Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Vet tech 1 > Tech lab midterm > Flashcards

Tech lab midterm Flashcards

(162 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of OSHA

A

Developing and enforcing workplace safety standards and workplace safety inspections have reduced employee injury and death rates and associated costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the employer responsibilities for employee safety

A

Develop a safety and policy manual, provide personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, goggles, aprons, and radiology gowns, train employees w/ safety and equipment, have a hazard communication standard, and commitment to safety and health of employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the employee responsibilities for safety

A

Comply w/ all workplace standards, read and understand all training available info, use PPE, report hazardous conditions to buisness owner, and report job related injury and/or illness to business owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are important safety guidelines w/ food

A

Eat and drink only in designated areas, keep coffeepots and utensils away from sources that would contaminate food, and store food in separate refrigerator from one used to store biological or chemical items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are machinery and equipment safety guidelines

A

Ensure proper guards in place and know proper operating procedures for all equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are electrical safety guidelines

A

Keep circuit breakers closed, dont remove outlet covers, ensure equipment properly grounded if using in wet area, extension cords are for temporary applications only, and surge suppressors not used w/ autoclaves, coffeepots, or portable heaters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the fire and evacuation safety standard guidelines

A

Never overload electrical outlets, use surge suppressors appropriately, store flammable liquids properly, flammable materials should be stored at least 3 feet from ignition source, become familiar w/ emergency exits, establish a meeting place, and know where fires extinguishers are and how to use them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be used if barking is prolonged in the kennel

A

Ear protection to avoid hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are bites, scratches, and kicks avoided

A

Use proper restraint and ensure your attention is on the animal during procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do most vet techs get exposed to zoonotic diseases

A

Bad habits such as inhalation, contact w/ broken skin, ingestion, contact w/ eyes and mucous membranes, and accidental inoculation w/ needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the standards for protection around radiation

A

PPE, stay out of the primary beam, wear monitoring device to measure exposure, increase distance from beam, avoid retakes, must be 18 years of age to take radiographs, and must avoid radiation exposure if pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is waste anesthetic gases

A

Gas and vapor leaked into room during medical procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are potential effects of exposure to waste gas

A

Nausea, dizziness, headache, fatigue, sterility, miscarriage, birth defects, liver and kidney damage, and cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are standards for protection against waste gas

A

Scavenging of waste anesthetic gas, leak free system, fill anesthetic gas in well ventilated area, annual maintenance of anesthetic machine, use appropriately sized equipment for animals, and respirator for personnel when pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should a written plan for hazardous chemicals include

A

General info about chemicals in the workplace, location of the hazardous communication plan, designated personnel responsible for adherence to hazcom standard, evaluate and update hazcom standard annually, container labeling, SDS library, employee training, and inventory or hazardous chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What info is included on the GHS label

A

Signal word, hazard statement, precautionary statements, product name or identifiers, symbols, and manufacturer info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is medical waste regulated by

A

Ind states and or environmental protection agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the protocol for infectious waste

A

Since it contains pathogens of sufficient virulence and quantity that exposure to waste to a human could result in infectious disease the material should be treated before disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are guidelines for OSHA inspections

A

Practice owner MUST be present, no employee is authorized to allow admittance unless there is a court order, and remember violations are very costly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the USDA

A

United States Department of Agriculture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does AC stand for

A

Animal Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does APHIS stand for

A

Animal Plant Health Inspection Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does AWA stand for

A

Animal Welfare Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What species are not covered under the AWA
Cold blooded species, farm animals used for food/fiber, fish, invertebrates, horses not used for research, rats, and mice
25
What types of animals does the AWA cover
Exhibited to the public, sold for pets, and used for research including to education
26
What are the important standards that are regulated by the AWA
Sanitation, housing, nutrition, veterinary care, temperature/humidity regulation, fresh water, and environmental enrichment
27
How are AWA standards enforced
An inspection occurs at all USDA licensed facilities in an unannounced routine fashion looking for animal health, wellness, facility inspection, pharmaceutical use, storage, labeling, and expiration date, food storage, labeling, and expiration date, OSHA compliance, and evaluating all facility records relating to animal care and use
28
Who preforms the AWA inspections
Veterinary Medical Officer (VMO) and Animal Care Inspector (ACI) who is special trained but not a vet
29
What does the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) allow
All records are publicly available
30
Who makes up the IACUC committee
Minimum of 3 members consisting of chairperson, attending vet, and non scientific non affiliated w/ institution
31
What are IACUC protocols
Detailed description of animal use, assessment of anticipated pain and distress levels, justification of the necessity of using live animals, number of animals to be used, qualifications of instructors, and euthanasia protocol
32
What are the 3 R's of research
Reduction, refinement, replacement
33
What is reduction
Any strategy that will result in fewer animals being used in research
34
What is refinement
Modifications of experimental procedures to minimize pain
35
What is replacement
Methods which avoid or replace the use of animals in research
36
What are the 4 F's regarding animals fear behavior
Freeze, flee, fidget about, and fight
37
What does FAS stand for
Fear, anxiety, and stress
38
What are a couple of examples of what SDS sheets are required for
Injectable drugs, drugs in liquid or capsule form, laboratory chemicals form, disinfectants/cleaners, topical medications, x-ray chemicals, inhalant anesthetics, compressed gas, and sterilization chemicals
39
What info must be put on a secondary label when a chemical is removed from the original container
Identification of the chemical, hazardous warnings, PPE needed, and storage/disposal requirements
40
What is classical conditioning
Learning by association
41
What is operant conditioning
Learning by trial and error
42
What are aversives
Forms of physical positive punishments
43
What are the two keys to aversives
Consistent and has to be enough to stop the behavior
44
What are general differences btw cats and dogs
Cats are independent, not very food motivated, and our preferences are not the cats
45
What does DDx stand for
Differential diagnosis
46
What is a physical exam comprised of
History + Gross Exam + Detailed Exam
47
What is signalment
Age, breed, sex, and reproductive status
48
What is environmental history
Indoor, outdoor, and other animals
49
What should be identified about the chief complaint an owner as when bringing their pet in
The duration, severity, progression, and frequency of the symptom
50
What does the gross exam consistent of
What you can see, hear, animals attitude, awareness, general appearance, gait, and mobility
51
What does the detailed exam consistent of
Hands on evaluation, systematic evaluation including finding weight, BCS, PR, HR/auscultation, RR/character
52
What is the normal range for temp
100.5-102.5
53
What is pyrexia
Raise in the core body temperature
54
What does febrile mean
Clinical fever
55
What is hyperthermic
Higher/evaluated temp and needs cooled
56
What is hypothermic
Lower/decreased temp
57
Where can you take a PR
Femoral artery, plantar pedal artery, dorsal pedal artery, and palmar pedal artery
58
What is the normal PR range for an adult medium dog
70-150 bpm
59
What is the normal PR range for an adult toy breed
180 bpm
60
What is the normal PR range for puppies
150-220 bpm
61
What is the normal PR range for adult cats
150-220 bpm
62
What are the various ways pulse can be characteristized
Normal, weak, thread, and bounding
63
How do you auscultate a heart
Place a stethoscope over the 5th intercostal space and listen to both right and left side
64
What do you listen to on the left side of the heart
The aortic (4th intercostal), pulmonic (3rd intercostal), and mitral valves (5th intercostal)
65
What do you listen to on the right side of the heart
Tricuspid valves (4th intercostal space)
66
What is tachycardia
Fast heart rate
67
What is bradycardia
Slow heart rate
68
What is pluse deficit
Pulse and HR aren't synchronous
69
What is arrhythmia
Disruption in rhythm
70
What is sinus arrhythmia
A disruption in the rhythm produced by the sinus node
71
Where do you auscultate the lungs
9 areas on each side
72
What are the abnormalities that can be seen in the respiratory rate
Rhythm, rate, and character such as shallow, labored, absence of sound, wheeze, and crackle/wet sounds
73
What are the normal dog and cat RRs
20 bpm and 25 bpm
74
What is dyspnea
Difficult/painful breathing
75
What is apnea
Not breathing
76
What is apneustic
Prolonged gasping inhalations followed by extremely short and inadequate exhalations
77
What is tachypnea
Fast RR
78
What is bradypnea
Slow RR
79
What is hyperventilation
Breathing too quickly or too deeply
80
What is hypoventilation
Breathing too slowly
81
What are you looking for when examine the integumentary system
Parasites, general condition of hair coat, irritation, lesions, flakes, growths, evidence of chewing/licking, and skin turgor
82
What is erythema
Skin redness
83
What is pruritus
Being itchy
84
What anatomical landmark can help you find the heart
The olecranon
85
What are the different MM colors
Pink (normal in dogs), Pale pink (normal for cats), yellow, white, blue, and brick red
86
What does prolonged CRT mean
Decrease in peripheral perfusion
87
What is decreased/shorter CRT mean
Increase in peripheral perfusion
88
What is the most important thing to consider when evaluating the gastrointestinal system
History
89
What anatomical structures are evaluated to asses the GIT
Teeth, tongue, pharynx, esophagus, rectal area, and abdominal palpation
90
What is brachygnathia
Shorting of the mandible
91
What is prognathic
A projection lower jaw
92
What is the most important thing when evaluating the urogenital tract
History
93
What anatomical things are evaluated when assessing the urogenital tract
Prepuce, penis, vulva, mammary tissue, and palpating kidneys, urinary bladder, uterus, and prostate gland
94
What is the difference in anatomical position btw the left and right kidneys
The right kidney is more cranial
95
What is pyometra
Uterus infection
96
What is anuria
Failure of the kidneys to produce urine
97
What is oliguria
Production of abnormal small amount of urine
98
What is dysuria
Painful/difficulty urination
99
What is looked for when assessing the musculoskeletal system
Muscles, bone, joints, symmetry, gait, pain, swelling, and atrophy
100
What are we looking for in the CNS
Facial paralysis, blink response, stimuli response, nystagmus, aniscoria, and pupillary light response
101
What is aniscoria
Different sized pupil
102
What are the different lymph nodes
Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, induinal, and popliteal
103
What do we look for when evaluating the ears
Smell, discharge, inflammation, head tilt, parasites, and infection
104
What do we look for when evaluating the eyes
DIscharge, position of eyelid, cornea, and pupils
105
What is epiphora
Having excess tears or watery eyes
106
What does PLR stand for
platelet to lymphocyte ratio
107
What is entropion
Eyelid is turned inward
108
What is ectropion
Eyelid is turned outward
109
How is the spinal cord assessed
Conscious proprioception, reflexes, and pain perception
110
What are the methods for pilling cats
Manual, pill gun, pill pockets, food, and cheese whiz/butter
111
What are the methods used to pill dogs
Manual, food, pill gun, and pill pockets
112
What can happen when pills get stuck in the esophagus
Esophagitis and esophageal ulceration
113
What are gelcaps
Empty capsules that you can put multiple pills and bitter pills in
114
Where do you strive to put liquid medication in dogs
Cheek pouch
115
What are topicals
Creams, ointments, transdermal gels, patches, and intrarectal
116
How do you apply ocular medications
Stabilize hand on the side of an animals head, hold about an inch away, apply a drop, and make sure not to touch the tip on the eye
117
What are nebulizers used for
Respiratory medications
118
What does MDI stand for
Metered Dose Inhalers
119
How do we encourage eating
Drugs to stimulate an appetite, encouragement, and force tube feeding
120
What is orogastric tube feeding
A tube is passed from the mouth to the stomach or distal esophagus to deliver fluids and or medications
121
How do you measure an orogastric tube
Use a speculum to place a 10fr to 22fr red rubber catheter and mark it using tape or ink to mark outside of the tube for proper positioning from the mouth to the stomach by measuring from canine tooth to 13th rib or mouth to distal esophagus measuring from canine tooth to 8th or 9th rib
122
Why is orogastric tube feeding used
GDV, kittens/puppies, and medications
123
What is a nasoesophageal/nasogastric tube
A short term feeding tube placed from the nasal cavity to the esophagus. It is possible for them to vomit tube up so use w/ caution in vomiting patients, measure from nares to distal esophagus 8th rib and stomach 13th rib, placed using topical anesthetic and maybe sedation, only liquid food can be used here, and must be sutured or glued in
124
What is esophagostomy
Feeding tube placed mid cervical under anesthesia so it must be placed by a DVM, can stay in for wks to months, they can eat around the tube, it is well tolerated, and must be well maintained
125
What is a gastrostomy tube
A tube that starts and ends in the stomach, is placed surgical, bypasses proximal GIT, and can irritate the stomach
126
What is a jejunostomy
A feeding tube that starts and ends in the SI, bypasses the stomach, requires predigested foods, can cause cramping and diarrhea, and is only placed by a DVM under anesthesia
127
What are patches
Impregnated w/ mediations released over a period of time
128
What are MDIs used for
Asthma
129
What is pharmacokinetics
What the body does to a drug such as its movement into, through, and out
130
What is ADME
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
131
What is the bioavailability of drugs
Degree of drug that enters circulation which is largely determined by route of administration or absorption
132
What is distribution of a drug
Perfusion to target tissue
133
What is the metabolism of the drug
Done by the liver, enzymes alter the drug, and those metabolites are less biologically active
134
What is the excretion of drugs
Eliminate drugs from the body thru the renal system, GIT, and exhalation
135
What is pharmacodynamics
What a drug does to the body, biochemical, physiologic, molecular effects of drug on body, receptor binding, and chemical interactions
136
What are the general characteristics about giving injections
Use an alcohol stopper, draw up contents into syringe, remove any air in syringe, change needle before injection, label syringe, verify the label on bottle the drug and concentration, the patient, route of administration, and dosage, aseptic technique using alcohol, quick stick, dont dart, aspirate for placement, and inject
137
What are routes of administration influenced by
Form of drug, onset of action, and irritation to tissue
138
What are the absorption rates are directly dependent on
Vasculature to the area meaning the route of administration determines onset of action
139
What is the injection degree of the needle when injecting SQ
45 degree angle
140
What is the process of injecting IM
Isolate muscle to avoid the sciatic nerve, wipe injection site w/ alcohol, insert needle appox 90 degrees to muscle, aspirate to observe for blood, inject medication, remove needle, and massage area
141
When are IV injections given
When the medication irritation to tissues
142
Where are IV injections given
Cephalic vein, lateral saphenous (dog), medial saphenous (cat), jugular vein (common in large animals)
143
What is the process of giving IV injections
Visualize vessel w/ occlusion, wipe injection site w/ alcohol, stabilize vessel w/ non dominant hand, insert needle w/ bevel up parallel to vessel, aspirate to observe blood flow, if blood observed release tourniquet, give injection, apply digital pressure over insertion site, w/draw needle, and maintain digital pressure to prevent bleeding or hematoma formation
144
What does IP stand for
Intraperitoneal
145
What does ID stand for
Intradermal
146
What does IN stand for
Intranasal
147
What does IT stand for
Intratracheal
148
What does IC stand for
Intracardiac
149
What are the 5 Rs
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time/freq
150
What is the rule of 3 when reading drugs
Read as pulling off the shelf, read when drawing up, and read when u put back on the shelf
151
In emergent situations what is the most important piece of information used to stabilize the patient
The presenting complaint
152
What does an appropriate oropharyngeal examination include
Both open mouth and closed mouth examinations
153
What two things must be visualized to preform an appropriate ear exam
Vertical and hoizontal canals
154
What should be done for patients in significant respiratory distress prior to performing a complete respiratory exam
The patient should be placed on oxygen
155
What does a complete cardiac exam include
Assessment of perfusion status, HR, heart rhythm, and heart sounds
156
What is the most important part of the exam for intact patients
Urogenital exam and mammary palpation
157
What should be done in patients that present w/ lameness
All limbs should be thoroughly examined to allow comparisons to be made and to isolate the affected area
158
In an emergency large animal situation what is appropriate exam form
Perform the PE prior to taking a history
159
Where is the most convenient place to obtain a pulse in large animals
The point where the facial artery crosses the ventromedial aspect of the mandible
160
What visualization can be important for GI disease diagnosis
The abdominal silhouette
161
When should pleural filling be on your ddx list
When the patient is presenting w/ tachpnea short shallow breaths, respiratory distress, open mouth breathing, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis

Vet tech 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions