Lab final Flashcards
(286 cards)
1
Q
Why should nail trims be done before every bath
A
Nails grow continually, can grow into the foot pads causing infection, abscesses, and pain, they can get caught in things and break off, long nails can alter the animals gait, and is protection for us
2
Q
What are the types of nail trimmers
A
Rescoe, whites, miller’s forge, human nail clippers, and dremmels
3
Q
How should you hold the clippers when trimming nails
A
Blade away from the paw
4
Q
What are the 2 things that can be used to establish hemostasis if a nail is quicked
A
Styptic powder (kwik stop) and silver nitrate sticks
5
Q
When should anal glands be expressed
A
Before the bath so we aren’t sending home a smelly animal
6
Q
What are the 2 methods of anal sac expression
A
Internal (RVT or DVM) and external (assistants and groomers)
7
Q
How do you express anal glands internally
A
Insert a gloved and lubricated index finger to the first knuckle and use your thumb to apply pressure externally milking the fluid out
8
Q
What is an abnormal anal gland finding
A
The fluid can become thick having the potential to cause an infection or abscess
9
Q
When should the dog be brushed
A
Before the bath to minimize extra hair down the drain and remove mats/burrs
10
Q
Why is it important to know your grooming tools
A
They can cause damage to the skin if used improperly
11
Q
What should be used to cut mats
A
Clippers
12
Q
What are some cautions to watch for when grooming
A
Hot spots and clipper burn
13
Q
What should you use to clean eyes
A
W/ a wet cotton ball and apply artificial tears to protect the eyes during a bath
14
Q
How should we clean ears
A
W/ cotton balls and otic solution
15
Q
Why is using otic solution prefered when cleaning ears
A
Otic cleaners may have properties against bacteria, fungus, or yeast, promote the ear drying, other products include ceruminolytics that break up the wax, and other products can get past the tympanic membrane
16
Q
How long should medicated shampoos be left on the skin before rinising
A
10 mins
17
Q
What kind of animal should never be left in front of a cage dryer
A
Sedated animals
18
Q
What are some things to remember about giving a cat bath
A
Put the grate in the tub, make a cat “harness” out of the slip lead, go slow to avoid stressing the cat, and talk to the owner to make sure the bath is appropriate
19
Q
What are dips used for
A
Treating skin conditions such as demodectic mange
20
Q
How do you use dip on a dog
A
After shampooing (medicated) plug the tub and begin to pour the dip on the coat this allows you to continue to reuse the dip for about 5 mins then use a washcloth wet w/ solution to get around the face w/o getting it into the eyes, DO NOT RINSE, then allow the animal to air dry to keep the medication on skin, use an e-collar for dogs that like to lick and cats
21
Q
What are bed sores and where are they common
A
Decubital ulcers and they are common over the bony prominences
22
Q
What are the main concerns w/ recumbent patients
A
Urine scald, fecal soiling, and decubital ulcers
23
Q
What is really the only real treatment for decubital ulcers
A
Provide padding on the receptible areas
24
Q
What are “clean jobs” for clippers
A
surgery sites and grooming
25
What are "dirty jobs" for clippers
Hot spots, surgery prep of open wound or laceration, and infected skin
26
What is the cleaning process for clipper blades
Use a toothbrush to sweep away excess debris, pour blade wash into a shallow container, immerse the tip of the blades until the level is above the moving part, turn clippers on, turn them off, remove from solution and towel dry, start clippers again and spray lubricant
27
How often should clipper blades be professionally sharpened
Annually to extend their life
28
When are clippers no longer usable
When a blade is missing
29
What is the difference btw infection and infestation
Infection is inside the body and infestation is outside the body
30
What is the medical term for skin redness
Erythema
31
What is the medical term for being itchy
Pruritus
32
What is the medical term for a skin infection caused by bacteria or fungi
Pyoderma
33
What is the medical term for a skin condition that causes the skin to thicken, develop markings, and chronic hair loss
Lichenification
34
What is mange
Microscopic mites that burrow in the skin and live in the hair follicles
35
What is a skin scrape
A test that should be done w/ every derm case as a simple/cheap way to rule out parasites
36
How is a skin scrape done
Identify a non treated site, Squeeze and scrape margins of lesions using a dull 10 blade, hold at a 45 degree angle to prevent cutting the skin, scrape until you get a small amount of blood, transfer to slide and apply a drop of mineral oil, and pluck a few hairs from the area to see if any were living in the follicles
37
What is Red mange in dogs
Demodex canis
38
Where does a normal amount of mange flora live
In the hair follicle and sebaceous glands
39
How does red mange occur
The animal becomes immunocompromised and can't maintain the natural balance of the mites
40
What is a common symptom of red mange
Pathy alopecia over the muzzle, face, and forelimbs
41
What is demodex gatoi and how is it treated
Red mange in cats that live more superficial than demodex canis and are teated w/ lyme sulfer dips
42
What are treatments for demodex canis
Bravecto, nexgard, or noromectin
43
What is scabies in dogs
Sarcoptes scabiei
44
What is scabies in cats
Notoedres cati
45
Where do notoedres cati live
They burrow in the epidermis
46
How do you find scabies
Deep skin scape in multiple locations and pinna/pedal reflex
47
What does scabies look like
Intense itching, erythematous, popular rash w/ scales, crusts and excoriations, alopecia around ears, lateral elbows, and ventral abdomen, and bright red skin
48
Is scabies contagious
Yes it is zoonotic
49
What is cheyletiella
Walking dandruff
50
What is Cheyletiella for dogs
C.yasguri
51
What is Cheyletiella for cats
C.blakei
52
What is the Cheyletiella for rabbits
C.parasitovorax this is the most common
53
Where does Cheyletiella live
On the superficially on the skin and they are contagious thru direct contact
54
How do you find Cheyletiella
W/ a scotch tape test
55
What are treatments for Cheyletiella
Insecticides and dips
56
What are dermatophytes
Opportunistic fungal infections such as ringworm
57
What are the 2 types of ringworm
Microsporum canis/gypsem and trichophyton sapp.
58
Is ringworm contagious and what are the signs
Yes the signs are patchy ring shaped alopecia typically around the face that is not itchy
59
What is the treatments for dermatophytes
lime sulphur dip, chlorhexidine spray, shampoos, and oral meds
60
How can you test for dermatophytes
Blacklight/woods lamp, culture, and wet mount
61
What are things that are looked at w/ low microscope lighting and no stain
Fecal, skin scrape, and urine
62
How do you run a culture testing for dermatophytes
Pluck hairs and put onto agar, let sit in a dark place for up to 2 weeks, positive samples change the agar from yellow to red and typically have a fluffy white cloud looking growth, and must look under microscope to confirm macro/microconidia compartments
63
What is the cecum
The beginning of colon
64
What is the ascending colon
Rises cranially along right side of abdomen
65
What is the transverse colon
Crosses cranial abdomen from right to left
66
What are descending colon
Directed caudally along the left side of the abdomen
67
Where is the rectum
From the pelvis to the exterior it is the last part of the descending colon
68
What is the anus
External opening of the intestine that is a sphincter stimulated to open when pressure felt in rectum
69
What are indications for enemas
Constipation/obstipation, pre op for things like an endoscope, diagnostics such as biopsy or radiographs, for paralyzed patients either neurologic or if the patient has a fractured pelvis, painful rectal palpation, tenesmus (straining), anorexia, dyschezia, and hematochezia
70
What are causes of constipation/obstipation
Dietary such as ingesting bones or hair, dehydration, or FB, drugs such as opiods, diuretics, and iron, and anatomical issues/diseases such as tumors, strictures, and megacolon
71
What is true constipation
Straining, painful abdomen, and not eating
72
What is the equipment used for enemas
Red rubber so gravity can be used to help funnel the material out, 60ml catheter tip syringe, KY jelly, and enema solution
73
What are the types of enema solution
Warm water w/o soap (best choice and least irritating), mineral oil (good lubricant for constipation), warm water w/ soap (can be irritating), and salt solutions (Mg and sodium phosphate salts)
74
What is the issue w/ using a salt solution for an enema
Acts by pulling water from the interstitial space leading to dehydration, irritation, and is extremely toxic to cats and small dogs
75
What are the steps of giving enemas
Lubricate tube, insert gently through anal sphincter into the rectum, slowly administer fluid (10ml/lb), wait at least 1 hr before repeating, and PRN repeat
76
What are complications of giving an enema
dehydration (toxicity), vomiting from too much volume, and rough technique could injure the colon
77
What are contraindications of enemas
Bowel perforation and recent colon surgery
78
What are locations for an arterial blood draw
Femoral and dorsal pedal arteries
79
What are advantages of drawing arterial blood
Contains oxygen so is useful for certain tests such as blood gas
80
What are disadvantages of drawing arterial blood
Possible nerve damage, hematoma, and excessive bleeding
81
What are locations for a venous blood draw
Jugular vein (central), cephalic vein, lateral saphenous (dog), and medial saphenous (cat)
82
What are advantages for drawing venous blood
It is safe and easy
83
How much blood can be pulled from a cephalic vein
3mls for dogs and 1ml for cats
84
When should a lateral saphenous vein be used
When the dog is aversive to restraint
85
What is the truly sterile method for collecting blood that minimizes hemolysis
Using a vacutainer
86
What blood collecting method should be used when preforming a blood culture
The vacutainer
87
What are the two main differences btw plasma and serum
Plasma has an anticoagulant and fibrinogen while serum contains neither of these
88
When is serum centrifuged
After coagulation occurs
89
What is the purpose of obtaining plasma and serum
Plasma is given to patients lacking blood cells and serum is used for diagnostics
90
What is the venipuncture procedure for peripherial vessels
After distension, line up thumb lateral to the vein while holding the leg, w/ needle bevel up insert the needle nearly parallel to the vein, advance quickly and you should see a flash of blood in the hub, aspirate desired amount, release tourniquet before removing the needle, and remove the needle and apply digital pressure to venipuncture site
91
What can happen if you aspirate w/ too much force
The vessel could collapse onto the needle stopping blood flow
92
What is the venipuncture procedure for jugular veins
Distend the vessel by putting your flat thumb across the jugular furrow just about the thoracic inlet, have restrainer hold head up slightly, bevel up insert the needle into the skin almost parallel to the vein, advance quickly and aspirate blood, release thumb pressure before withdrawing needle, and apply digital pressure to the site
93
What is serum used for
Chem panels
94
What are the different anticoagulation factors
EDTA, heparin, and citrate
95
What is the order of using tubes for multiple tube collections
Yellow, blue, orange/red, green, purple, and grey
96
What are the 3 holds we can use for drawing blood from a cat's jugular
Side hold, upside down kitty, and over the edge
97
What are good things to use w/ fractious cats for blood draws
Induction box, cup muzzle, and towel
98
What is the most important thing to remember when drawing blood
Go on what you see if you can see it you can stick it
99
What are the lateral and medial canthus
Corners where the eyelids come together
100
What is the palpebral conjunctiva
The portion of the conjunctiva that lines the interior surfaces of the eyelids
101
What is the cilia of the eye
The eyelashes
102
What is the nictitating membrane
The third eyelid
103
What is the lacrimal punctum
A small opening in the eyelid that drains tears
104
What is the cornea
Transparent to admit light to the interior of the eye, has an orderly arrangement of collagen fibers, and only contains receptors
105
What is the sclera
The white of the eye
106
What is the pupil
The opening center of the iris
107
What is the iris
Pigmented smooth muscular diaphragm that controls the amount of light that enters the posterior part of the eye
108
What are the 3 layers of the eye
Fibrous tunic (cornea, sclera, and limbus), vascular uvea (choroid, tapetum, ciliary body, suspensory ligament, and iris), and nervous (retina)
109
Where is the anterior chamber
The portion of the aqueous chamber that is located in front of the lens
110
Where is the posterior chamber
Below the lens
111
What is the aqueous humor
It is produced in the posterior chamber by the ciliary body and drained in the anterior chamber by the canal of schlemm
112
What is the vitreous humor
Contains clear gelatinous fluid that fills the whole back of the eye
113
What is the lens
A soft translucent layers of fibers that are elastic and biconvex this helps focus a clear image on the retina through the accommodation process
114
What are the two sections of an eye examination
External looking for discharge, redness, squinting, tearing, lacerations, ulcers, and growths and internal looking for a cloudy appearance, opacities, and hemorrhaging
115
What is used for evaluating the eye
Ophthalmoscope
116
What are signs of ophthalmic pain
Blepharospasm (squinting), pawing/rubbing, photophobia (fear of light/avoiding light), tearing, and withdrawn
117
What are responsible for tear production
Lacrimal gland (primary tear gland in the dorsolateral aspect of the top eyelid) and nictitans gland
118
What are the 3 components of tears
Mucin (mucus), aqueous, and lipid
119
What are the causes for an unhealthy eye
Any deviation of the composition of the eye
120
What is the function of tears
Provide oxygen and nutrients, flush debris, hydration of cornea, and inhibit bacterial growth
121
What is a schirmer tear test
Assess tear production, you hold a strip in place for a min, normal value is >15-20 mm, value of <5 mm is indicative of dry eye, and this should be done before any other testing as results are affected by other liquids put into the eye
122
What is the medical term for dry eye
Keratoconjuctivitis sicca
123
What is fluorescein stain
Screening for corneal ulceration/abrasion, use black light to highlight stain uptake, water soluble so the epithelial layer of cornea wont take up stain, and stain uptakes only if disruption is deeper than the 1st corneal layer
124
What is tonometry
Intraocular pressure measurement (IOP), desensitize cornea w/ numbing drops prior to administering test, normal IOP is 10-30 mmHg, and either the tonopen and tonovet can be used
125
What is the tonopen
Appentation that taps the center of the cornea multiple times for an avg
126
How is the tonovet
Rebounds off the corneal surface producing a pressure
127
What is uveitis
Inflammation of the uvea leading to decreased IOP, clinical signs, and is treated w/ mydriatic
128
What is glaucoma
Gradual increase in IOP that causes blindness it is very painful and is treated w/ miotic
129
What are cataracts
Opacity/calcification in lens, seen in conjunction w/ diabetes, and can be hereditary
130
What is conjunctivitis
Inflammation of the conjunctivia that can be bacterial or viral and symptoms are redness and inflammation
131
What is cherry eye
Prolapse of a gland in nicitating membrane
132
What are first aid eye treatments
Cold compresses, bandage both eyes, and do not apply pressure
133
What should you do w/ a foreign body in and outside a globe
If it is in the globe don't remove it and if it is outside the globe you can flush it out
134
What is proptosis
Eye prolapses beyond eyelids you must keep the eye moist if this occurs
135
What is the entropion
Eye lids roll towards the eye common in shar pei
136
What is ectropoin
Eye lids drop lower than it should common in bassests
137
What is epiphora
Over production of tears
138
What is distichiasis
Extra eyelashes growing from an abnormal area
139
What is trichiasis
Eyelids growing toward the eye
140
What is descemetocele
Corneal ulcer that goes down to the descremens membrane
141
What are mydriatic
Dialate pupil
142
What is miotic
Constrict pupil
143
Want is anisocoria
Different size of pupil
144
What is myosis
Constriction of the eye
145
What is mydriosis
Dialation of the eye
146
What is active immunity
Long lasting immunity, acquired or natural, and the body takes an active role producing antibodies when exposed to antigen
147
What is passive immunity
Short acting immunity and acquired by transfer of antibodies
148
How long should animals have have decrease exposure to infectious microorganisms due to passive immunity
Until at least 12 weeks of age
149
How does passive immunity interfere w/ vaccines
Because the passive immunity may prevent the body from mounting an immune response to a vaccine this is why we give mulitple of certain vaccines
150
What vaccine info should be recorded in a patients medical history
Record lot number, serial number, and where the vaccine was given on the animal
151
When do we decide certain vacciens should be given
When the animal has a realistic risk of exposure to a pathogen that has the potential for development of a serious disease
152
What are the 3 main important reasons to vaccinate
Protect individuals against disease, prevent transmission of infection on larger scale, and decrease potential for zoonotic disease transmission
153
What things can affect the protection a vaccine provides
Immunocompromised, concurrent disease or infection, poor nutrition, certain meds, stress, maternally derived antibodies, and poor compliance
154
What are killed vaccines
Inactive/non infectious vaccines, stable, is not disease causing, and contains adjuvant
155
What is an adjuvant
Added to a non infectious vaccine to enhance the immune response
156
What is a MLV
Active/infectious vaccine, is less stable, has the potential to cause disease, attenuated, and causes a higher immune response
157
What is a recombinant vaccine
Has a questionable strength of immune reponse and the potential to cause disease
158
What by definition is a core vaccine
Recommended for all, the disease has a significant morbidity, the dieases has a significant mortality, widely distributed, good protection from vaccination, and low incidence of adverse reactions
159
What by definition is non core vaccines
Optional, we consider individual animal exposure risk, self limiting, easily treated, moderate efficacy, and has +/- association w/ adverse reaction
160
What are the canine core vaccines
Parvovirus (CPV), distemper (CDV), adenovirus (CAV2), +/- parainfluenza (CPiV), rabies, and lepto
161
What are canine non core vaccines
Bordetella, lyme, influenza, western diamondback rattlesnake
162
What are core feline vaccines
Herpesvirus (FHV-1), panleukopenia (FCV), calicivirus (FCV), +/- leukemia (FeLV), and rabies
163
What are feline non core vaccines
Chlamydia and bordetella
164
When does the risk of feline leukemia increase
Around 1 year of life
165
When can a kitten be vaccinated for panleukopenia, rhinotracheitis, and calicivirus (MLV)
Begin as early as 6 weeks and repeat every 3-4 weeks until 16-20 weeks of age
166
When can FeLV be given to kittens
Begin as early as 8 weeks and give 2 doses 3-4 weeks apart
167
When can rabies be given to a kitten
Must be at least 12 weeks old and given in a single dose
168
Where is feline 3 way or 4 way given w/o feline leukemia
On FR
169
Where is rabies administered on a cat
On RH
170
Where is FeLV given
On LH
171
When can puppies be vaccinated for parovirus, hepatitis, and distemper (MLV)
Begin as early as 6 weeks and repeat every 3-4 weeks until 14-16 weeks of age
172
When can bordetella be given to puppies
Parenteral can be given at 8 weeks and 12 weeks and intranasal can be given at 3-4 weeks of age
173
What are recombinant vaccines
Using a specific part of a germ to produce a strong immune response
174
When are vaccines not recommended
Disease involved are of little significance, disease respond readily to treatment, vaccines only have minimal efficacy, and associated w/ adverse effect
175
What are signs of dental disease
Persistent bad breath, gums that bleed easily, sensitivity around the tooth, pawing at the mouth, gums that are red, inflamed, hyperplastic, or receding, loss of appetite, stomach or intestinal upset, drooling, purulent exudate (pus) around the tooth, loose or missing teeth, difficulty chewing or eating, and irritability or depression
176
What is the etiology of dental disease
Gingivitis (reversible), plaque (bacteria release endotoxins), tartar/calculus, destruction of periodontium, periodontitis, tissue becomes necrotic and feeds off bacteria (becomes systemic), loss of periodontium, tooth attachment is lost, bone loss, and tooth falls out
177
What is the crown
Portion above the gumline
178
What is the root
Portion below the gumline
179
Where is the neck of the tooth
Btw the crown and root
180
What is the enamel
Hard outer surface above the gum line
181
What is dentin
Middle largest part of the tooth and is sensitive to heat/cold
182
What is cementum
Outer layer below the gum line
183
What is the pulp
Where the tooths blood vessels and nerves are located
184
What is the apex
The bottom of the root where the blood vessels and nerves enter the tooth
185
What is furcation
The split btw 2 roots
186
What is the alveolar bone
Supports tooth w/ the cortical bone making the tooth socket
187
What is the periodontal ligament
Surrounds root attaches tooth to the socket
188
What is the periodontium
Comprised of the gingiva, periodontal ligament, cementum, and alveolar bone
189
What are endodontics
Treatment w/in the tooth such as root canals
190
What are exodontics
Procedures outside the tooth
191
What is malocclusion
Bad lining of the tooth
192
What is plaque
Bacteria/saliva film
193
What is tartar/calculus
Hard plaque
194
What is the gingival sulcus
Moat of gum
195
What does labial mean
Towards lips
196
What does buccal mean
Towards gums
197
What does palatal mean
Towards the palate of the mouth
198
What is grade 1 periodontal disease
Gingivitis is present but can be reversed
199
What is stage 2 of periodontal disease
Adv gingivitis/early periodontitis this is when we recommend a dental so we can reverse the damage
200
What is grade 3 periodontal disease
Periodontitis occurs, the tooth is mobile, extractions are needed, and possible frucation exposure
201
What is grade 4 periodontal disease
Adv periodontitis, gum is nacrotic, frucation is present, and the tooth is absolute mobile
202
What is the dental formula for an adult cat
2(I3/3, C1/1, P3/2, M1/1) = 30
203
What is the dental formula for a kitten
2d(I3/3, C1/1, P3/2) = 26
204
What is the dental formula for an adult dog
2(I3/3, C1/1, P4/4, M2/3) = 42
205
What is the dental formula for a puppy
2d(I3/3, C1/1, P3/3) = 28
206
Where do we give nerve blocks
Thru the mental and infraorbitial foramens
207
What does COHAT mean
Comprehensive Oral Health Assessment and Treatment
208
What is prophylaxis
A measure taken for the prevention of disease
209
What are the steps of a prophylaxis
Oral examination, measure gingival sulcus depth, subgingival curettage, ultrasonic scaling, polishing, rinse, reprobe, explore, and sealant/flouride
210
What are you looking for during your oral examination
This should have an intraoral component where you are looking for at the general health/hydration status, for mucous membrane color, ulcers, gingivitis, tumors, foreign bodies, malocclusions, gum recession, calculus buildup, glossitis, loose/fractured/missing teeth, retained deciduous teeth and an extraoral exam where you are looking for retropulsion of globes, symmetry, wounds, discharge, salivary glands, and lymph nodes
211
How do you measure gingival sulcus depth
Use calibrated periodontal probe holding it parallel to the long axis of the tooth while working completely around each tooth normal measurements are 0-3 mm for dogs and 0-1 mm for cats
212
What is the subginigival curettage phase
Use the curette subgingivally to remove plaque below the gum line w/o this step bacteria and toxins will continued to get released in the bloodstream
213
What is the most important step of the dental prophylaxis
The subgingival curettage step
214
What is the ultrasonic scaling step of a dental prophylaxis
Using a modified pen grasp to manually break the hardened tartar this can only be in contact w/ the tooth for 15 seconds to prevent excessive heat and thermal damage, this should only be done supragingivally, and the patients head position is important to prevent aspiration of fluid
215
How do you set up the ultrasonic scaler
Turn the power off, get a stream of water, then turn the power on until it looks good
216
What is a hand scale
Sharp scalers supragingivally if the ultrasonic machine breaks or if you need to get into small cracks that the ultrasonic scaler cannot reach
217
What is the polishing step
Smooths the pits, scratches, and irregular surfaces you made during the dental both sub and supragingivally this makes it harder for bacteria to colonize and adhere to the tooth this can only be on the tooth for 5 secs to prevent thermal damage
218
What is the rinse step of the prophylaxis
Rinse the mouth w/ antimicrobial dental rinse to remove excess polish paste and leave a coating on the teeth
219
What is the reprobe step of a dental prophylaxis
Sometimes large amounts of tartar is what is keeping the tooth solid after the removal of the plaque/tarter you can uncover a pocket that you couldn't get to when you probed the first time
220
What is the explore step of the dental prophylaxis
Use the emplorer or shepherds hook to very slightly run over each tooth to detect surface abnormalities such as leftover tartar, caries, or feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions (FORL), this should go down the gum line but not fully subgingivally
221
What is the sealant/flouride step of the dental prophylaxis
Strengthening the enamel and decreasing tooth sensitivity
222
How often should an owner be brushing their pet's teeth for it to be affective
2x a week
223
What is tooth radiology good for identifying
tooth/jaw fractures, root abscesses, draining fistulas, bone loss, and enlarged pulp cavity
224
What are elevators used for
Separating the periodontal ligament
225
What are kissing lessions
Gum biting
226
What are stomotitis
When the immune system of a cat attacks its mouth
227
What is supranumeroe
Extra teeth
228
What is the term for an overbite
brachygnathism
229
What is the term for underbite
Prognathism
230
What generates the electrons used for producing x-rays
The x-ray tube
231
How are x-rays generated
A series of collisions of the elctrons against matter
232
What is the maximum amount of radiation and individual can be exposed to in a year
0.05 SV/yr dose
233
What are the 3 most important things to do to increase safety in radiology
Decrase time of exposure, increase distance from object, and wear all protective equipment
234
What are butterfly catheters typically used for
Single use perivascular injections typically in the cephalic and saphenous veins and are likely to leave hematomas
235
How long are thru the needle central lines
6" to 36"
236
How are central lines attached to the patients body
Tape or sutures
237
How long can a central line be in the patient
5-7 days
238
How do we think about choosing the method of vascular access
Length of treatment expected, overall health of the animal, what veins are accessible, products to be administered through the catheter, and size of vessel
239
What is the general rule for placing catheters
The longer the catheter that is in the patient the more stable the catheter is
240
What sized catheter do we use for small puppies, kittens, and ferrets
24-22g and 3/4"-1"
241
What sized catheter do we use for small to med adult dogs
22-20g and 1"-2"
242
What sized catheter do we use for large adult dogs
18g and 1.5"-2"
243
What sized catheter do we use for adult cats
22-20g and 1"
244
What do we do once blood is seen in the hub of the catheter
Hold the stylet in place and fed the catheter
245
What is the difference btw osmosis and diffusion
Osmosis is the movement of water accross a concentration gradient while diffusion is solute particles moving across a concentration gradient
246
What cation has the largest osmotic pull
Na
247
How does fluid move in the body
Intravascular, interstitial , and intracellular
248
How can anesthesia affect the body resulting in fluid therapy
Hypotension, hypovolemia, metabolic acidosis, and general depressed circulation
249
How can surgery affect the body resulting in fluid therapy
Blood loss, drying of tissues, and removal of effusions
250
What are the 3 types of fluid loss
Sensible (measurable), insensible (not measurable), and comtemporary (ongoing)
251
What are the signs for slight (4%) dehydration
Skin resiliency is pliable, w/ skin turgor the twist will disappear immediately and a tent persists up to 2 ses, eyes are bright and slightly sunken, and the mouth is moist and warm
252
What are the signs for moderate (6-8%) dehydration
Skin resiliency is leathery, w/ skin turgor the twist disappears immediately and the tent persists for >3 secs, eyes are duller than normal and obviously sunken, and mouth is sticky to dry and warm
253
What are the signs for severe (10-12%) dehydration
Skin resiliency has no pliability, w/ skin turgor the twist and tent persists, the eyes will have a dry cornea and are deeply sunken (2-4mm), and the mouth is dry, cyanotic, and warm to cold
254
What are the 4 steps for calculating fluid rate
Fluid deficit, maintenance requirement, ongoing loss, and add them together
255
What percentages of fluid deficit should be given to the patient
80% should be given on day 1 and 20% should be given on day 2
256
What is the formula for calculating fluid deficit
Body weight (kg) * % dehydration (decimal)
257
What can fluids contain
Electrolytes, AA, CHOs, and vitamins
258
What are crystalloid fluids
Small particles that move freely in body and vessels examples are isotonic (0.9% NaCl), hypotonic (LRS+2.5% dextrose), and hypertonic (0.45% NaCl)
259
What are colloid fluids
Larger particles that stays in the vessel and cant get out helping maintain blood volume examples are blood products, hetastarch, and dextran
260
What are somethings that can occur due to fluid overload
Heart disease, renal disease, and pulmonary disease
261
What should be obtained before administration of fluids or medications
Pretreatment blood and urine samples
262
What is the most important aspect of any venipuncture technique
Proper restraint of the animal and proper distention and immobilization of the vessel
263
Why should the cephalic veins be the last site for collecting diagnostic samples
Because it may be needed for IV catheter placement
264
When should the jugular venipuncture should not be used in patients
If the patients have sustained head trauma, possible heat stroke, clotting abnormalities, and or snake bites
265
What kind of blood must be used for a blood gas
W/ arterial blood
266
What can tissue fluid cause in blood samples
They can initiate the clotting cascade
267
What is one of the best ways to asses pulmonary function
Thru measurement of arterial blood gases
268
What are the 3 layers of bandages
Primary layer that contacts the wound, secondary layer that provides structures and padding, and the tertiary layer holds and protects the other 2
269
What is the scentific name for ear mites
Otodectes cynotis
270
What is the academy of veterinary dental technicians comprised of
Technicians who have completed a credentials process and passed a specialty examination demonstrating their enhanced knowledge of vet dentistry
271
What are the 4 paired salivary glands in dogs and cats
Mandibular, sublingual, zygomatic, and parotid
272
What is the incisive papilla
Raised structure located at the midline behind the maxillary incisors in dogs and cats
273
How are probe depths that are greater than normal charted as
Pockets
274
Why should a dental radiograph machine be inspecteed regularly
For leakage
275
What are the common causes of upper respiratory viruses in cats
Feline herpesvirus type 1 and feline calicivirus
276
What vaccine can provide some temporary cross protection against canine distemper in young puppies
Measles
277
What is the 123 recommendation for biopsy or removal of a post vaccination mass
The mas is still growing after 1 month, the mass is greater than 2 cm, and the mass persists for longer than 3 months
278
What is the purpose of a facilitative incision or relief hole
Reduces skin tension and friction aginst the catheter it is indicated in severely dehydrated patients and in patients w/ tough skin
279
When should fluids be administered in the jugular vein
If the fluid or drug as an osmolality of greater than 600 mOsm/L
280
Why would hypotonic fluids be more ideal for patients w/ heart and kidney disease
Because they have a lower tolerance for sodium
281
Why are colloids ideal to use in resuscitation
Because of their tendency to remain w/in the vascular space and provide relatively efficient and prolonged volume expansion
282
Why is the IV route preferred for resuscitation, intraoperative fluid therapy, use in anesthetized patients, replacement of significant dehydration, ongoing loses, and in critical patients
Because of its ability to rapidly titrate fluid administration
283
What is done when a hospitilized patient obtains a random fever of unknown origin
All IV catheters should be removed and replaced in a different vein
284
What will afffect the drip rate when using a drip set
Any major change in the position of the patient or the fluid bag
285
When should a SQ route be avoided
In patients w/ severe compromise from dehydration, hypotension, or significant electrolyte imbalance
286
What route can be used for dosage calculations that are used fro IV resuscitation and replacement
IO
