococci are found outside of the colon?

A

They can cause urinary, Biliary or cardiovascular infections

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8
Q

What 2 subtypes of bacteria make up Group D streptococci

A

Enterococci and non-enterococci

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9
Q

What does alpha-hemolytic streptococci look like on a blood agar plate? what does that indicate

A

Green
indicates partial hemolysis

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10
Q

What does beta-hemolytic streptococci look like on blood agar plate? what does that indicate?

A

clear
indicates complete hemolysis

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11
Q

What does gamma-hemolytic streptococci look like on blood agar plate? what does this indicate?

A

red
indicates no hemolysis

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12
Q

What causes beta-hemolysis

A

production of hemolysin enzymes (Streptolysin O and streptolysin S)

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13
Q

What are plasmids and bacteriophages

A

extra chromosomal DNA elements that replicate independent of the genomic DNA

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14
Q

what do plasmids and bacterophages allow?

A

exchange of genes between strains and types of bacteria

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15
Q

what do virulence genes do?

A

encode toxins or enzymes that help bacteria overwhelm host tissues and immunity or get nutrients

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16
Q

what are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve IN ORDER

A
  1. lag phase
  2. log phase
  3. stationary phase
  4. death phase
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17
Q

What is the lag phase on the bacterial growth curve

A

vigorous metabolic activity occurs
cells do NOT divide
lasts a few minutes to many hours

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18
Q

what is the log phase of the bacterial growth curve

A

rapid cell division

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19
Q

what is the stationary phase of the bacterial growth curve

A

nutrients deplete OR toxic products cause growth to slow

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20
Q

What is the death phase of the bacterial growth curve

A

decline in the number of viable bacteria

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21
Q

How do bacteria adapt to their environment

A

controlling gene expression

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22
Q

what is the most common way of altering gene expression

A

change the amount of mRNA transcription

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23
Q

Describe the 4 phases of bacteria cell division

A
  1. cell elongates and DNA replicates
  2. cell wall and plasma membrane begin to divide - formation of a septum in the middle of the cell (cross wall)
  3. Cross wall forms completely around divided DNA
  4. cells separate
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24
Q

Describe how Glucose becomes ATP

A
  1. glucose
  2. pyruvate –> can ferment into 2 ATP + acids and alcohols
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. Krebs cycle
  5. Electron Transport chain
    IN THE PRESENCE OF O2
  6. 38 ATP, CO2, H2O (aerobic respiration)
    OR
    IN THE PRESENCE OF INORGANIC COMPOUNDS
  7. 34 ATP (anaerobic respiration)
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25
What are two bacterial enzymes for normal functions or to resist immune cells?
Catalase and Coagulase
26
how does catalase work?
converted hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen to undermine immune cells
27
how does coagulase work
forms a clot around the bacteria to protect it from immune cells
28
does pathogenic staphylococcus have coagulase?
YES
29
does non-pathogenic staphylococcus have coagulase?
NO
30
what acid does gram+ bacteria have that gram- does not?
Teichoic acid
31
T or F gram+ bacteria have an outer membrane
False only gram- bacteria have an outer membrane
32
T or F Both gram+ and gram - bacteria have peptidoglycan AND periplasmic space
False both have peptidoglycan BUT only gram- has periplasmic space
33
what are the major functions of plasma membrane proteins (5)
1. selective permeability and transport of solutes 2. electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation, in aerobic species 3. excretion of hydrolytic exoenzymes 4. enzymes 5. receptors and other proteins
34
describe the cell wall of gram- bacteria from superficial to deep
1. Outer membrane (LPS and protein) 2. peptidoglycan 3. plasma membrane
35
describe the cell wall of gram+ bacteria from superficial to deep
1. peptidoglycan 2. periplastic space 3. plasma membrane
36
where is the cell wall located in relation to the cytoplasmic membrane
external
37
how does the outer membrane change depending on bacteria type
it may vary in thickness and chemical composition
38
what are the two layers outside the peptidoglycan layer in gram- bacteria
periplasmic space and outer membrane
39
what is the outer membrane made of
lipoprotein and lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
40
what does the outer membrane prevent
the passage of large macromolecules
41
how are bacteria classified into positive or negative
cell wall composition
42
what does the cell wall provide (3)
protection plays essential role in cell divison shape (cocci, rods or spirochaetes)
43
What does gram stain bind to?
peptidoglycan in cell wall
44
what is the staining chemical?
Crystal violet
45
What are faculative anaerobes?
can grow with or without O2
46
example of a faculative anaerobe found in normal gut commensal
E. Coli is harmless in get but pathogenic elsewhere
47
What is an obligate aerobe
bacteria that need O2 to grow and perform aerobic metabolism
48
What obligate aerobe exists on humans
Staphylococcus epidermis lives on our skin
49
what are Anaerobes
Bacteria that do NOT need O2 most vaginal/gut flora
50
what is an obligate anaerobe
must NOT have any O2 to prosper
51
what thre shapes can bacteria be classified into
cocci, Bacilli, spirochetes
52
describe cocci
small spherical shapes
53
describe bacilli
small elongated shape
54
describe spirochetes
long, curved, bent
55
what are the 3 ways cocci can be named by their arangment
Diplococci, streptococci, staphylococci
56
describe diplococci
in pairs
57
describe streptococci
in chains
58
describe staphylococci
in grapelike clusters
59
what are general characteristics of bacteria
most are less than 1 micrometer most abundant organisms most tolerant of environmental conditions
60
what is only bacteria that is not less than 1 micrometer
Bacillus anthracis Large gram+ ranges from 3-10 micrometers
61
Describe a prokaryote
no nucleus, genomic DNA in single chromosome have plasmids to carry DNA and self replicate transcription and translation happens simultaneously from genomic DNA cell membrane covered by thick cell wall and lipid layers
62
Describe a Eukarote
DNA carries in several chromosomes in membrane bound nucleus translation from mRNA takes place on ribosomes cytoplasm is rich in organelles single plasma membrane
63
what doe the pH scale measure
concentration of H+ ions
64
is a pH of 14 acidic or alkaline
alkaline
65
what is the normal pH range of urine?
8-5
66
what is the normal pH range of blood
7.35-7.45
67
where are ionic bonds found in the body?
tissues and electrolytes
68
what do ionic bonds give strength to
teeth and bones
69
where do most ions stay in the body
watery fluid (ie. blood)
70
what is an electrolyte?
substace that breaks into pos/neg ions when disolved in water or body fluids
71
why are electrolytes important
regulate nerve and muscle function hydration balance blood pH blood pressure
72
Describe a covalent bond
most common and strong chemical bond in living organisms forms when a pair of electrons is shared between 2 atoms
73
describe a double covalent bond
2 atoms share 2 pairs of electrons stronger than a single covalent bond common in molecules where atoms need more than one pair of electrons to complete outer shell (Oxygen)
74
what is proteinuria/ what does it indicate? in pregnancy?
high protein in urine kidney diseases pregnancy induced hypertension
75
what does high glucose in urine indicate? in pregnancy?
diabetes, kidney disease GDM
76
What does high ketones in urine indicate?
Diabetes, anorexia or low carb diet
77
wha does high urobilinogen in the urine indicate?
Hemolytic or pernicious anemia, hepatitis
78
what is urobilinogen?
waste product from degraded hemoglobin
79
what does high billirubin in urine indicate>
liver disease
80
what does nitrite in the urine indicate
UTI
81
What does hemoglobin or RBCs in urine indicate?
kidney disease, infection, trauma or tumors
82
what does WBC in urine indicate
infection along the urinary system
83
what is Rh incompatability
if an Rh- woman carries an Rh+ fetus during her first pregnancy, Rh+ antibies can enter her blood stream during delivery. During later pregnancies, with an Rh+ fetus IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and cause lysis of fetal RBC
84
what is the formal name for lysis of fetal RBC due to Rh incompatability
hemolytic desiease of the newborn or erythroblastosis fetalis
85
what Rh blood type is cause for concern if the other biological parent blood type is positive
Rh-
86
describe the structure and function of RBCs
no nucleus, full of hemoglobin Oxygen and CO2 transport between lungs and tissues
87
describe the structure and function of WBCs
nucleated, multiple types and functions related to inflammation and immune protection of tissues
88
describe the structure and function of platelets
no nucleus activated to allow clotting by producing clotting factors during bleeding
89
describe WBC count
typically given as a percentage of total blood cells usually 0.1% of blood marker of infection
90
describe hematocrit
fraction of whole blood volume occupied by RBC usually 40-45% of blood volume
91
What is anemia
RBC deficiency
92
what is polycythemia
RBC too high
93
who can type A donate to/receive from
Donate: Type A, AB receive: Type A, O
94
who can type B donate to/receive from
Donate: B, AB Receive: B, O
95
who can type AB donate to/receive from
Donate: AB Receive: all
96
Who can type O donate to/receive from
Donate: All receive; O
97
what are the 5 WBC subsets
Neutrophil, Lymphocyte, Monocyte, Eosinophil, Basophil (never let monkeys eat bananas)
98
frequency and function of neutrophil
60-70% phagocytosis and inflammation
99
frequency and function of Eosinophil
2-4% control allergic reaction, combat nematodes
100
Frequency and function of basophil
2-4% increase allergic reaction
101
Frequency and fucntion of lymphocyte
20-40% mediate innate and adaptive immune responses
102
Frequency and function of monocyte
3-8% Phagocytosis, differentiate into macrophages
103

Life Sci Lab exam (1 decks)

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