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MTAP 2 (FINALS) ROAD TO MANILA HOTEL <333 > LABORATORY MANAGEMENT > Flashcards

LABORATORY MANAGEMENT Flashcards

1
Q

5 HIERARCHY OF CONTROLS (from most to least effective)

A

ELIMINATION
SUBSTITUTION
ENGINEERING CONTROLS
ADMINISTRATIVE CONTROLS
PPE

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2
Q

Removes hazard at the source

Preferred solution to protect workers
because no exposure can occur

A

Elimination

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3
Q

using a safer alternative to the source of
the hazard

effective substitutes reduce the potential
for harmful effects and do not create new
risks

A

SUBSTITUTION

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4
Q

reduce or prevent hazards from coming
into contact with workers.

Can include modifying equipment or the
workspace, using protective barriers,
ventilation, and more.

Can cost more than administrative
controls or PPE. However, long-term
operating costs tend to be lower,
especially when protecting multiple
workers.

A

Engineering
Controls

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5
Q

Establish work practices that reduce the
duration, frequency, or intensity of
exposure to hazards.

A

Administrative
Controls

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6
Q

Equipment worn to minimize exposure to
hazards

A

PPE

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7
Q

Might seem to be less expensive than
other controls, but can be costly over
time.

A

PPE

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8
Q

Biological hazards are disease producing agents (pathogens) that can be transmitted to individuals through various routes of exposure (modes of transmission). Exposure to these hazards may result in acute or chronic health conditions.

A

BIOHAZARDS

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9
Q

5 COMMON MODES OF TRANSMISSION

A
  1. BLOOD AND BODY FLUIDS
  2. FECAL-ORAL
  3. CONTACT
  4. SMALL PARTICLE AEROSOL (AIRBORNE)
  5. More than one mode: contact,
    and/or droplet spray
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10
Q

EXAMPLES OF PATHOGENS: BLOOD AND BODY FLUIDS

A

Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
(HIV)

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11
Q

EXAMPLES OF PATHOGENS: FECAL-ORAL

A

Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
Hepatitis E Virus (HEV)

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12
Q

MODE OF TRANSMISSION:
Herpes Simplex Viruses (HSV)
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Vancomycin Resistant
Enterococcus (VRE)
Methicillin Resistant
Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
Clostridium difficile (C. difficile)

A

CONTACT

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13
Q

EXAMPLES OF PATHOGENS: AIRBORNE

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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14
Q

More than one mode: contact,
and/or droplet spray

A

Severe Acute Respiratory
Syndrome Coronavirus 2 (SARSCoV-2)
Herpes Zoster Virus (HZV)
Influenza virus (Flu)
Measles (Rubeola virus)

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15
Q

CHAIN OF INFECTION

A

MICROORGANISM
RESERVOIR/SOURCE
PORT OF EXIT
MOT
PORT OF ENTRY
SUSCEPTIBLE HOST

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16
Q

bacteria, virus, fungus, parasite

A

microorganisms

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17
Q

habitat for organisms to grow: human, animal, air, food, soil, water, equipment

A

reservoir/source

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18
Q

SECRETION (SALIVA)
EXCRETION (URINE, FECES)

A

PORT OF EXIT

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19
Q

CONTACT, DROPLET, AIRBORNE, VECTOR, FORMITES

A

MODE OF TRANSPORT

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20
Q

MUCOSA LINING, OPEN WOUND, ORAL, RESPIRATORY TRACT, URINARY TRACT

A

PORT OF ENTRY

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21
Q

VERY YOUNG & ELDERLY, WITH CHRONIC DISEASE, MALNOURISHED, IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

A

SUSCEPTIBLE HOST

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22
Q

Agents that have no known potential for infecting healthy people

A

BSL1

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23
Q

Microorganisms associated with human diseases that are rarely serious and for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are often available.

A

BSL2

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24
Q

Material that may contain viruses not normally encountered in a clinical laboratory and mycobacteria

A

BSL 3 WITH RISK BASED
ENHANCEMENTS

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25
Q

dangerous and exotic agents that pose a higher risk of aerosol transmitted laboratory infections and life-threatening disease for which effective treatments are limited.

A

BSL4

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26
Q
  • Controlled access
  • Hand washing sink
  • Sharp hazards warning policy
  • Personal protective equipment
  • Laboratory bench
  • Autoclave
A

BSL1

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27
Q
  • Controlled access
  • Hand washing sink
  • Sharp hazards warning policy
  • Physical containment device
  • Personal protective equipment
  • Laboratory bench
    AUTOCLAVE
A

BSL2

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28
Q

*Air tight when disinfecting
* Self-closing, double-door access
* Controlled access
* Personal shower out (risk-based
enhancement)
* Sharp hazards warning policy
* Hand washing sink
* Sealed penetrations
* Physical containment device
* Powered air purifying respirator
(risk-based enhancement)
* Laboratory bench
* Autoclave
* Exhaust HEPA filter (risk-based
enhancement)
* Effluent decontamination system
(risk-based enhancement)

A

BSL 3 WITH RISK BASED
ENHANCEMENTS

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29
Q
  • Air tight
  • Self-closing, double-door access
  • Controlled access
  • Sharp hazards warning policy
  • Hand washing sink
    Sealed penetrations
    Physical containment device
    Positive pressure protective suit
    Laboratory bench
    Autoclave
    Chemical shower out
    Personal shower out
    Supply and exhaust HEPA filter
    Effluent decontamination system
A

BSL4

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30
Q

Most important means of preventing the spread of infection

A

HAND WASHING

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31
Q

If hands are visibly soiled, wash hands with soap and water for ___
mins

A

1-2 MINS

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32
Q

If hands are not visibly soiled, wash hands for at least ___. or use
____ hand cleaners

A

30 secs
alcohol based

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33
Q

*CDC Guidelines: During hand washing, thoroughly clean between your fingers and under your fingernails for at least _____. And rinse your hands in a _____ position to prevent recontamination.

A

20 secs
downward

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34
Q

Worn to protect the clothing and skin of
health

Protect workers from contamination
Should be put on first

A

lab gown

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35
Q

Worn to protect against splashes and
inhalation of droplets containing
pathogens from infective patients.

A

mask, googles, face shields

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36
Q

Worn to protect healthcare workers from contamination by patient body substances

A

gloves

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37
Q

DONNING

A

1.Gown should be put on first
2.Mask should cover both nose
and mouth
3.Gloves should be pulled over the
gown cuff

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38
Q

DOFFING

A

1.Gloves are removed first.
2.Gown should be pulled from the
shoulders towards the hands
3. Mask should be removed

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39
Q

Decontamination of Body Fluid Spills
✓ _______
✓ Recommended contact time is _____

A

5.25% NaCL or 10% chlorine bleach (1:10 dilution)

15 minutes

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40
Q

enclosed workspaces with a ventilated hood that is designed to contain pathogenic microorganisms during microbiological processes.

A

Biosafety Cabinets

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41
Q

Class I and II Biosafety cabinets are used for Biosafety levels __ and __

A

I and II

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42
Q

Class III BSCs are most suitable for work with hazardous agents that require Biosafety Level __OR __

A

3 OR 4

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43
Q

the most basic biosafety cabinet that provides
protection to the environment and the laboratory personnel.

A

CLASS 1

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44
Q

It doesn’t provide protection to the product as the unsterilized room air is drawn over the work surface.

A

CLASS 1

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45
Q

cabinets protect the operator and the environment from the aerosol but not the sample.

A

CLASS 1

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46
Q

provide both kinds of protection (of the samples and the environment) since makeup air is also HEPA- filtered.

A

CLASS II

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47
Q

5 TYPES OF CLASS II BIOSAFETY CABINETS

A

TYPE A1
TYPE A2
TYPE B1
TYPE B2
TYPE C1

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48
Q

The type A1 cabinets have a minimum inflow
velocity of ____

A

75ft/min

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49
Q

This type of cabinet is not as widely used as it is not safe to work with hazardous chemical substances.

A

CLASS II TYPE A1

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50
Q

The type A2 cabinets have a minimum inflow
velocity of

A

100 ft/min.

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51
Q

Because of the chances of the release of
hazardous chemicals into the environment, _____ cabinets are also not extensively used.

A

CLASS II TYPE A2

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52
Q

These cabinets have a dedicated duct system
which allows the release of the contaminated air
out of the facility.

A

CLASS II TYPE B1

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53
Q

In the case of Type B1 cabinets, ___ of the air is recirculated, whereas the remaining ___ is exhausted out of the facility

A

40%
60%

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54
Q

All of the contaminated airflow (100%) in these cabinets is externally exhausted which means the air drawn into the cabinet is 100% exhausted into the atmosphere.

Because none of the air is recirculated, these
cabinets are the best to be used for tasks involving the release of chemical vapors.

A

CLASS II TYPE B2

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55
Q

expensive, and their use is limited to toxicology laboratories where protection against hazardous chemicals is imperative.

A

CLASS II TYPE B2

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56
Q

Similar to Type B cabinets in their working mechanism, but these are designed to reduce operating costs add flexibility to the laboratories.

the cabinets provide protection to the
environment, the operator, and the workstation or
the biological material.

A

CLASS II TYPE C1

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57
Q

Are leak-tight, totally enclosed but ventilated
cabinets, where all air that either enters or leaves through the facility pass through a HEPA filter.

A

CLASS III

58
Q

CLASS III CABINETS ARE ALSO TERMED AS ____

A

GLOVE BOXES

59
Q

These cabinets can be used for all four Biosafety levels (1, 2, 3, and 4). But these are the most important for the manipulation of biological materials in the Biosafety level 4.

All of these structural and design features provide maximum protection to the operator, the
environment

A

CLASS III

60
Q

carcinogen
mutagenicity
reproductive toxicity
respiratory sensitizer target organ toxicity
aspiration toxicity

A

HEALTH HAZARD

61
Q

flammables
pyrophoric
self-heating
emits flammable gas self-reactives
organic peroxides

A

FLAME

62
Q

IRRITANT (skin and eye)
skin sensitizer
acute toxicity
narcotic effects
respiratory tract irritant
hazardous to ozone layer

A

EXCLAMATION MARK

63
Q

GASES UNDER PRESSURE

A

GAS CYLINDER

64
Q

SKIN CORROSION/BURNS
EYE DAMAGE
CORROSIVE TO METALS

A

CORROSION

65
Q

EXPLOSIVES
SELF-REACTIVES
ORGANIC PEROXIDES

A

EXPLODING BOMB

66
Q

OXIDIZERS

A

FLAME OVER CIRCLE

67
Q

AQUATIC TOXICITY

A

ENVIRONMENT

68
Q

ACUTE TOXICITY ( fatal or toxic)

A

SKULL AND CROSSBONES

69
Q

An important source of information for workers,
lab personnel, emergency responders, and emergency medical
personnel

A

Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

70
Q

Safety Data Sheets (SDS), formerly called ___

A

Material Safety Data
Sheets (MSDS)

71
Q

In compliance with the new Hazard Communication Standard, SDS are divided into ____ sections

A

16

72
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Storage should be based solely on alphabetical order because incompatible chemicals may react chemically.

A

FALSE (should not be alpabetical order)

73
Q

6 substance storage

A

flammable liquids

mineral acids

caustics

perchloric acid

air-reactive substances

heat-reactive substances requiring refrigeration

74
Q

4 substances stored separately

A

flammable solids
organic acids
oxidizers
water-reactive substances

75
Q

NFPA standard hazards identification system

A

BLUE- HEALTH
RED-FIRE
YELLOW- INSTABILITY
WHITE-SPECIFIC

76
Q

CLASS OF FIRE: “A”
TYPE OF FIRE:
EXTINGUISHER:

A

ORDINARY COMBUSTIBLE

WOOD, CLOTH, PAPER

TYPE A
TYPE A-B

77
Q

CLASS OF FIRE: “B”
TYPE OF FIRE:
EXTINGUISHER:

A

FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS

OILS, GASOLINE, PAINTS, GREASE

TYPE A-B
TYPE B-C
TYPE A-B-C

78
Q

CLASS OF FIRE: “C”
TYPE OF FIRE:
EXTINGUISHER:

A

LIVE ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT

ELECTRICAL WIRING, FUSE BOX

TYPE B-C
TYPE A-B-C

79
Q

CLASS OF FIRE: “D”
TYPE OF FIRE:
EXTINGUISHER:

A

COMBUSTIBLE METALS

METALS

BUCKET OF SAND

80
Q

CLASS OF FIRE: “K”
TYPE OF FIRE:
EXTINGUISHER:

A

COMMERCIAL COOKING EQUIPMENT

COMMERCIAL COOKING OIL APPLIANCES

WET CHEMICAL

81
Q

Activities characterized by constant or excessive repetitive actions, mechanical pressure, vibrations, compressive forces or static postures for an extended period of time which may cause cumulative trauma disorders or work related MSD

A

ERGONOMIC HAZARDS

82
Q

COLOR OF BAG: NON- INFECTIOUS DRY WASTE

A

BLACK

83
Q

COLOR OF BAG: NON-INFECTIOUS WET WASTE (kitchen, dietary, etc.)

A

GREEN

84
Q

color of bag: infectious AND PATHOLOGICAL WASTE

A

YELLOW

85
Q

COLOR OF BAG: CHEMICAL WASTE INCLUDING THOSE WITH HEAVY METALS

A

YELLLOW WITH BLACK BAND

86
Q

COLOR OF BAG: RADIOACTIVE WASTE

A

ORANGE

87
Q

COLOR OF BAG: SHARPS AND PRESSURIZED CONTAINERS

A

RED

88
Q

the organizing and controlling of the affairs of a business or a sector of a business or “working with and through people to accomplish a common mission.”

A

MANAGEMENT

89
Q

4 LEADERSHIP STYLES

A

AUTHORITARIAN
DEMOCRATIC
CONSENSUS
LAISSEZ-FAIRE

90
Q

autocratic; closed system; manager makes all decisions
without input from others

A

AUTHORITARIAN

91
Q

participated; open system; manager makes decisions after polling staff

A

DEMOCRATIC

92
Q

manager gets at least partial agreement from staff

A

CONSENSUS

93
Q

free reign; manager leaves decision to staff, abdicates responsibility

A

LAISSEZ-FAIRE

94
Q

5 MASLOW’S HEIRARCHY OF NEEDS

A

1.SELF-ACTUALIZATION
2.SELF-STEEM
3.LOVE AND BELONGING
4.SAFETY AND SECURITY
5. PHYSIOLOGICAL NEEDS

95
Q

Styles can be plotted on a continuum from authoritative to democratic.

A

Tannenbaum and Schmidt theory

96
Q

X theory relates to authoritative leader
Y theory relates to the democratic leader

A

Douglas McGregor’s X and Y theory

97
Q

describes five types of management situations:

A

Blake and Mouton theory

98
Q

Low concern for people and production

A

Impoverished management

99
Q

Low concern for people, but high concern
for production

A

Authority-compliance

100
Q

Medium concern for people and production

A

Middle-of-the-road management

101
Q

High concern for people, but low
concern for production

A

Country club management

102
Q

High concern for people and production

A

Team management

103
Q

This theory indicates that the style used by the leader may vary
according to the situation

A

Fielder theory

104
Q

Four leadership situations:

A

Hersey-Blanchard theory

105
Q

4 SKILLS OF MANAGERS

A

ORGANIZATIONAL
PEOPLE
FINANCIAL
TECHNICAL

106
Q

Conceptualize and apply management process,
systematize work flow, make decisions, and communicate with coworkers.

A

ORGANIZATIONAL

107
Q

Understands basic theories of human needs and work motivation.

A

PEOPLE SKILLS

108
Q

Effective use of and accounting for the monetary assets of the company.

A

FINANCIAL SKILLS

109
Q

Involve the synthesis of the first three skills above and the
management of physical resources (supplies, equipment, facilities) into the operational parameters (products and services)

A

TECHNICAL SKILLS

110
Q

4 FOUNDATION OF MANAGEMENT PROCESS

A

VISION
MISION
GOALS
OBJETIVES

111
Q

a descriptive picture of a desired future state, long-term

A

VISION

112
Q

organization’s purpose

A

MISION

113
Q

organization’s desired outcomes, intermediate term and broad

A

GOALS

114
Q

directives that describe how a goal will be achieved ; should be SMART

A

OBJECTIVES

115
Q

SMART meaning

A

SPECIFIC
MEASURABLE
ACHIEVABLE
RELEVANT
TIME-BOUND

116
Q

The concept of management as a continuous process of interacting functions, each dependent on the success of the other

A

MANAGEMENT PROCESS

117
Q

4 MAIN FUNCTIONS OF MANAGEMENT PROCESS

A

PLANNING
ORGANIZING
DIRECTING
CONTROLLING

118
Q

act of overseeing all activities and tasks that must be accomplished to maintain a desired level of excellence.

A

QUALITY MANAGEMENT

119
Q

provides both a management philosophy for organizational development and a management process for improvement of quality in all aspects of work.

A

TOTAL QUALTY MANAGEMENT

120
Q

FIVE-Q FRAMEWORK

A

QUALITY LABORATORY PROCESS
QUALITY CONTROL
QUALITY ASSESSMENT
QUALITY IMPROVEMENT
QUALITY PLANNING

121
Q

includes analytical processes and the general policies, practices and procedures that define how all aspects of the laboratory are done (Quality Assurance)

A

QUALITY LABORATORY PROCESS

122
Q

Emphasizes statistical control procedures, but also includes non-statistical check procedure such as linearity checks, reagents and standard checks and temperature monitoring

A

QUALITY CONTROL

123
Q

concerned primarily with broader measures and monitoring of
laboratory performance (TAT, patient ID, test utility).

A

QUALITY ASSESSMENT

124
Q

a structured problem solving process to help identify the root cause of a problem and a remedy for that problem.

A

QUALITY IMPROVEMENT

125
Q

provides the planning to eliminate problems identified by QI

A

QUALITY PLANNING

126
Q

PDCA cycle stands for what?

A

plan
do
check
act

127
Q

a set of methodologies and tools used to improve business
processes by reducing defects and errors, minimizing variation, and increasing quality and efficiency.

A

SIX SIGMA

128
Q

The goal of Six Sigma is to achieve a level of quality that is nearly perfect, with only ____ defects per million opportunities.

A

3.4

129
Q

The Six Sigma Methodology comprises five data-driven stage, THESE ARE:

A

Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Control

130
Q

___ IS designed to reduce waste, increase efficiency, and improve customer satisfaction; often used in clinical laboratories to improve turn around time (TAT)

A

LEAN

131
Q

a standard that requires labs to develop a robust, reliable quality management system (QMS) to establish their competence. Management by objective (MBO)

A

ISO 15189: 2022

132
Q

Targets organizational and employee performance by aligning goals and objectives throughout the organization, including timelines, tracking, and feedback in the process

A

MANAGEMENT BY OBJECTIVE (MBO)

133
Q

process whereby the best process in one organization is modified to fit similar processes in another organization

A

BENCHMARKING

134
Q

7 QUALITY TOOLS

A

Cause -and -effect diagram
Check sheet
Control chart
Histogram
pareto chart
scatter diagram
stratification

135
Q

Identifies many possible causes for an effect or problem and sorts ideas into useful categories.

A

CAUSE AND EFFECT DIAGRAM

136
Q

CAUSE AND EFFECT DIAGRAM IS ALSO CALLED AS?

A

ISHIKAWA OR FISHBONE DIAGRAM

137
Q

A structured, prepared form for collecting and analyzing data; a generic tool that can be adapted for a wide variety of purposes

A

CHECK SHEET

138
Q

Graph used to study how a process changes over time. Comparing current data to historical control limits leads to conclusions about whether the process variation is consistent (in control) or is unpredictable (out of control, affected by special causes of variation)

A

CONTROL CHART

139
Q

The most commonly used graph for showing frequency distributions, or how often each different value in a set of data occurs.

A

HISTOGRAM

140
Q

A bar graph that shows which factors are more significant.

A

PARETO CHART

141
Q

Graphs pairs of numerical data, one variable on each axis, to look for a relationship.

A

SCATTER DIAGRAM

142
Q

A technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources so that patterns can be seen

A

STRATIFICATION

MTAP 2 (FINALS) ROAD TO MANILA HOTEL <333 (3 decks)

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