Lab Practical Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 Hardy-Weinberg Assumptions?

A
  1. Large Population
  2. Random Mating
  3. No Net Mutation
  4. Isolated Population (closed)
  5. No Natural Selection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg Equation? What equation can be used to calculate allele frequencies?

A

1 = p^2 + 2pq + q^2

p + q = 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, what does p^2 stand for?

A

Expected frequency of the dominant homozygous genotype, AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, what does q^2 stand for?

A

Expected frequency of the recessive homozygous genotype, aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, what does 2pq stand for?

A

Expected frequency of the heterozygous genotype, Aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, what does p stand for?

A

The allelic frequency of the dominant allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, what does q stand for>

A

The allelic frequency of the recessive allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Founder Effect?

A

A small, non-representative sample of a population begins a new population with a new genotype frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a population bottleneck?

A

A population is reduced, and a small gene pool rebuilds the population with little genetic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the value of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem?

A

It is a null model that can be used to see if evolution is occuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A population of cheetahs was greatly reduced to only 20. Te population rebounded, but the genetic diversity didn’t. This is an example of _________.

A

Population Botltleneck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A random change in allele frequencies in a population is ____ _______

A

Genetic Drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A small group of individuals from a population founded a new habitat and their allele frequencies did not mirror that of the parent generation. This is an example of _________________.

A

Founder Effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a change in allele frequencies between generations within a population or small group, especially over a short period of time?

A

Microevolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What equation can be used to calculate expected dominant phenotype frequencies?

A

2pq + p^2 / (p^2 + 2pq + q^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What equation can be used to calculate expected recessive phenotype frequencies?

A

2pq + q^2 / (p^2 + 2pq + q^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or false: Genetic drift can occur even when all H-W conditions are met

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false: Genetic drift is more likely in a small population

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four agents of evolution?

A
  1. Natural Selection
  2. Genetic Drift
  3. Gene flow
  4. Mutation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Under this species concept, a group of organisms are classified in the same species if they appear morphologically identical.

A

Morphological Species Concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Under the ______ ______ ______, organisms are classified as the same as the same species if they have identical DNA sequences.

A

Molecular Species Concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a theory that defines a species as two organisms that are able to successfully mate and reproduce?

A

Biological Species Concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is low genetic diversity an issue in species conservation?

A
  • low genetic diversity causes a population to not be able to adapt to a new environment
  • low genetic diversity can lead to the “march to homozygosity”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three similarities between organisms that can be used to define a species?

A
  1. morphology
  2. characters
  3. genetic makeup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are species defined in the ecological species concept?

A

Species are defined by ecological niche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are species?

A

Groups that are similar in morphology, characters, or genetic makeup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the unmodified character state?

A

Ancestral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the modified character state?

A

Derived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

_________ is an observable trait of an organism

A

Character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a character state of the character forelimbs?

A

no forelimbs, two forelimbs, or four forelimbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a homologous character?

A

characters found in two or more species and are derived from the same structure in a common ancestor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an apomorophy?

A

A new or descendant character state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a synapomorphy?

A

A shared derived character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a plesiomorphy?

A

Ancestral character state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A shared ancestral character state is __________

A

Symplesiomorphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a monophyletic group?

A

All members of the group and all descendants share the same, most recent ancestor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

_________ groups result when an ancestral group, but not all of its descendants, are included

A

Paraphyletic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the group called when the organisms in the group do not share the most recent common ancestor?

A

Polyphyletic group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a clade?

A

A group of taxa consisting of an ancestor and all descendants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What occurs at a node?

A

A speciation event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a homoplasious character?

A

A character that does not agree with the hypothesized tree and is represented with an asterisk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A _________ shows evolutionary relationships among organisms

A

phylogeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

_________ means that the simplest explanation for phylogenetic relationships is the best explanation

A

parsimony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the consistency index equation?

A

sum (n-1)/ number of state changes

n = number of character differences for a specific trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the CI scale? Which end do you want to be closer to? What does it mean if CI = 1

A
  • Scale: 0-1
  • Close to 1
  • no homoplasy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an analogous character?

A

same function, different structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the five characteristics of monocots?

A
  1. one cotyledon
  2. parallel veins
  3. Fibrous root system
  4. Flowers in multiples of threes
  5. Scattered vascular bundles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the five characteristics of eudicots?

A
  1. More than one cotyledon
  2. net-like veins
  3. tap roots
  4. Flowers in fours or fives
  5. Vascular bundles in a ring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of the xylem?

A

tissues responsible for transporting water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of the phloem?

A

tissues responsible for the transport of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do the ripened ovaries plus the seeds of a plant make up?

A

The Fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are angiosperms?

A

Flowering Plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The angiosperm plant body is made up of what two parts?

A

The root system and shoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the outer layer of a tree called?

A

Cork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What compromises the bark?

A

Cortex and phloem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

From outside to inside, what are the layers of the tree?

A

cortex, phloem, and xylem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are characteristics of the spring wood?

A

light, large-celled wood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are characteristics of summer wood?

A

denser, darker, small celled wood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Flowers are a type of ________ ______?

A

Modified Leaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the sterile parts of the flowers?

A

Sepals and Petals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the male parts of the plant?

A

The stamens, composed of the filament and anther

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What part of the plant produces pollen?

A

anther

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the female parts of the plant?

A

Pistil, composed of the ovary, style, and stigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What part of the plant is receptive to pollen?

A

Stigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What kind of fertilization occurs in angiosperms?

A

Double fertilization

66
Q

What does the ovary contain?

A

Ovules, which becomes the seed

67
Q

What is a rhizome?

A

A stem modification where the stem is partly in the round, horizontal, and has roots on the bottom(Iris)

68
Q

What is a stolon?

A

A stem modification where the stem grows horizontally over the ground (strawberries)

69
Q

What is a tuber?

A

A stem modification where the stem is underground and develops from the tip of a rhizome (white or Irish potato)

70
Q

What is a corm?

A

A stem modification. A thick, underground stem. Food is stored in the stem (gladioulus)

71
Q

What is a rosette?

A

A stem modification. A short, upright shoot with whorled internodes that appear whorled in arrangement at the ground level (dandelion)

72
Q

What is a stem succulence?

A

A stem modification. A thick, fleshy stem specialized for water storage. (cactus)

73
Q

What is a leaf tendril?

A

A leaf modification. A coiled structure that attaches a plant for support. (pea)

74
Q

What is a Bract?

A

A leaf modification. The leaf may be reduced or different from the others on a stem and found just below the flower. (the colored bracts of a poinsetta)

75
Q

What are insectivorous leaves?

A

A leaf modification. Leaves are specialized for trapping and digesting insects (Venus fly trap)

76
Q

What is a spine?

A

A Leaf Modification. A hard, sharp-pointed structure (cactus)

77
Q

Are true wood plants eudicots or monocots?

A

Eudicots

78
Q

What part of the brain is involved in coordination of movement?

A

Cerebellum

79
Q

the ________ part of the brain is responsible for consciousness and reasoning

A

Cerebrum

80
Q

What is white matter in the brain that connects the left and right hemispheres?

A

Corpus Callosum

81
Q

What part of the brain controls basic autonomic functions such as breathing and heart rate?

A

Medulla Oblongata

82
Q

What does the pituitary gland do?

A

Secretes hormones that regulate growth, development, and the thyroids

83
Q

What does the pons do?

A

Relays sensory information to the cerebrum and cerebellum

84
Q

What part of the brain relays sensory information signals from the senses to the cerebrum and is the main “switchboard” relay center of the brain?

A

Thalamus

85
Q

What are the three domains of living organisms?

A

Bacteria, archaea, and eukarya

86
Q

What are the two types of bacteria?

A
  • Autotrophic (make own food; cyanobacteria)

- Heterotrophic (obtain energy from preformed organic molecules

87
Q

What four groups fall under eukaryotes?

A

Plants, animals, protists, fungi

88
Q

What are protists, and how do they get their energy?

A
  • Anything that is not a plant, animal, or fungi

- Can be heterotrophic, autotrophic, or mixotrophic

89
Q

How do fungi reproduce and how do they get their food?

A

They reproduce through Budding and obtain their food through absorption

90
Q

Cell wall, multicellular, primarily photoautotrophic, and chloroplasts describe what?

A

Plant

91
Q

An organism that is multicellular, has no cell wall, and contains membrane bound organelles is a what?

A

Animal

92
Q

What phyla is a sponge?

A

Porifera

93
Q

What phyla are jellyfish and corals?

A

Cnidaria

94
Q

What is an example of an organism in the platyhelminthes phylum?

A

Flat worm

95
Q

What is an example of an organism in the Mollusca Phylum?

A

Snails, octopus

96
Q

What phylum are segmented worms in?

A

Annelida

97
Q

What phylum are round worms in?

A

Nematoda

98
Q

What are examples of organisms in the phylum arthropoda?

A

insects, crabs

99
Q

What are examples of organisms in the phylum Echinodermata?

A

Starfish and sand dollars

100
Q

What phylum do humans and other vertabrates fall under?

A

Chordata

101
Q

What does the theory of endosymbiosis state?

A

the ancestors of mitochondria and chloroplasts were once free-living bacteria

102
Q

The majority of prokaryotes are surrounded by a ______.

A

Cell wall

103
Q

What organisms are able to live in extreme environments?

A

Archaea

104
Q

How do prokaryotes obtain their energy?

A

prokaryotes can be autotrophic, lithotrophic, or hetertrophic

105
Q

What is a type of autotrophic bacteria?

A

Cyanobacteria

106
Q

What are two types of heterotrophic bacteria and what are their shapes?

A

Cocci (sperical) and Bacilli (rod)

107
Q

What are two types of heterotrophic protists?

A

Amoebae and Paramecia

108
Q

Spirogyra and Volvox look like what? And what are they?

A
  • Autotrophic protists
  • Spriogyra (spiral)
  • Volvox (spheres grouped into colonies)
109
Q

Plants, animals, and fungi are _______ organisms, where as protists are ________ and can form _________.

A

multicellular, unicellular, colonies

110
Q

What is the selective pressure against the evolution of multicellular organisms?

A

There is an upper limit to cell size in unicellular organisms. As a cell increases in size, the volume increases faster than the surface area. Since a cell takes up nutrients through the surface, large cells would lack enough surface area to provide nutrients to the entire cell.

111
Q

Mushrooms, molds, and yeasts are types of what?

A

fungi

112
Q

Aspergillus is a type of what? What does it look like?

A

fungi, it has spores

113
Q

What is a type of fungi that reproduce through budding?

A

Yeast

114
Q

What do plant cells have that animals do not?

A

cell wall, large central vacuole, chloroplasts

115
Q

What is the first embryo in a developing embryo?

A

Blastopore

116
Q

The blastopore in a protostome will develope into a ______. The blastopore in a deuterostome will develope into a ________.

A

Mouth, anus

117
Q

Protostomes and deuterstomes are triploblastic, meanin what?

A

The develope into three layers, the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm

118
Q

_______ is a fluid-filled cavity in the mesoderm.

A

coelom

119
Q

Only ________ animals have a coelem.

A

Triploblastic

120
Q

In triploblastic animals, what are the three types of body plans and what does each mean?

A
  1. acoelomate- coelom is completely filled with mesoderm, leaving no cavity
  2. pseudocoelomate- coelom is lined with mesoderm on one side and endoderm on the other
  3. coelomate- coelom is completely lined with mesoderm tissue
121
Q

What are the three type of symmetry and what do they mean?

A
  1. Asymmetry- no symmetry
  2. Radial Symmetry- mirror image is formed with any division down the central axis
  3. bilateral symmetry- single plane of symmetry
122
Q

What four things are characteristic to all chordates?

A
  1. Notochord
  2. Dorsal, Hollow Nerve Chord
  3. Pharyngeal Gill Slits
  4. Muscular post-anal tail
123
Q

What phylum has no symmetry? Which one has radial symmetry? What type of symmetry do the rest have?

A
  • porifera
  • Cnidaria
  • Bilateral
124
Q

Which phyla are deuterstomes?

A

Echinodermata and chordata

125
Q

What is the only diplo-blastic phylum?

A

Cnidaria

126
Q

Which phyla have an exoskeleton, and which have an endoskeleton?

A
  • Exo: mollusca, nematoda, arthropoda

- Endo: echinodermata, chordata

127
Q

Which two phyla do not have true tissues?

A

platyhelminthes, porifera

128
Q

What bones comprise the skull?

A

The frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, and facial bones

129
Q

What is the hole at the base of the skull that serves as the spinal chord entrance called?

A

Foramen magnum

130
Q

What is the order of vertrabrae?

A

Cervical (atlas, axis), thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal

131
Q

Which vertabrae are attached to the ribs?

A

thoracic

132
Q

Which vertabrae are attached to the pelvic bone?

A

sacral

133
Q

Which vertabrae makes up the tail?

A

Caudal

134
Q

Which vertabrate make up the neck?

A

Cervical, including the atlas and axis

135
Q

What is movement toward or away from a stimulu?

A

Taxis

136
Q

What is a change in activity rate in response ot a stimulus?

A

Kinesis

137
Q

If organisms show no preference and their choice is random, this is called a ______ _______.

A

Null hypothesis

138
Q

In a chi-square analysis, what does the p value represent, and what value is used for this?

A
  • the probability that the results are due to random chance

- p = .05

139
Q

What is the critical value in a chi-square analysis? If the chi-square value is over the critical value, what does this mean?

A

critical value= 3.84
-If the chi-square value is over this, the null hypothesis is rejected. If it is less, you have failed to reject your null hypothesis

140
Q

What is the chi-square equation?

A

x^2 = (observed - Expected)^2 / Expected

ADD TOTALS

141
Q

What equation can be used to relate the number of species to island area? What do the variables stand for? What equation can be used to graph the information?

A
S = CA^z
S= number of species
C = The value of S at A=1
A = Area of the island 
logS= logC + zlogA 
z = slope
142
Q

Islands are in equilibrium with what two forces?

A

immigration of new species and extinction of existing species

143
Q

True or false: According to area effect, a larger island should have more species at equilibrium than a smaller island the same distance from the mainland

A

True

144
Q

True or false: An island closer to the mainland will have less species at equilibrium than one farther from the mainland?

A

False

145
Q

Near or toward the head end

A

Anterior

146
Q

near or toward the tail end

A

Caudal

147
Q

Far from a point of reference

A

Distal

148
Q

Near or toward the back

A

Dorsal

149
Q

Near or toward the sides, left, or right

A

Lateral

150
Q

Near or toward the middle

A

Median

151
Q

Near or toward the hind end

A

Posterior

152
Q

Close to the point of reference

A

Proximal

153
Q

Near or toward the belly

A

Ventral

154
Q

What kinds of skeletons does a crab, lamprey, polychaete, and squid have?

A

crab - exoskeleton
lamprey - endoskeleton
polychaete - none
squid- endoskeleton

155
Q

How do the crab, lamprey, polychaete, and squid accomplish gas exchange?

A

crab, squid, and lamprey - gills

polychaete- parapodia

156
Q

Of the crab, lampre, polychaete, and squid, which has an open circulatory system?

A

crab

157
Q

How do the crab, lamprey, polychaete,and squid accomplish osmoregulation?

A

crab- antennal glands
lamprey- kidneys
polychaete and squid- nephridia

158
Q

Of the crab, lamprey, polychaete, and squid, which is the only deuterostome?

A

lamprey

159
Q

Of the crab, lamprey, polychaete, and squid, which is the only one with a brain? What kind of nervous system do the others have?

A
  • Lamprey has a brain

- Others have central ganglion

160
Q

Where are razor blades, broken glass, and sharp items disposed?

A

The sharps container

161
Q

What is placed in the biohazard bin?

A

live microorganisms, discarded tissue, blood waste