lab two: osteology - the axial skeleton Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
how many bones do humans have at birth?
A
300 bones
2
Q
how many bones do we have as adults?
A
206-213 bones
3
Q
what are the two major categories of the skeletal system?
A
axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
4
Q
axial skeleton
A
consists of 80 bones
5
Q
appendicular skeleton
A
consists of 126 bones
6
Q
what are the five major functions of the skeletal system?
A
support, movement, protection, storage of minerals, and production of blood cells
7
Q
what are the major bones of the cranium?
A
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla, and mandible
8
Q
bones of the adult skeleton are compromised of what two basic kinds of osseous tissue that differ in their texture?
A
compact bone and spongy bone
9
Q
compact bone
A
looks smooth and homogeneous
10
Q
spongy bone
A
composed of small trabeculae (tiny beams and struts) of bone and lots of open spaces
11
Q
what are the different classifications of bone based on their gross anatomy?
A
long, short, flat, sesamoid, and irregular
12
Q
long bones
A
longer than they are wide and generally consist of a shaft with heads at either end
13
Q
long bones are primarily composed of _____
A
compact bone
14
Q
short bones
A
roughly cube-shaped and contain more spongy bone than compact bone
ex: carpals
15
Q
flat bones
A
generally flattened along a major aspect of their geometry, but can be curved with two wafer-like layers of compact bone between a layer of spongy bone
ex: sternum
16
Q
examples of flat bone that are curved
A
ribs and occipital bone
17
Q
irregular bones
A
do not fit into the other categories due to their irregular morphology
ex: vertebra
18
Q
bones are encapsulated in a _____
A
periosteum
19
Q
periosteum
A
tough, fibrous membrane that covers the compact bone surface and appears shiny and glossy
20
Q
the periosteum is made up of what two layers?
A
an outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer
21
Q
outer fibrous layer of periosteum
A
layer where muscle tendons and bone ligaments attach
22
Q
inner cellular layer of periosteum
A
layer that produces the osteoblasts
23
Q
osteoblasts
A
needed for bone growth; are eventually embedded in the bone matrix they produce and become osteocytes
24
Q
osteocytes
A
maintain bone tissue
25
diaphysis
a long, central shaft found in long bones
26
proximal epiphysis
on the end of the long bone closest to the trunk of the body
27
distal epiphysis
on the end of the long bone furthest away from the trunk of the body
27
wherever an epiphysis articulates with another bone, a layer of _____ covers the epiphysis
hyaline cartilage (articular cartilage)
28
the wall of the diaphysis is made of what?
compact bone
29
the interior of the diaphysis is hollow, forming a space called the _____
marrow (medullary) cavity
30
the vast majority of the medullary cavities in the long bone of adults contains a high concentration of lipids called _____
yellow marrow
31
endosteum
a membrane that lines the marrow cavity
32
metaphysis
located between the diaphysis and either epiphysis
33
the epiphyseal line forms in place of the _____
epiphyseal plate
34
what does the formation of the epiphyseal line indicate?
bone has transitioned from the juvenile stage to the adult stage
35
when does bone growth stop?
when cartilage of the epiphyseal plate disappears and is replaced by the bone (epiphyseal line)
36
epiphyseal line
bony remnant of the growth plate
37
flat bones are thin bones with no _____
marrow cavity
38
flat bones are made of a layer of _____ bone between superficial layers of _____ bone
spongy; compact
39
the compact bone layers collectively called the _____ of the bone and individually called the external and internal _____ are thick in order to provide strength for the bone
cortex; tables
40
the spongy bone between the tables is called the _____
diploe
41
the diploe is filled with _____
red marrow
42
red marrow
a type of loose connective tissue made up of stem cells from which all blood cells arise
43
bone markings
reveal where bones form joints with other bones, where muscles, tendons, and ligaments were attached, and where blood vessels and nerves pass
44
what are the two categories of bone markings?
projections and depression
45
projections
processes that grow out from the bone and serve as sites of muscle attachment or help form joints
46
depressions
indentations or openings in the bone that often serve as conduits for nerves and blood vessels
47
projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment
tuberosity, crest, trochanter, line, tubercle, epicondyle, spine, process
48
surfaces that form joints
head, facet, condyle, ramus
49
depressions and openings
foramen, groove, fissure, notch, fossa, meatus, sinus
50
tuberosity
large rounded projection
51
crest
narrow ridge of a bone; usually prominent
52
trochanter
very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process
53
line
narrow ridge of bone; less prominent than a crest
54
tubercle
small rounded projection or process
55
epicondyle
raised area on or above a condyle
56
spine
sharp, slender, often pointed projection
57
process
any bony prominence
58
head
body expansion carried on a narrow neck
59
facet
smooth, nearly flat articular surface
60
condyle
rounded articular projection, often articulates with a corresponding fossa
61
ramus
arm-like bar of bone
62
foramen
round or oval opening through a bone
63
groove
furrow
64
fissure
narrow, slit-like opening
65
notch
indentation at the edge of a structure
66
fossa
shallow basin-like depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface
67
meatus
canal-like passageway
68
sinus
bone cavity, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane
69
what passes through the olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate?
olfactory nerve I
70
what passes through the optic canal?
optic nerve II
71
what passes through the superior orbital fissure?
oculomotor nerve III, trochlear nerve IV, trigeminal nerve I, and abducens nerve VI
72
what passes through the foramen rotundum?
trigeminal nerve V
73
what passes through the foramen ovale?
trigeminal nerve V
74
what passes through the foramen lacerum?
no structure passes through because it is covered by a membrane in adults
75
what passes through the foramen spinosum?
middle meningeal artery
76
what passes through the carotid canal?
internal carotid artery
77
what passes through the internal auditory meatus?
facial nerve VII, vestibulocochlear nerve VIII
78
what passes through the jugular foramen?
internal jugular vein, glossopharyngeal nerve IX, vagus nerve X, and spinal accessory nerve XI
79
what passes through the hypoglossal canal?
hypoglossal nerve XII
80
what passes through the supraorbital foramen?
supraorbital artery and nerve
81
what passes through the inferior orbital fissure?
zygomatic nerve and blood vessels
82
what passes through the infraorbital foramen?
infraorbital nerve
83
what passes through the mental foramen?
blood vessels and trigeminal nerve V
84
what passes through the foramen magnum?
spinal cord
85
what passes through the stylomastoid foramen?
facial nerve VII
86
what passes through the mandibular foramen?
alveolar nerve
87
what passes through the transverse foramen of cervical vertebrae?
vertebral arteries
88
what passes through the costal groove
neurovascular bundle
89
mnemonic for cranial nerves:
Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch And Feel Very Good Velvet AH
I. olfactory nerve
II. optic nerve
III. oculomotor nerve
IV. trochlear nerve
V. trigeminal nerve
VI. abducens nerve
VII. facial nerve
VIII. vestibulocochlear nerve
IX. glossopharyngeal nerve
X. vagus nerve
XI. spinal accessory nerve
XII. hypoglossal nerve
90
hyoid bone
unique in that it does not articulate with any other bone; rather, many muscles originate or insert into it
91
what are the five types of vertebrae?
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal
92
how many vertebrae are cervical?
seven
93
how many vertebrae are thoracic?
twelve
94
how many vertebrae are lumbar?
five
95
cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are all _____
unfused
96
cervical vertebrae
articulations are not as confined, allowing for a wide range of motion in the head and neck
97
cervical vertebrae have a _____ spinous process and a _____ foramen
bifid; transverse
98
the transverse foramina in cervical vertebrae transmit the vertebral arteries, do what?
form the basilar artery and deliver blood to the brain
99
thoracic vertebrae
articulate with the ribs, limiting flexion in the thorax
100
the articular processes of thoracic vertebrae are directed anterior and posterior, causing what?
decreased flexion and extension of the thorax
101
lumbar vertebrae
articular processes are directed medially and laterally, limiting rotation in the lower spine
102
cauda equina
at L1, the spinal cord proper stops and becomes hanging "roots"
103
where is a spinal tap performed?
between L3 and L4 in order to avoid hitting the spinal cord
104
sacrum
made up of five fused vertebrae
105
sacral foramina
transmit blood vessels and spinal nerves to the lower body
106
coccyx
the tail bone; made up of four fused vertebrae
107
what are the four natural curvatures of the spinal cord?
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral
108
when determining which articular process is superior and which is inferior, it is based on their position on the _____, NOT their position in the _____
vertebra; joint
109
cervical vertebrae key features
kidney bean shaped body and horizontal spinous process with a bifid spine in cervical vertebrae 3-6
110
the hyoid bone does not actually articulate with the _____
cervical vertebrae
111
atlas
the first cervical vertebra (C1)
112
what makes the atlas different from other cervical vertebrae?
it has no body, a large vertebral foramen, it articulates with the skull, and has no spinous process
113
axis
the second cervical vertebra (C2); articulates with the atlas
114
what is the primary function of the axis?
to provide the atlas with a pivot point for when the head is turned laterally and medially
115
dens
fits up inside the atlas to form the atlanto-axial joint, which allows rotation of the head
116
_____ vertebrae are the largest vertebrae in the human body
lumbar
117
sacrum
is specialized to provide a stable anchoring point for the bones of the pelvic girdle
118
coccyx
serves as an attachment point for several ligaments and muscles of the pelvic floor
119
thoracic cage
compromised of the sternum and twelve pairs of ribs
120
the twelve pairs of ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae _____
posteriorly
121
ten of the pairs of ribs connect to the sternum _____ to enclose the thoracic organs in a protective cage
anteriorly
122
sternum
flat bone
123
what three bony elements make up the sternum?
manubrium, sternal body, xiphoid process
124
manubrium
articulates with the sternal body at the sternal angle and articulates with the clavicle at the clavicular notch
125
xiphoid process
the attachment site for several muscles and is made up of hyaline cartilage until late adulthood, when it completely ossifies
126
why are people advised not to perform CPR without proper training?
poor technique could lead to snapping off the xiphoid process and thus puncturing a lung
127
costal cartilage
attaches the ribs to the sternum and is somewhat flexible allowing for expansion of the rib cage during inhalation
128
ribs are classified according to how they articulate with the _____
sternum
129
true ribs
first seven pairs; their costal cartilage attaches directly to the sternum
130
false ribs
rib pairs 8-12; their costal cartilage does not connect to the sternum directly
131
floating ribs
rib pairs 11 and 12; a subset of false ribs that do not articulate with the sternum and serve little use other than protection of the kidneys
132
each rib has a _____ with two articular facets for articulating with the costal facets of the thoracic vertebrae
head
133
tubercle of rib
articulates with the transverse costal facet of the corresponding vertebra
134
costal groove
runs on the inferior border of the inner face of all ribs and carries a neurovascular bundle
135
neurovascular bundle
vein, artery, and nerve
136
where are injections or intrusions made between ribs?
on the superior border of the inferior rib
137
what should doctors or nurses avoid hitting when making injections?
the neurovascular bundle: hitting this area would cause tremendous pain for the patient
